The client can be in agony and unable to answer effectively in the case of the given remark.
What are the 4 stages of dementia?Stage 1: Normal operation without any obvious decrease. Stage 2: The individual may sense some decrease at this point. Stage 3: An early sickness that can manifest itself in challenging circumstances. Stage 4: Moderate disease, where the patient needs some help with difficult chores.
What causes dementia?Impairment to or loss of brain's nerve cells and connections is what leads to dementia. Dementia can have varied effects on different people and produce distinct symptoms depending on the portion of the brain which is affected.
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a sports magazine reports that the mean number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at a certain sporting event is equal to 150. a random sample of 50 hot dog vendors was selected, and the mean number of hot dogs sold by the vendors at the sporting event was 140. for samples of size 50, which of the following is true about the sampling distribution of the sample mean number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at the sporting event?
Answer:
The sampling distribution of the sample means the number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at the sporting event is approximately average, with a mean of 150 and a standard deviation of (standard deviation of the population/square root of sample size). The sample means of 140 falls within this normal distribution, and since the sample size is 50, it is likely that the sample mean is not equal to the population means.
Explanation:
which calrification technique would the nurse use to learn more about the ideas and experiences of the patients?
Observing and examining the patient will be the clarification technique used by the nurse to examine the patient.
The main data collection methods are observations, questions, and surveys. Observations are made when the nurse is in contact with the client or assistant. Questionnaires are primarily used when collecting nursing medical histories. Tests are the primary method/technique used to assess physical health. Active Listening - Pay attention to what the client is saying verbally and non-verbally. Sit facing the customer, open up, lean toward the customer, make eye contact, and relax. Sharing Observations - Make observations by commenting on how others look, sound, or act. Repetition encourages patients to provide more information is one of the most effective therapeutic communication methods.
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the provider prescribes 1000 ml of dextrose 5% 0.45%nacl over the next 12 hours. the intravenous delivery system is a microdrip system delivering 60 drops/ml. the nurse should set the infusion to run at which rate? (record your answer as a whole number.)
The nurse should set the infusion to run at 83 gtts/minute if the intravenous delivery device is a microdrip system that delivers 60 drops/ml.
How are drugs for critical care prescribed in drops per minute?There are several different ways to order medications in the critical care unit, including milliliters per hour (mL/hr), drops per minute (gtt/min) (using a microdrop set), micrograms per kilogram per minute (mcg/kg/min), and milligrams per hour (mg/hr). These drugs are often given using infusion pumps and volume control equipment.
What are the three measurement systems used in pharmacology, and which one is most frequently employed?The apothecary, metric, and home systems are used to measure medications. To give medications safely, nurses should be skilled in using various systems of pharmaceutical measure.
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a patient develops an infection after dental implant surgery. which condition is the client likely to develop if the infection is left untreated?
Answer:
Septicemia
Explanation:
in providing health promotion educaton to reduce the likelihood of transmission of sexually transmitted desease, which actions would still have a low increased risk? select all that apply
You can prevent STDs by using a conudom appropriately each time. All STDs have lower infection rates thanks to conduits. Certain STDs, such as herpes or HPV, are still contagious.
Which of the following is a strategy that professionals advise using to lower the risk of sexuually transmitted infections?Three fundamental strategies can be used to prevent and manage sexiually transmitted infections: lowering the risk of transmission during any sexuoal encounter (for example, by using conduoms); lowering the frequency of soexual partner switching; and lowering the duration of an individual's infectiousness.
Which of the following is thought to be the first action in stopping STIS?When having an oral, vagoinal, or nasal procedure, use a consent properly to lessen the chance of STI transmission.
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what group of patients have a greater burden of illness and frailty?
The group of patients that have a greater burden of illness and frailty are immune compromised patients.
What patients have a greater burden of illness?We have to note that a patient would be ill most often and have a more severe illness when the immunity of the patient have ben compromised. This is very important especially when a person is suffering from a severe disease.
The chances of frailty and susceptibility to illness is going to be much higher when the immune system of the patient is no longer working so well such that he or she is open to infections.
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a client with multiple myeloma reports pain along the spinal column. the client is prescribed naproxen (aleve) and oxycodone. prior to administering these medications, the nurse
a client with multiple myeloma reports pain along the spinal column. the client is prescribed naproxen (aleve) and oxycodone. prior to administering these medications, the nurse should check vital signs and perform regular test.
should evaluate the client's medical background and current medications to identify any potential drug interactions or contraindications. The client's vital signs, amount of pain, and any additional pertinent symptoms should all be evaluated by the nurse. The nurse must enter in the client's file any allergies or pharmaceutical side effects the client may have. The client should also receive education from the nurse regarding how to take their drugs properly, any possible adverse effects, and any monitoring that may be necessary. The nurse must also adhere to the right medicine administration procedures and record the administration in the client's record.
