a nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking high doses of prescribed hydroxychloroquine. which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine?

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Answer 1

The following statement by the client should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine: "I have been experiencing blurry vision lately."

Hydroxychloroquine is a drug that is utilized to prevent or treat malaria caused by mosquito bites, as well as treat autoimmune diseases such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. It works by preventing the growth of parasites and modifying the activity of the body's immune system. However, when taken in high doses or for a long period of time, it can cause various adverse effects. The client statements indicating the adverse effects of hydroxychloroquine may include blurred vision, headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, hearing loss, and seizures.

Hydroxychloroquine can cause irreversible eye damage, blurry vision or any other eye-related problem must be reported to the healthcare provider as soon as possible, and the drug may need to be discontinued if severe eye damage has already occurred. The nurse must take thorough medication and health histories, as well as perform regular physical and ophthalmic examinations, when caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking hydroxychloroquine, in order to identify and manage any adverse effects early on. In this way, potential drug interactions and the client's overall health status can be monitored, ensuring that the client receives the best care possible.

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refer to exhibit 12-3. if the proportion of patients that are cured is independent of whether the patient received medication then the expected frequency of those who received medication and were cured is . a. 48 b. 70 c. 28 d. 150

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The expected frequency of those who received medication and were cured is 70, given that the proportion of patients that are cured is independent of whether the patient received medication.

A contingency table, often known as a cross-tabulation table, is a table that summarizes data from two or more categorical variables, generally in tabular form, allowing patterns to be detected. The table is used to provide an overview of the distribution of one variable in relation to the other variable.

It is used to help identify relationships between the variables, for hypothesis testing, and for statistical analyses. The table has rows and columns, where each row represents the categories of one variable, while each column represents the categories of the other variable. The intersection of each row and column gives the frequency or count of the number of times that each combination of categories occurs.

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an older adult is newly diagnosed with primary hypertension and has just been started on a beta-blocker. the nurses health education should include which of the following? a) increasing fluids to avoid extracellular volume depletion from the diuretic effect of the beta- blocker b) maintaining a diet high in dairy to increase protein necessary to prevent organ damage c) use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension d) limiting exercise to avoid injury that can be caused by increased intracranial pressure

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An older adult is newly diagnosed with primary hypertension and has just been started on a beta-blocker. The nurse's health education should include (C) the use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension.

Hypertension is another term for high blood pressure. When the systolic blood pressure is greater than or equal to 140 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure is greater than or equal to 90 mm Hg on two or more blood pressure measurements taken on two or more occasions separated by at least 1 week, a diagnosis of hypertension is made.

The nurse's health education should include the use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension. Beta-blockers, which are used to treat hypertension, can cause postural hypotension in older adults, putting them at risk of falls.

This is because they prevent vasoconstriction and cause vasodilation in peripheral blood vessels, lowering blood pressure.

As a result, patients on beta-blockers may experience dizziness, light-headedness, or fainting when they stand up. The following are some strategies for preventing falls caused by postural hypotension: Make a slow and steady ascent from a seated or supine position, taking your time to rise.

Circulation should be maintained by frequently flexing the feet and legs while sitting or lying down. You should avoid crossing your legs and sitting in one location for an extended period of time.

Avoid hot temperatures, as they can cause vasodilation, which can exacerbate postural hypotension. Drink plenty of water to stay hydrated.

Avoid driving, operating heavy machinery, or engaging in other hazardous activities if you have recently started taking beta-blockers. Exercise in moderation, taking care not to exert yourself too much or too rapidly.

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which client condition would the triage nurse classify as needing immediate care? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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The triage nurse would classify any condition that is life-threatening, unstable, or potentially dangerous as needing immediate care. This includes any signs of shock, major trauma, chest pain, respiratory distress, significant bleeding, poisoning, acute behavioral changes, altered level of consciousness, or severe burns.

Life-threatening conditions are those that are likely to cause serious injury or death if they are not treated quickly. Unstable conditions refer to any conditions that have the potential to worsen or cause significant harm if not treated promptly.

Major trauma is any type of injury or physical damage that requires immediate medical attention. Chest pain can be a sign of a heart attack or other cardiac condition. Respiratory distress is a sign of difficulty breathing, which can be indicative of several serious medical conditions. Significant bleeding, poisoning, acute behavioral changes, altered level of consciousness, and severe burns are all conditions that can cause serious injury or death if not treated immediately and must be given prompt medical attention.

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which action would the nurse take for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is paranoid, delusional, withdrawn, and negativistic?

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For a patient with schizophrenia, paranoid type, the nurse would take action to ensure the client's safety, provide support and respect, maintain an open dialogue, and provide clear instructions. Do activities that require limited interpersonal contact and don't do an authoritarian approach.

Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by abnormal social behavior and difficulty in perceiving reality. Common symptoms include disorganized speech, delusions, hallucinations, and changes in behavior. It can be disabling and can lead to withdrawal from society. Treatment includes medications and psychosocial interventions such as individual and family therapy.

Some of the main symptoms of schizophrenia include changes in behavior, difficulty thinking and speaking, difficulty with concentration and memory, and difficulty with emotion.

Schizophrenia is a long-term disorder that usually requires lifelong treatment. Treatment usually includes antipsychotic medications, psychosocial interventions, and supportive therapies. It is important to note that with treatment, many people with schizophrenia are able to lead productive lives.

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most researchers believe that the number-one candidate for an anti-alzheimer's strategy is: intellectual stimulation. a healthy diet. exercise. microdosing psychotropic medication.

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Most researchers believe that a healthy diet, is the number-one candidate for an anti-Alzheimer's strategy. Therefore option A is correct.

Multiple studies and scientific evidence suggest that maintaining a nutritious diet, particularly one that is rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats, can have a positive impact on brain health and reduce the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.

A healthy diet, such as the Mediterranean or DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, has been associated with a lower incidence of cognitive decline and Alzheimer's disease.

These diets emphasize consuming antioxidant-rich foods, reducing inflammation, and promoting overall cardiovascular health, which are all factors that can support brain function and reduce the risk of cognitive decline.

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a public health nurse is educating a group of administrators about decreasing hospitalizations for burns. which population will the nurse note as the target population for burn injuries?

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The nurse will note children under age five years old as the target population for burn injuries.

What are burn injuries?

Burn injuries are wounds that are created by the application of heat or fire to the skin. There are three types of burn injuries: first-degree burns, second-degree burns, and third-degree burns.

First-degree burns are the least serious of the three. They occur when the outer layer of the skin is damaged by a minor burn, such as a sunburn. The skin may be red and inflamed, but it will not blister.

Second-degree burns are more serious. They occur when the skin is burned more deeply than in a first-degree burn. The skin may blister, and it may be painful and swollen.

Third-degree burns are the most severe type of burn. They occur when the skin is burned all the way through. The skin may appear blackened, charred, or white, and it may be numb.

How can burn injuries be prevented?

Keep the stove and oven clean and free of grease or food residue.

Turn pot handles inward so they cannot be easily knocked over.

Keep hot liquids out of the reach of children.

Avoid smoking in bed or near flammable objects, such as curtains or furniture.

Keep fire extinguishers in the home and know how to use them.

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which ntervention would help the nurse communicate with patient swith varying degress of hearing losss

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Answer: The different interventions to help the nurse communicate with patients with varying degrees of hearing loss are alternative communication methods, patient-centered communication and face-to-face communication.

There are different interventions to help the nurse communicate with patients with varying degrees of hearing loss.

One of the interventions is through the use of alternative communication methods.

Alterative communication methods include writing or typing down the message, using sign language, or using assistive devices such as text messaging, communication boards or picture cards. The use of technology can also help nurses to communicate with patients with hearing loss.

Some of these technologies include cochlear implants, hearing aids and captioned phones. The nurse can also use some techniques to enhance communication.

One such technique is face-to-face communication.

In this approach, the nurse speaks directly to the patient in a well-lit area and facing the patient directly. This technique also involves using clear and concise sentences that are easy to understand. The nurse can also use visual cues such as facial expressions, body language and gestures to enhance communication.

The use of interpreters can also help nurses to communicate with patients with hearing loss. Interpreters can be family members, friends or professional interpreters. They help to relay the message from the nurse to the patient and vice versa.