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which instructions would the nurse give the mother of a newborn boy who is being discharged 4 hours after having had a circumcision?
The nurse will tell the mother of the a newborn boy who has been discharged to use a loose diaper for many days.
The glans stays sore for 2 to 3 days, the diaper is worn loosely to reduce pressure on the circumcised region. Because of its association with Reye syndrome, aspirin may prolong clotting so it is contraindicated in children. Acetaminophen & many other pain relievers may be recommended. For the first 12 hours following the circumcision, the career should check for blood every hour.
The presence of whitish fluid surrounding the glans is normal and does not suggest an infected condition. Rinse the affected area with water. Commercial diaper wipes should be avoided. Give your infant sponge baths after surgery if his umbilical chord is still intact.
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while a client is holding and talking to her newborn immediately following delivery, she begins to cry. how does the nurse interpret the client's behavior
The client is experiencing a normal response to birth hence, there is nothing to worry about the client's behavior while a client is holding and talking to her newborn immediately following delivery, she begins to cry.
What does the term newborn refers in context of pregnancy?Term newborns are those born between 37 and 42 completed weeks, according to the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) and the National Institutes of Health (NIH).
A baby who has recently entered the world is referred to as a newborn. The World Health Organization defines a newborn as being younger than 28 days old, but medical professionals often refer to infants as newborns up to 2 months old.
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the nurse observes that a client's nasogastric tube has suddenly stopped draining. the tube is connected to suction, the machine is on and functioning, and all connections are snug. after checking placement, the nurse gently flushes the tube with 30 ml of normal saline, but the tube still is not draining. the nurse would conclude which is the problem, and what action would be taken?
The nurse would either let the doctor know or ask for a radiological assessment of the tube's placement.
Why would a patient need a nasogastric tube?Nasogastric tubes can also be used to provide nourishment or medication to individuals that are unable to accept oral administration. Nasogastric tubes are often utilized for decompress of the stomachs in the setting of bowel obstruction during ileus.
Who needs nasogastric tube?If your struggle to swallow or eat, you might need to have a nasogastric tube put in. The process is known as "nasogastric (NG) intubation." In NG intubation, the physician or nurse will insert a little piece of plastic into your nostril, esophagus, and stomach.
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describing and assigning nomenclature to a previously unrecognized or nameless concept based on a review of related empirical and conceptual contributions to nursing practice is termed ; taking a concept from another discipline and moving it to nursing to explain a phenomenon is termed .
The conceptual-theoretical-empirical (CTE) structure is a framework for nursing knowledge that calls for careful consideration of both process and content elements.
What is the contribution of empirical in nursing?
EMPIRICISM'S CONTRIBUTION TO CLINICAL PRACTICE IN NURSING EPISTEMOLOGY. Additionally, clinical practice has evolved to be more technologically dependent and scientific in order to identify complex patient situations, which frequently necessitate extended observation and assessment due to the complexity. Empiricism allows for the objective identification and observation of human phenomena associated with both typical and pathological physiological or psychological processes. Conclusions: Based on an explanation of related phenomena, the nursing knowledge obtained through an empirical approach is deemed appropriate for generalization.Philosophy in nursing. The significance of nursing phenomena is explained through analysis, justification, and logical presentation in this most abstract type.To learn more about Nursing Process refer to:
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which type of pharmacy literature provides the foundation for the development of other pharmacy literature?
The primary pharmacy literature provides the foundation for the development of other pharmacy literature.
Pharmacy is the field of science that deals with the study and practice of discovering, producing, preparing, dispensing, reviewing and monitoring drugs and medicines. The goal of pharmacy is to ensure that medicines should be safe as well as effective for consumption.
Pharmacy literature is the collection of books, scholarly articles, encyclopedia, and various other sources that provide the in-depth knowledge of several drugs and medicines. It provides the actual knowledge about the development of medications. These literary books are written after extensive research and experiments.
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after the nurse obtains patient data during the assessment phase, a nursing diagnosis would be selected from an approved nanda list. the nursing diagnosis contains which of the following? select all that apply. attention to the differences in human need fulfillment or alteration occurring listing of cues, clues, evidence, signs, symptoms, or other data to support human need statement of human need medical diagnosis
the nursing diagnosis contains the following Listing of cues, clues, evidence, signs, symptoms, or other data to support human need, Attention to the differences in human need fulfillment or alteration occurring, and a Statement of human need.