The nurse can also use patient-centered communication to enhance communication with patients with hearing loss. In this approach, the nurse listens carefully to the patient, acknowledges their feelings and concerns and then responds appropriately. This approach helps to build trust and respect between the nurse and the patient.



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he nurse and a family member of an older adult client who is sedentary are discussing strategies for preventing malnutrition in the client. what recommendation should the nurse make?

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For a client that needs to prevent malnutrition, The nurse should recommend increasing the client's dietary intake with high-calorie, nutrient-dense foods like avocados, nuts, seeds, and whole grains. Additionally, the nurse should recommend increasing physical activity and diversifying the client's diet by introducing a variety of fruits, vegetables, and proteins.

Malnutrition is a condition caused by not having enough nutrients, including proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, and minerals. It can be caused by inadequate intake of food, as well as diseases that prevent the body from absorbing nutrients. Malnutrition can lead to a weakened immune system, increased risk of infections, developmental delays, and increased risk of mortality.

The most common type of malnutrition is protein-energy malnutrition, which can occur when someone does not have access to enough food or is eating foods that are low in nutrition. Other forms of malnutrition include micronutrient deficiencies, such as iron deficiency anemia, and overnutrition, which is the intake of too much food.

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which laboratory information will the nurse assess to detect if hit develops ina client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion

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Answer:

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Explanation:

Platelet aggregation in HIT causes neutralization of heparin, so that the activated partial thromboplastin time will be shorter and more heparin will be needed to maintain therapeutic levels.

a nurse is working on developing a safety plan with a client who is a survivor of violence. which aspect of the plan would the nurse address first?

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As a nurse working on developing a safety plan with a client who is a survivor of violence, the first aspect of the plan that should be addressed is the immediate safety of the client. This includes ensuring that the client is removed from any dangerous situations and has access to emergency services if needed.

A safety plan is a customized, practical plan that a client can follow to reduce the risk of violence in their life. Safety planning is a critical part of intervention and support for survivors of violence, and it can be used in a variety of settings to help individuals stay safe.

In the context of nursing, safety planning often involves working with survivors of intimate partner violence, sexual assault, and other forms of violence to identify risks, develop strategies for staying safe, and connect the client with resources and support. Nurses play a critical role in safety planning, as they can provide important information, support, and advocacy to clients who are dealing with violence and abuse.

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a nurse is assessing a newborn and observes webbing of the fingers and toes. the nurse documents this finding as:

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Answer:

The nurse documents this finding as syndactyly.

The nurse is documenting a finding of syndactyly, which is the medical term for webbing between the fingers and toes.

Webbing between the fingers and toes is a congenital abnormality that can occur in newborns and can affect any or all of the fingers and toes. In mild cases, the skin between the digits may only be slightly adhered and can be easily separated, while in more severe cases, the digits may be partially fused.
Syndactyly is usually diagnosed upon physical examination of the newborn and is documented in the newborn’s medical records. Treatment for syndactyly varies based on the severity of the webbing and may include surgery to separate the digits, if necessary. If surgery is not performed, the webbing may resolve on its own as the child grows. Early intervention is important, as surgery is generally easier to perform on infants.

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a client who is legally blind must undergo a colonoscopy. the nurse is helping the healthcare provider obtain informed consent. when obtaining informed consent from a client who is visually impaired, the nurse should take which step?

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When obtaining informed consent from a client who is visually impaired, the nurse should take which step: The nurse must read the informed consent form, explain the procedure in easy-to-understand terms, and answer any questions the patient may have to ensure that they understand the information provided.

Informed consent is a legal and ethical necessity that must be obtained before any medical treatment is provided to the patient. It's a way for medical professionals to get permission from a patient before providing them with treatment, medications, or surgical procedures.

Informed consent is crucial since it ensures that patients understand the risks, benefits, and alternatives available to them when receiving treatment.

Some of the considerations to make when obtaining informed consent from a visually impaired patient include: Utilizing sensory aids such as audio tapes or Braille-reading materials.

Explain the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.

Making eye contact and employing proper body language to convey empathy. Talk in a calm and clear tone. Ask the patient if they have any questions and provide additional information if necessary.

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an elderly client who is hypotensive has been admitted to the nursing unit for fluid replacement therapy. what intravenous solution would the nurse expect to administer?

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The nurse would expect to administer a 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) intravenous solution to the hypotensive elderly client for fluid replacement therapy.

what is normal saline?

Normal saline is the most commonly used intravenous fluid for hypotension, as it helps restore normal fluid balance and correct electrolyte imbalances. Normal saline is an isotonic solution that is composed of sodium chloride and water, and has a near-neutral pH. It is a safe, effective and inexpensive solution for fluid replacement therapy and is readily available in most healthcare facilities.


Normal saline works by restoring fluid volume and improving cardiac output and blood pressure. This action is achieved by increasing circulating blood volume and decreasing cardiac afterload. It also helps correct electrolyte imbalances, such as sodium and potassium levels, and assists in restoring acid-base balance. Moreover, it helps increase organ perfusion and tissue oxygenation, thus improving overall patient health.


Normal saline is administered intravenously and is slowly infused to avoid overhydration or fluid overload. The usual adult dose is 250 to 500 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride over 30 to 60 minutes. The nurse should also monitor the patient’s vital signs and fluid balance during and after the infusion, as well as watch for signs of fluid overload.

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question 5 of 10 the nurse is assessing a client who is bedridden. for which condition would the nurse consider this client to be at risk?

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The nurse would consider a client who is bedridden to be at risk for developing pressure ulcers.

Prolonged immobility or limited mobility can lead to pressure ulcers or bedsores, particularly in bony regions. According to the Mayo Clinic, pressure ulcers are a common concern among individuals who are bedridden or wheelchair-bound, particularly if they are unable to change positions frequently. Factors that can increase a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers include limited mobility, obesity, malnutrition, urinary or fecal incontinence, and certain medical conditions like diabetes or a predisposition to renal calculi (kidney stones).

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the physician suggests that surgery be performed for patent ductus arteriosus (pda) to prevent which complication?

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The physician suggests that surgery be performed for Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) to prevent complications related to the abnormal flow of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

Surgery is typically used when medication fails to close the PDA or if the PDA is too large to close with medications. Complications that can be prevented with surgery include congestive heart failure, poor growth, and recurrent respiratory infections.
Surgery for PDA typically involves the insertion of a small tube (called a catheter) through a vein in the groin up to the PDA. Then, a small device is deployed to close the PDA. The procedure is minimally invasive and generally well tolerated. The success rate of the procedure is high and risks are typically low.
Overall, surgery is recommended by physicians for PDA to prevent complications related to the abnormal flow of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, such as congestive heart failure, poor growth, and recurrent respiratory infections. The procedure is minimally invasive and generally well tolerated, with a high success rate and low risks.

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the health care provider orders the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube. when gathering the equipment for the insertion, what will the nurse select?

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The nurse should select the following equipment when gathering for the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube: Single lumen nasogastric tube is a flexible tube that is passed through the nose or mouth, down the esophagus and into the stomach.

It is commonly used to feed and medicate patients who are unable to swallow or to remove substances from the stomach. The nurse should select the following equipment when gathering for the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube: Sterile gloves Lubricating jelly Sterile container or package containing the nasogastric tube Syringe and stethoscope.

Water-soluble lubricant Tissue Paper tape to secure the tube Measure to verify the length of insertion A syringe should also be available to inject air into the tube to confirm the proper placement of the tube in the stomach. The following terms are used in the answer: lumen nasogastric tube.

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which client activity warrants the highest priority for education about health promotion to prevent head and neck cancer? select all that apply. one, some, or

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Tobacco use, including smoking and smokeless tobacco, is the client behavior that requires the highest priority for education regarding health promotion to prevent head and neck cancer.

Tobacco use is the most significant risk factor for head and neck cancer. Smoking and smokeless tobacco increase the risk of developing cancer in the mouth, throat, larynx, and pharynx. Educating clients on the harmful effects of tobacco and providing resources for smoking cessation can significantly reduce the risk of head and neck cancer.