A Nanda accepted nursing diagnosis is what?A formal definition of nursing diagnosis was established by the organization in 1990 at its 9th conference. It reads as follows: "Nursing diagnosis is a clinical judgment concerning individual, family, or community responses to present or potential health problems/life processes.
What stage of the nursing procedure follows the assessment phase?With 5 consecutive steps, the nursing process serves as a structured manual for client-centered care. These include evaluation, planning, implementation, diagnosis, and assessment. The first step is assessment, which calls for the use of critical thinking abilities and the gathering of both subjective and objective facts.
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the nurse is preparing the client for the administration of an enema. the nurse will place the client into which position?
For the administration of an enema, the nurse will put the patient in a left lateral or knee-chest posture.
This position makes it simpler to insert the enema tube while also aiding in the relaxation of the rectal muscles.
In order to stimulate bowel movements, clean the colon, or deliver medication, a liquid solution is introduced into the rectum and colon through the anus .A person in the knee-chest position is on their hands and knees, with their head down and their chest near to their knees.
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a client is meeting with the nurse to discuss options for smoking cessation. which statement by the nurse is most appropriate for this client?
"What do you see as your biggest hurdle to stopping?" would be the nurse's statement for this client..
To assess the efficacy of smoking cessation program administered by nurses in adults. To determine whether nursing delivered smoking cessation interventions are much more effective than the no intervention; are much more effective if the intervention is much more intensive; differ in effectiveness depending on the participants' health status and setting; are more effective if follow ups are included; and are more effective if aids that demonstrate this same pathophysiological effect of smoking are included.
Tobacco-related fatalities and disabilities are increasing globally as a result of ongoing tobacco usage (mainly cigarettes). Tobacco use reached epidemic levels in many low and middle income countries, while steady consumption persists in high income ones such as the United States. Most smokers desire to stop and may benefit from expert counsel and assistance.
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which are indicators of nutritional risk in a pregnant client who is of normal weight? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Smoker, pregnant with twins, hemoglobin 12 g/dL, delivered 2 years ago, fasting blood sugar 80 mg/dL. These are nutritional risks for pregnant clients.
Smokers generally have poorer diets and are at risk of staying on the same diet during pregnancy. Multiple pregnancies require more food than is needed for a normal pregnancy. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL and a fasting blood glucose level of 80 mg/dL is normal. 180 mg/day of caffeine intake is below the recommended daily intake. During pregnancy, a poor diet deficient in key nutrients such as iodine, iron, folic acid, calcium, and zinc can lead to maternal anemia, preeclampsia, bleeding, and death. It can also lead to weight gain, wasting, and developmental delay in children.
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two days after abdominal surgery, a client experiences extensive flatus. the nurse administers the harris flush (harris drip). which finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
The observation that properly identifies a treatment effect in a patient who has severe flatulence two days after abdominal surgery is that the patient's belly is, the client's stomach is less distended.
This is one of the most important evaluations a healthcare professional may make of a patient who has experienced severe flatulence following surgery.
The Harris flush eliminates gas buildup in the gut, which lessens abdominal distention. A bowel movement shows that an enema, not a Harris flush, was effective. The goal of a Harris flush is not to stimulate evacuation. Small quantities of feces are typically present in the returns of a Harris flush, the bowel is not cleansed with this method. Small volumes of the fluid are gently injected rather than being kept, and they are then allowed to slowly return, carrying the gas with them.
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The above question is incomplete. The complete question is given below-
Two days after abdominal surgery a client experiences extensive flatus. The nurse administers the Harris flush (Harris drip). Which finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
a. Client has a bowel movement.
b. Client's returns are finally clear.
c. Client's abdomen is less distended.
d. Client is able to retain a half liter of fluid.
which nursing intervention should a nurse perform when caring for a client who is prescribed opiate therapy for pain?
Nursing interventions that must be carried out by nurses when caring for clients who are prescribed opiate therapy for pain are not to give it if breathing is less than 12 breaths per minute.
Opiates are one of the pain relievers that are often used in medicine. However, like other drugs, opioids cannot be used carelessly.
The normal respiration rate for adults at rest is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A breathing rate under 12 or more than 25 breaths per minute at rest is considered abnormal.
So, don't give opiates if your breathing is less than 12 breaths per minute because it's not recommended.
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the nurse is assisting in caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate by continuous intravenous infusion. the nurse ensures that which medication is readily available if a morphine overdose occurs?
If a client is getting morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion and a morphine overdose develops, nalmefene (Revex) medicine is easily accessible.