Additionally, promoting healthy lifestyle habits, such as a balanced diet, regular exercise, and limiting alcohol consumption, can further reduce the risk of cancer. However, given the significant impact of tobacco on head and neck cancer, education on tobacco use should be the highest priority for prevention.

The answer is general as no options are provided.

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which finding would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder who is unable to move the right arm?

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The nurse would observe an inability to move the right arm in a client with conversion disorder. This type of disorder is characterized by physical symptoms, such as paralysis or numbness, in this case, the patient would be unable to move the right arm due to a psychological issue, rather than any physical ailment.

Conversion disorder
is a type of psychiatric condition in which a person experiences physical symptoms, such as paralysis or numbness, due to psychological issues, rather than any underlying physical illness or injury. In this case, the patient would be unable to move the right arm due to a psychological issue, rather than any physical ailment. The nurse would observe an inability to move the right arm as an indication of conversion disorder.

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Which interval/segment observed via EKG sensor can be used to calculate the heart rate?
a) RR Interval
b) PR segment
c) PR Interval
d) QT Interval
e) QRS Complex

Answers

A)RR interval …… ……….

which high risk nutritional practice must be assessed for when a pregant client is found to be anemic

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When a pregnant client is found to be anemic, the high-risk nutritional practice that must be assessed is their iron intake.

Iron is an essential nutrient that is needed to make hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood. Pregnant women require more iron to support the growth and development of the fetus and the expansion of the mother's blood volume.

If a pregnant woman is anemic, it may indicate that she is not getting enough iron in her diet or that her body is not absorbing iron properly.

Therefore, it is important to assess her iron intake and determine if she needs to increase her intake through dietary changes or iron supplements. Failure to address iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy can lead to complications such as premature delivery, low birth weight, and maternal mortality.

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if a nurse quits his job telling his supervisor that he will not be back at work the fillowing morning. The supervisor tells he has to complete the entire month or it will he patient abandonment. Is this true or false?

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This is true unless the nurse has a backup for the patient

which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess for in a client experiencing marijuana withdrawal? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. depression chills red eyes abdominal pain increased appetite

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The nurse would assess the following clinical manifestations in a client experiencing marijuana withdrawal: Depression, Chills, Abdominal pain, Increased appetite, Red eyes. Note: The correct response options to the above question are depression, chills, red eyes, abdominal pain, and increased appetite.

What is marijuana withdrawal?

Marijuana withdrawal occurs when a person quits or abruptly stops taking marijuana, and the body reacts to the lack of the drug. Marijuana withdrawal is a temporary phenomenon that can result in a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose.

There is no particular test for marijuana withdrawal, and the symptoms vary from person to person.

However, typical marijuana withdrawal symptoms include anxiety, mood swings, sleep disturbances, irritability, depression, decreased appetite, cravings, nausea, and gastrointestinal problems.

In severe cases of marijuana withdrawal, individuals can experience intense cravings, severe stomach pain, and persistent vomiting, leading to significant dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and other complications.

The withdrawal symptoms of marijuana typically last up to one or two weeks, depending on the frequency and duration of use. It is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to manage symptoms effectively and prevent any complications.

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the nurse is discussing weight gain with a group of pregnant women in a prenatal clinic. one of the women in the group has been measured with a body mass index (bmi) of 17.5. the nurse knows this client should gain how much weight during her pregnancy? 28

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The nurse is discussing weight gain with a group of pregnant women in a prenatal clinic. One of the women in the group has been measured with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. The nurse knows this client should gain 28 pounds (12.7 kg) during her pregnancy.

A body mass index (BMI) of 17.5 falls under the underweight category. As per the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG), the recommended weight gain during pregnancy for an underweight woman is 28-40 pounds (12.7-18.2 kg).

Weight gain during pregnancy is essential as it provides adequate nutrients to the growing fetus. A lack of weight gain during pregnancy may result in a low birth weight baby, increasing the risk of respiratory problems, low blood sugar, and developmental delays. Additionally, a healthy weight gain during pregnancy helps the woman to return to her pre-pregnancy weight quickly after delivery.

Hence, the nurse knows this client should gain 28 pounds (12.7 kg) during her pregnancy.

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which complication would the nurse anticipate finding during the assessment of a client admitted with a diagnosis of severe procidentia

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The nurse would anticipate finding complications such as ulcerations when assessing a client with a diagnosis of severe procidentia.

Procidentia, or uterine prolapse, occurs when the uterus slips out of its normal position in the pelvic cavity and descends towards or into the vaginal canal. It can happen to women of any age but is most common in postmenopausal women and those who have had multiple pregnancies. Symptoms may include feeling a heaviness in the pelvic area, pain in the lower back, or discomfort with intercourse. If the prolapse is severe enough, the uterus may be visible outside of the vagina.

If it is mild, pelvic floor exercises may be enough to strengthen the muscles and ligaments around the uterus, while more severe cases may require surgery. It is important to seek medical advice if you have any symptoms of uterine prolapse. If left untreated, uterine prolapse can lead to more serious problems such as urinary or fecal incontinence, urinary tract infections, and bleeding.

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after surgery to create an ileal conduit, a client is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit. which clinical finding during the first hour of the postoperative period would the nurse report to the primary health care provider?

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Answer: The mental health practitioner should help to involve the client's care to address anxiety related to changes in body image.

During an ileal conduit procedure, a surgeon creates a brand new tube from a part of the intestine that enables the kidneys to empty and urine to exit the body through a tiny low opening called a stoma.

After the surgery, urine will result in the kidneys, through the ureters and ileal conduit, and out of the stoma. One must wear a urostomy pouching (bag) system (appliance) over the stoma to catch and hold the urine.

This surgery usually takes about 3 to six hours. A change in body image is one of the main disadvantages of this surgery.

Explanation:

a pharmacy technician is reviewing a checklist of steps to make sure that a prescription was filled correctly. this checklist describes a policy. a law. an organization. a procedure.

Answers

A pharmacy technician reviewing a checklist of steps to make sure that a prescription was filled correctly is a procedure

Is a pharmacy technician is reviewing a checklist of steps to make sure that a prescription was filled correctly a procedure?

A procedure is a series of steps taken to achieve a particular end, and in this case, the end is to ensure that the prescription is filled correctly. The checklist serves as a guide for the pharmacy technician to follow to ensure that all the necessary steps are completed and that the prescription is accurate and safe for the patient to use.

By following this procedure, the pharmacy technician can help ensure that the patient receives the correct medication and dosage, which is an important part of ensuring patient safety and quality of care.

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which action should the nurse take to ensure that an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) understands the instructions to perform a delegated task?

Answers

Answer: Instruct the UAP to repeat the instructions to be sure the nurse has communicated clearly.

Explanation:

To make sure that unlicensed assistive personnel understands the instructions to perform a task, the nurse should provide the UAP with clear, concise instructions and explain the procedure in detail. They also should answer the UAP's questions, if there are any.

Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP) are healthcare professionals who provide support and services to patients without the need for a professional license. UAPs typically work under the direction and supervision of a nurse, physician, or other healthcare professionals.

UAPs may perform a wide variety of tasks, such as feeding, grooming, assisting with ambulation, providing basic skin care, monitoring vital signs, providing comfort and emotional support, and providing reminders of medication doses and timing. UAPs may also provide administrative or clerical support, such as answering telephones, taking messages, and recording patient information.

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a nurse is leading a health promotion workshop that is focusing on cancer prevention. what action is most likely to reduce participants' risks of basal cell carcinoma (bcc)?

Answers

Answer: Teaching participants to limit their sun exposure

Explanation:

a nurse is assessing a client's pain. the nurse notes which database finding that is indicative of acute pain?

Answers

The nurse assessing a client's pain should note the database findings that are indicative of acute pain. These findings can include an increased heart rate, respiration rate, blood pressure, pupil dilation, and sweating.

It is important to note that each individual may have different indicators of pain, so it is important for the nurse to be aware of any individual differences and to use their clinical judgment when assessing pain. The nurse should also take into account the duration and intensity of the pain when conducting the assessment.

The client may report a pain rating of 6 or higher on a pain scale, and may also have an increased need for pain medications. In addition, the client may have decreased mobility, a decreased appetite, and difficulty sleeping. All of these are potential indicators of acute pain and should be noted in the nurse's assessment. The nurse must be skilled in the effective management of pain to handle the situation.