What types of pain does morphine work best on?For the treatment of moderate to severe cancer pain, morphine is regarded as the gold standard opiate and the medication of choice (Schug et al 1990; Wilson et al 1997; Benedetti et al 2000). Before switching to another opiate like fentanyl, hydromorphone, or oxycodone, it should be titrated to the point of maximal tolerance.
What is morphine now used for?The non-synthetic narcotic morphine is produced from opium and has a significant potential for misuse. It is employed to manage pain.
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question which fad diet works by requiring the body to burn fat before protein, thus decreasing body fat?
The high protein/low carbohydrate diet is a fad diet that works by forcing the body to burn fat before protein, resulting in weight loss.
Obesity is a global health issue that affects millions of people globally. Obesity is caused by an imbalance between calorie intake and calorie expenditure via regular physical exercise. One such fad diet that is claimed by some to help decrease weight and keep it at healthy levels is the high protein & low carbohydrate diet. The high protein diet, like previous fad diets, did not live up to its hype. Fad diets are also popular since they only work for just a short period of time.
In most situations, this is due to eating less calories than usual. A fad diet also makes you more conscious of what you consume. However, the majority of the weight you lose will most likely be water and lean muscle, not body fat. It is also difficult to keep up with the requirements of a tight diet. Fad diets frequently restrict your dietary options or compel you to consume the same items again and over.
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which of the following statements about national health disparities initiatives is true? although multiple federal agencies have set goals for reducing health disparities, accountability and funding have been inadequate and little progress has been made. as a direct result of the establishment of the u.s. department of health and human services task force on black and minority health, health disparities have been significantly reduced throughout the united states. the national institutes of health has primary responsibility for reducing health disparities in the united states. the healthy people initiative was launched by the institute of medicine in 1999.
Although many government agencies have set targets for addressing healthcare disparities, little has been achieved cos of poor responsibility and funding.
What instances of health inequities are there?Although differences in health and healthcare are frequently seen through the lens of ethnicity and race they exist across a wide variety of characteristics. For instance, discrepancies exist in terms of financial position, age, region, language, gender, status as a person with a disability, nationality, and sexual orientation.
Why do health inequities exist?There is strong evidence that a person's health is significantly influenced by social characteristics such as education, work position, income level, gender, and ethnicity. There are significant differences in the health condition of various social groups in all nations, regardless of if they are low-, middle-, or elevated.
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Psychology is considered a science because it uses a systematic method of asking and answering questions. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
It is true that psychology has been considered as the science because it has so many uses the systematic method of the asking as well as the answering questions.
What is psychology?The scientific has the basically sense of the how individuals will behave, as it assume, and feel which is known as the psychology. Experiences shape has everything that about the human existence.
Essentially, psychology benefits people since it can explain how people behave the way they do and just from basic brain functions to the consciousness, recollection, reasoning, and dialect, as well as personality and mental health.
Therefore, It is true that psychology has been considered as the science because it has so many uses the systematic method of the asking as well as the answering questions.
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Answer:
true
Explanation:
on edg
what determines if a male patient should stand or sit to urinate?
9. when recording their observations, evaluators should include all the following performance-related data except:
The IP takes the observations and recommendations from the draft AAR and resolves them through the development of concrete corrective actions.
What is evaluators?
In this model, the role of the evaluator is to provide information to the decision-maker at the context, input, process, and product stages of the evaluation.An evaluation is an appraisal of something to determine its worth or fitness. For example, before you start an exercise program, get a medical evaluation, to make sure you're able to handle the activity.The process of judging or calculating the quality, importance, amount, or value of something: Evaluation of this new treatment cannot take place until all the data has been collected.For example, an evaluator can be a judge during the phase of selecting criteria of merit, a methodologist when collecting data, a program facilitator during the program implementation, and an educator during the results dissemination.To learn more about evaluators refers to;
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Which pharmacology related nursing activities are part of the evaluation step of the nursing process? Select all that apply.*Monitoring for adverse drug effects.*Offering the patient's favorite drink while taking medications.*Organizing how the medications are going to be administered.*Determining patient known medication allergies.*Assessing the patient's response to pain medication.
All are part of the evaluation step in pharmacology related nursing activities: (1) Monitoring for adverse drug effects; (2) Offering the patient's favorite drink while taking medications; (3) Organizing how the medications are going to be administered; (4) Determining patient known medication allergies; (5) Assessing the patient's response to pain medication.
Pharmacology is the branch of medical science that deals with the use, effect as well as mode of action of the drugs inside the living organisms. It involves studying the physiological and biochemical effect of drugs.
Allergies are defined as the damaging immune responses of the body to any foreign substances. The substances that cause allergy are called allergens. The examples include pollens, dust, fur, etc.
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the anticholinesterase medication pyridostigmine is prescribed for the client with myasthenia gravis. when providing medication teaching, the nurse explains that the client should expect a decrease in which function?
The immune system blocks or harms these acetylcholine receptors in the majority of myasthenic gravis patients.
What is Myasthenic gravis?
Myasthenia gravis is characterized by weakness and quick exhaustion of any of the muscles you can control voluntarily. It results from a breakdown in the regular transmission of information between neurons and muscles.The signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis, which include muscle weakness in the arms or legs, double vision, drooping eyelids, and issues speaking, chewing, swallowing, and breathing, can be lessened with treatment, while there is no known cure for the condition.A few symptoms of Bell's palsy and myasthenia gravis (MG) are similar. But each of them has a unique set of underlying conditions. MG is an autoimmune condition that causes the muscles you can freely control to weaken.To learn more about myasthenic gravis refer to:
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the nurse is caring for a hospitalized client with a suspected diagnosis of tuberculosis (tb). which finding does the nurse expect to note during data collection?
Chills and night sweats need to be noted down by the nurse on the client who is having Tuberculosis.
Tuberculosis (TB) is a potentially serious infection that primarily affects the lungs. The bacteria that cause tuberculosis are spread from person to person through tiny droplets released into the air by coughs and sneezes. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by one of the bacteria which is called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis usually attacks the lungs, but it can attack any part of the body, including the kidneys, spine, and brain. Not everyone who is infected with tuberculosis becomes sick. Tuberculosis has three stages - exposed, latent and active disease.
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after a total knee replacement, a client will be using a continuous passive motion device. which therapy goal identified by the client would indicate to the nurse that teaching was effective?
therapy at a 45o angle with your legs apart and one foot front of the other, face on head of the bed. Place yourself at the patient's waist. As well as offering support proper alignment helps prevent back problems.
What position is ideal for a patient following surgery?For the most parts, sleeping on flat back with both arms on your side your toes pointing upward may be the most comfortable place, while specific instructions in where your legs, shoulders, and feet should be put differ. When in doubt, consider sleeping on your back because it helps keep your entire body neutrally positioned.
Which posture would the nurse utilize to place the injured extremity of a recovering client?Legs can be stretched or slightly bent in the supine position, and arms can be raised or lowered. It offers general comfort to people recovering from surgery of any kind. most typical usage position The positions utilized for a general examination or patient exam are supine or dorsal recumbent.
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which measures would the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown for a confused client experiencing bowel incontinence?
The measures which the nurse would take to prevent skin breakdown for a confused client experiencing bowel incontinence are Immediately after urinating or having a bowel movement, wash and dry the spot.
Skin could be injured and form ulcers whenever it is restricted of blood flow. "Skin Breakdown" refers to surface-level skin damage. On light or tan skin, skin breakdown first appears as an area that is glossy, violet, bluish, or darker in colour and does not fade or disappear after 20 minutes.
A "typical" bowel movement takes place approximately two to three times each day or once every other day. Any deviation from this range could be deemed abnormal.
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Dr. Mathews performed surgery on Nathan Weston to remove his gallbladder, after he was diagnosed with cholelithiasis with cholecystitis. Report this condition with:
A. K80.61Calculus of gallbladder and bile duct with cholecystitis, unspecified, with obstruction
B. K80.65Calculus of gallbladder and bile duct with chronic cholecystitis with obstruction
C. K80.10Calculus of gallbladder with chronic cholecystitis without obstruction
D. K80.70Calculus of gallbladder and bile duct without cholecystitis without obstruction
Report this condition with A. K80.61 Calculus of gallbladder and bile duct with cholecystitis, unspecified, without obstruction.
Cholelithiasis may not require treatment in asymptomatic persons. Cholelithiasis can be treated with drugs that dissolve gallstones, by specific diagnostic examinations, or through gallbladder removal surgery, also known as a cholecystectomy, in people who have symptoms. Gallstones can be caused by an excess of cholesterol, bile salts, or bilirubin (bile pigment). Cholelithiasis occurs when gallstones form in the gallbladder itself. Choledocholithiasis occurs when gallstones form in the bile ducts.
Cholecystitis is gallbladder inflammation. Symptoms include right upper abdomen discomfort, right shoulder ache, nausea, vomiting, and, on rare occasions, fever. Gallbladder episodes (biliary colic) frequently precede acute cholecystitis. Cholecystitis causes more discomfort than a regular gallbladder attack. Recurrent bouts of cholecystitis are prevalent in the absence of proper therapy. Acute cholecystitis complications include gallstone pancreatitis, common bile duct stones, and common bile duct inflammation.
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