In conclusion, the nurse should take into account the database findings such as an increased heart rate, respiration rate, blood pressure, pupil dilation, sweating, pain rating of 6 or higher, increased need for pain medications, decreased mobility, decreased appetite, and difficulty sleeping, when assessing for a client's acute pain.

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for ct of the foot, when the patient is positioned with knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in which plane?

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For the CT Scan of the foot, when the patient is positioned with knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in the axial plane.


When the patient is positioned with knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in the coronal plane during CT of the foot. Computed tomography (CT) scans, also known as CAT (computed axial tomography) scans, are a kind of X-ray test that generates detailed cross-sectional images of the body. CT scans are used to investigate the internal structures of a body. CT scans can detect subtle differences in tissue densities in the body because they provide more detailed and detailed images than regular X-rays.

During a CT scan, you are positioned on a table that slides into a doughnut-shaped opening in the scanner. Inside the scanner, an X-ray tube rotates around you, capturing pictures of the area being studied from a range of different angles. A computer combines these images to create cross-sectional pictures of your body.

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Fredrick flick was the owner of a huge industrial conglomerate that operated coal mines and steel mills. When he tried by the American military in the subsequent Nuremberg The following argument was made by Thomas Paine in his famous pamphlet Common Sense.Society in every state is a blessing, but government even in its best state is but a necessary evil; in its worst state an intolerable one; for when we suffer, or are exposed to the same miseries by a government, which we might expect in a country without government, our calamity is heightened by reflecting that we furnish the means by which we suffer.Which concept from the United States Constitution is represented in Thomas Paines statement?ResponsesA federalismfederalismB amendment processamendment processC states rightsstates rightsD limited governmen R = {(-3, -2), (-3, 0), (-1, 2), (1, 2)}Find the values of a and b that complete the mapping diagram. 9. Answer the following questions based on the sentence below.In 1831, John Marshall ruled The Indian Removal Act of 1830 wasunconstitutional and the Cherokee should not be forced to leave their land.Who? John Marshall(did) What?When? juan owns 7 pairs of pants, 5 shirts, 6 ties, and 8 jackets. how many different outfits can he wear to school if he must wear one of each item? what is the most critical physical environmental factor determining the differences between the zones? if a $50 billion initial increase in spending leads to a $250 billion change in real gdp, how big is the multiplier? true or false: the idea that an entrepreneur gets rich quickly and enjoys a lot of leisure time while someone else does the work is a myth about entrepreneurship. information technology managers are often in a bind when a new exploit (or software vulnerability) is discovered in the wild. they can respond by updating the affected software or hardware with new code provided by the manufacturer, which runs the risk that a flaw in the update will break the system. or they can wait until the new code has been extensively tested, but that runs the risk that they will be compromised by the exploit during the testing period. dealing with these issues is referred to as use the impulse-momentum theorem to find how long a falling object takes to increase its speed from 4.23 m/s to 10.47 m/s? 6 2/5 subtract 2 9/10 g calculate the labor force participation rate if you know that the adult working-age population is 320 million, 114 million of which are not in the labor force. what is the labor force participation rate? (round your answer to the nearest tenth.) When we say that liquid water is unstable on Mars, we mean that the ability to produce a wide range of products or service is: group of answer choices reliability quality performance quality volume flexibility mix flexibility colonialism by which immigrants seized land from the indigenous population and became the dominant population is called group of answer choices settler colonialism elite colonialism metropole colonialism none of these How did most Americans first learn about the war in Europe the ideal culture refers to the values, norms, and goals that a group considers worth aiming for. group of answer choices true false What is the area of the triangle in this coordinate plane?Responses9.0 units9.0 units14.0 units14.0 units16.5 units16.5 units24.5 units ten percent of computer parts produced by a certain supplier are defective. what is the probability that a sample of 10 parts contains more than 3 defective ones? your aunt has promised to give you $5,000 when you graduate from college. you expect to graduate three years from now. if you can work your schedule to graduate a year earlier, the present value of the promised gift will: