A patient is recovering from abdominal aortic aneurysm repair and lower extremity ischemia is the vital sign result requires immediate action by the nurse.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair is surgery to mend a widened half in your arteria. this is often referred to as an aneurism. The arteria is that the massive artery that carries blood to your belly (abdomen), pelvis, and legs. An aortic aneurysm is once a part of this artery becomes overlarge or balloons outward.
Due to lower extremity ischemia, nurses are expected to perform comprehensive and systematic physical assessments for all patients with stroke, together with observance the most five important signs: temperature, pressure (BP), respiratory effort (rate, patterns, and chest expansion), gas saturation, and mental status/level of consciousness
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What is an example of a model program used by the public health nurse that considers the social determinants of health?
An example of a model program used by the public health nurse that considers the social determinants of health is the Nurse-Family Partnership Program.
Public health nurse designates a nursing skilled with instructional preparation publically health and nursing science with a primary concentrate on population-level outcomes. The first focus of public health nursing is to push health and stop illness for entire population.
Nurse-Family Partnership empowers vulnerable first-time moms to remodel their lives and make higher futures for themselves and their babies. Analysis systematically proves that Nurse-Family Partnership succeeds at its most significant goals is on pubic health by keeping children healthy and safe and up the lives of moms and babies.
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Which level of infection control requires the use of products with efficacy labels that state they are appropriate for floors, countertops, sinks, toilets, towels and/or linens?
Sanitization or Cleaning level of infection control requires the use of products with efficacy labels that state they are appropriate for floors, countertops, sinks, toilets, towels and/or linens.
What is infection?
The invasion of tissues by pathogens, their growth, and the host tissues' response to the infectious agent and the toxins they release are all considered infections. A sickness brought on by an infection is referred to as an infectious disease, often known as a transmissible disease or communicable disease.
Sanitation, Disinfection, and Sterilization are the three levels of infection control. Sanitation is the least effective level of infection prevention, but it's crucial to realize that even though it's the least effective, it's not the least significant. It likely plays the most significant role in the battle against infections. Disinfection or sterilization cannot be accomplished without sanitation.
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The normal diameter of the fetal small bowel is less than or equal to ____ millimeters (mm).
The normal diameter of the fetal small bowel is less than or equal to 6 millimeters (mm).
The foetal colon lumen diameter seldom surpasses 23 mm, while the foetal small bowel lumen rarely exceeds 6 mm in diameter. With longer gestational periods, small intestinal peristalsis occurs more often. Peristalsis of the colon is absent. The colon's haustral folds are commonly seen.
This prospective research examined 300 foetuses' sonographic images of the typical small intestine and colon. Sonographic testing typically reveals healthy foetal intestines. As gestational age rises, so does the diameter of the small bowel and colon's lumen.
The foetal colon lumen diameter seldom surpasses 23 mm, while the foetal small bowel lumen rarely exceeds 6 mm in diameter. With longer gestational periods, small intestinal peristalsis occurs more often. Peristalsis of the colon is absent. The colon's haustral folds are commonly seen.
In relation to the foetal liver and intestinal wall, meconium in the colon always stays hypoechoic. Early-stage disease may imitate hyperechoic small bowel look while late-stage pathology may mimic cystic colon appearance. Early (8 to 11 weeks) gestation is when intestine herniation into the umbilical cord is typically noticed.
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Increasing your slice thickness from 3mm to 5mm will ___________ snr because _______________________________.
Increase; it allows the sampling of more protons per slice.
Protons in the body are compelled to align with the magnetic field created by the strong magnets used in RIs. The protons are activated and spin out of equilibrium when a radiofrequency current is pulsed through the patient, which causes them to struggle against the magnetic field. The energy produced as the protons realign with the magnetic field can be detected by the MRI sensors when the radiofrequency field is switched off.
The surroundings and the chemical makeup of the molecules affect how long it takes for the protons to realign with the magnetic field and how much energy is released. Based on these magnetic characteristics, doctors can distinguish between different types of tissues.
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You are speaking at a local pto meeting about upper respiratory infections. which preventive factor for rhinitis should you teach the attendees?
The preventive factor for rhinitis that one should teach the attendees is that option c. get adequate rest and sleep.
What is rhinitis?Rhinitis is known to be a term that connote if a person is known to have a form of a reaction that takes place and tend to lead to nasal congestion, runny nose, sneezing, and others.
Most time when people are involved in doing a lot of things, they tend to catch sickness and as such, the preventive factor for rhinitis that one should teach the attendees is that option c. get adequate rest and sleep.
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You are speaking at a local PTO meeting about upper respiratory infections. Which preventative factor for rhinitis should you teach the attendees?
a. avoid clearing the throat.
b. use a straw to drink fluids
c. get adequate rest and sleep
d. avoid carbonated fluids.
Which category of diseases maybe caused by unique environmental conditions or behaviors that are shared by family members?
Familial diseases maybe caused by unique environmental conditions or behaviors that are shared by family members.
Hereditary and passed down from one generation to the next, familial diseases are hereditary. It is a genetic mutation that is passed on to offspring through the gametes of the mother or the father (or both). However, given that the mutation may manifest itself in human genetic disease, not all genetic disorders are family.The reported prevalence of familial dilated cardiomyopathy in children is much lower, ranging from one-twentieth to one-sixth,302,303 but this is likely an underestimate due to decreased awareness of the inherited nature of the condition among paediatricians and possibly a higher prevalence of metabolic or syndromic causes in children. Familial disease affects over one-third of adult patients.Dilated cardiomyopathy can result from a variety of genetic abnormalities.Therefore, the correct answer is familial diseases.
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Everyone has times when they feel depressed, such as if they lose a loved one or a family member is ill. How do those with mental illness, like depression or schizophrenia, need to manage these situations differently than those who do not have these kinds of chronic conditions?
Answer:
Following the advice of trained mental healthcare professionals they would need to utilize appropriate coping techniques and strategies along with other means.
Aggression is often reduced after alcohol consumption. please select the best answer from the choices provided t f mark this and return
It is false that aggression is often reduced after alcohol consumption.
Alcohol is a drug that affects the central nervous system. It belongs in a very class with barbiturates, minor tranquilizers, and general anesthetics, and it's usually classified as a depressant.
The results of alcohol on the brain is sort of incomprehensible. Alcohol consumption is expounded to aggressive behavior which is plenty of closely than the usage of the the other substance. The association between alcohol consumption and aggressive behavior has been well documented in epidemiological studies.
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The nurse is providing health education for a client who has been prescribed atovaquone (malarone) prior to leaving on a tropical vacation. the nurse should state?
The nurse should state: "You need to have or take this drug every day, beginning before you leave on your trip."
What other things can the nurse say?Since the nurse is giving health education for a client who has been prescribed atovaquone (Malarone), the nurse need to state the time the drug will be taken.
Malarone is known to be a drug that is often taken PO every day beginning from one to two days before one was expose and not taken weekly.
Therefore, The nurse should state: "You need to have or take this drug every day, beginning before you leave on your trip."
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The nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting symptoms of tachypnea and circumoral paresthesias. what should be the nurse's first course of action?
The nurse’s first course of action should be Find and correct the cause of Tachypnea. Hence, our correct option will be Option D.
Tachypnea, or fast breathing, can be brought on by a number of conditions, such as extreme anxiety, high fever, thyrotoxicosis, early salicylate poisoning, hypoxemia, or mechanical ventilation. More CO2 is expelled than necessary due to the fast breathing.
As a result, there is a deficiency of carbonic acid, which results in respiratory alkalosis. The symptom of circumcumoral paresthesia is one of them. The first step is to identify and address the tachypnea's underlying cause.
If the client needs mechanical ventilation, the nurse must keep it going. Only when the client's situation calls for it is CPR administration necessary. Aspirin is not recommended because tachypnea might be brought on by early aspirin poisoning.
The complete question is as follows:
The nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting symptoms of tachypnea and circumoral paresthesias. What should be the nurse's first course of action?
A) Stop mechanical ventilation.
B) Administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
C) Give a dose of aspirin.
D) Find and correct the cause of tachypnea.
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Which health care provider prescirption will the nurse implement when admitting a patient with fluid volume deficit due to severe diarrhea?
Option B) The health care provider prescription implemented by the nurse is to Insert an IV access and infuse lactated Ringer’s solution.
RationaleThe nurse should prepare for a prescription for lactated Ringer’s solution, which is isotonic and replaces fluid and electrolytes, to correct the fluid volume deficit caused by severe diarrhea.
Giving the patient sodium chloride that is overly concentrated would make them more dehydrated.
If blood loss rather than dehydration caused the fluid volume imbalance, a blood transfusion would be administered. In cases where there is an excess of fluid, sodium consumption should be limited.
What would a nurse anticipate seeing while assessing a client with a fluid volume deficit?Increased breathing and heart rate decreased central venous pressure (CVP), weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, decreased urine volume, and an increase in the specific gravity of the urine are all signs of a fluid volume deficit in a client.
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Complete Question
Which health care provider prescription will the nurse implement when admitting a patient with fluid volume deficit due to severe diarrhea?
A. Restrict the patient's dietary sodium intake.
B. Insert an IV access and infuse lactated Ringer's solution.
C. Transfuse packed red blood cells as soon as they are available.
D. Initiate hypertonic sodium chloride IV fluids.
When teaching a client how to prevent low back pain as a result of lifting, the nurse should instruct the client to?
When teaching a client on how to prevent low back pain as a result of lifting, the nurse should instruct the client to straighten the back and bend the knees when lifting something.
What is low back pain?
Low back pain is caused by injury to a muscle or ligament sprain.
Common causes of low back pain include;
improper lifting, poor posture, lack of regular exercise, a fracture, a ruptured disc or arthritisThus, when teaching a client on how to prevent low back pain as a result of lifting, the nurse should instruct the client to straighten the back and bend the knees when lifting something.
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A patient is diagnosed with dementia, there has been an increase in cerebrosphinal fluid volume, but no increase in?
A patient is diagnosed with dementia, there has been an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume, but no increase in intracranial pressure.
Dementia is a broad term that includes the diseases and disorders of the brain like impaired potential to think, decision-making, feeling hard to remember things, memory loss, etc. Dementia can be more commonly seen in adults.
Intracranial pressure is the pressure which is exerted on the cranium region, by the fluids of the body like the CSF fluid. It can be inside the skull or on the brain tissues. The cause of this pressure can be bleeding, stroke, tumor, etc.
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The nurse is assessing heart sounds in a patient with heart failure. an abnormal heart sound is detected early in diastole. how would the nurse document this?
If the nurse is assessing heart sounds in a patient with heart failure, when an abnormal heart sound is detected early in diastole, the nurse should document this in S3.
What is abnormal heart sound?Abnormal heart sounds are called heart murmurs.
A heart murmur may occur in between regular heartbeats and sound like one of the following:
a rasping. a whooshing. a blowingThus, if the nurse is assessing heart sounds in a patient with heart failure, when an abnormal heart sound is detected early in diastole, the nurse should document this in S3.
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A client with chronic osteomyelitis has undergone 6 weeks of antibiotic therapy. the wound appearance has not improved. what action would the nurse anticipate to promote healing?
When the wound in chronic osteomyelitis does not heal after receiving antibiotic medication, surgical debridement is used.
What is osteomyelitis?
Bone infection brought induced by bacteria or fungus. Typically affects the spine, foot, or hips in adults and the long bones of the arms or legs in youngsters. Fever, swelling, discomfort, and redness near the infected area are typical symptoms.
When the wound in chronic osteomyelitis does not heal after receiving antibiotic medication, surgical debridement is used. It's a method of removing dirt or infected/dead tissue out of a wound.
When treating persistent osteomyelitis, wound packing, vitamin supplements, and wound irrigation are not considered standard of treatment.
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A client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (eeg). Which instruction does the nurse give the client before the test?
The instruction for the client before the electroencephalogram (EEG) test is not to take any type of sedative drug 12 to 24 hours before this assay.
What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)?An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a procedure used in clinical settings to measure electrical activity of the brain, which may be altered by sedatives.
In conclusion, the instruction for the client before the electroencephalogram (EEG) test is not to take any type of sedative drug 12 to 24 hours before this assay.
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Which health care team member is most likely to provide patient teaching to patients diagnosed with depressive disorders?
Answer:
A nurse
Explanation:
A client visits the local clinic after experiencing head trauma. the client tells the nurse that he has a consistent blind spot in his right eye. the nurse should?
The nurse should refer the client who has a consistent blind spot in his right eye, to an ophthalmologist.
What is an ophthalmologists?
An expert in eye care is an ophthalmologist. Ophthalmologists, in contrast to optometrists and opticians, are medical doctors (MD) or osteopathic doctors (DO) who have specialized training and expertise in the diagnosis and treatment of eye and vision diseases. Ophthalmologists have the training and expertise to offer both medical and surgical eye treatment.
Therefore, if a client visits the local clinic after experiencing head trauma and the client tells the nurse that he has a consistent blind spot in his right eye. Then, the nurse should refer the client to a ophthalmologist.
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Every theater should have working, regularly tested fire extinguishers available in key areas.these extinguishers should be?
The nurse is assessing a client for acute inflammation of a wound. which symptom does the nurse attribute to the acute inflammatory response?
Acute inflammation may include heat or warmth in the affected area is a healthy and necessary function that helps the body attack bacteria and other foreign substances, these are the symptom does the nurse attribute to the acute inflammatory response.
what is acute inflammatory response ?Acute inflammation is a response of the body’s normal tissue in response to injuries, foreign bodies and other factors; it is defense mechanism of body tissue for healing process.
The various causes of acute inflammation include Physical causes of inflammation such as frostbite, burns and injuries, Biological cause include infection, stress, or immune reactions.
Chemical causes include the inflammation due to alcohol abuse and exposure to other toxins, Psychological cause by embarrassment, other types of nervousness or emotional responses.
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PROJECT: FETAL DEVELOPMENT
The development of the fetus occurs at a phenomenal rate. At no other time in your life do you go through as many changes as you do during those 9 months in your mother's womb. Can you imagine growing from 5 feet tall to 12 feet tall in just 3 months? One day, your clothes would fit you and the next day, they would not! This is the equivalent of what occurs during the gestation period in the mother's womb.
In this activity, you will draw the stages of fetal development to scale ("to scale" means to its exact size). You will need a few pieces of white paper, some colored pencils, a ruler, and some tape.
Step 1: On a sheet of paper, draw a fetus that is near the end of the first trimester. At this stage, an average fetus is about 3 inches and weighs about 1 oz. According to the picture presented in the slide show, draw the likeness of the fetus and draw it to scale the length it is in the womb at this stage of development. Include as many details as possible, adding color to the baby's skin, eyes, and veins.
Step 2: On another sheet of paper, draw a fetus at the end of the 2nd trimester. At this stage, an average fetus is about 14 inches in length and 2 1/4 lbs. According to the picture presented in the slide show, draw the likeness of the fetus and draw it to scale of the size it is in the womb at this stage. Again, include as many details as possible, showing the changes to the limbs, face, and internal structure.
Step 3: On two sheets of paper (taped together), draw a fetus that is near the end of the third trimester. The fetus at this stage is curled up, almost doubled over, so remember to consider this as you draw the fetus the correct length. An average fetus is 19 - 21 inches in length and between 6 3/4 lbs to 10 lbs. Include as much detail as possible, showing the changes to the fingers, feet, and face.
Once you finish your fetal development representations, calculate the percent growth between each of the trimesters. You should have three calculations: percent growth between the first and second trimester, percent growth between the second and third trimester, and percent growth between the first and third trimester.
To figure percentage, subtract the length of trimester 1 from trimester 2, then divide this amount by the measurement of trimester 1. Repeat this process for each time period requested. The first calculation is done for you here.
Example: trimester 1 = 3 inches, trimester 2 = 14 inches. 14 in - 3 in = 11 in. 11 in /3 in = 3.67 and 3.67 x 100 = 367% increase in size.
Answer:
it is 11/=367 21
Explanation:
that miss that it is 1222 the ascer
Alcohol can increase?
Answer:
Urine production which causes dehydration.
Alcohol also increases blood pressure.
Explanation:
The nurse planning care for an older adult patient who had major abdominal surgery 1 day ago includes interventions to address which patient-specific risk factors for atelectasis?
The patient-specific risk factors for atelectasis are-
- Decrease in the ability to cough
- Loss of protective airway reflexes
- Increase in the amount of secretions
What is atelectasis?Atelectasis is a lung disorder that develops when the small sacs at the end of your airways or your airways themselves do not expand as they should when you breathe. After surgery, atelectasis is a typical side effect. Your lungs' ability to breathe can be impacted by the drug that puts you to sleep (anesthesia). Breathing deeply could become painful as a result of the procedure itself.
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What is the rationale for placing an immobile patient in a 30-degree lateral turn instead of a full lateral turn?
In order to soothe and care for patients, this position is typical. The angle of the patient’s bed head is 30 degrees.
Patients with respiratory or cardiac conditions, as well as those using a nasogastric tube, are placed in this position.
Why do we place patients in the left lateral position?Aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) are both reduced when the head of the bed is elevated to a semi-recumbent position (at least 30 degrees).
Increased patient comfort, protection from pressure injury, and a decrease in deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary emboli, atelectasis, and pneumonia are all advantages of lateral positioning.
How should a person who is bedridden be positioned?While you move to the side that your loved one will roll toward, ask them to move to one side of the bed.
Request that they lie on their backs with their knees bent and their arms crossed in front of them. Keep their legs bent and have them roll towards you.
Your hands should be softly put on their shoulders and hips as you lead them toward you.
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A 3.5-year-old child is admitted to the hospital for an appendectomy. which strategy would the nurse use to prepare the child for the hospital experience?
The strategy the nurse would use to prepare the child for the hospital experience is to correct the children's blood volume and fever preoperatively, if necessary. In patients with perforated appendicitis, at the time of diagnosis, the operation is less urgent, and it is more important to stabilize the patient, as they may demonstrate significant physiological changes such as dehydration, acidosis, and hypotension. Emergency appendectomy should only be performed when physiological resuscitation requires immediate control of sepsis and this cannot be accomplished by interventional drainage or the technique is not available.
What is Appendicitis?Appendicitis is a surgical emergency characterized by inflammation of the appendix, a mucus-producing mass located on the lower surface of the cecum, with a length ranging from 2 to 20 cm. Most appendicitis is idiopathic.
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what is a period
this is for my helth class
Answer: What is a purpose of a period?
A period releases the tissue that grew to support a possible pregnancy. It happens after each menstrual cycle in which a pregnancy doesn't occur — when an egg hasn't been fertilized and/or attached itself to the uterine wall. The uterus then sheds the lining which had grown to receive a fertilized egg
Explanation: hope this helps!!!
Answer:
A period is a release of blod from a girl's uterus, out through her vajina.
She usually only loses a few tablespoons of blod during the whole period which would last for 3-8 days, typically 5 days. Usually periods for girls would occur from the time they're in their early days of puberty to their early 50s. The term to indicate the end of menstruation(the time the periods occur) is called menopause which occurs in a woman's early 50s.
Explanation:
If an athlete weighs 158 lbs (72 kg) and is 5 feet, 7 inches (170 cm) tall, what is the athlete's bmi?
Answer:
BMI = 703 x (weight/(height)2)
Explanation:
What is the point of light "aerobic" movement at the beginning of a warm up, and what are the results?.
The point of light "aerobic" movement at the beginning of a warm up is that it results in preparing the body for aerobic activity.
A warm up slowly revs up your cardiovascular system by raising your body temperature and increasing blood flow to your muscles. Warming up may additionally facilitate scale back the muscle soreness and reduce your risk of injury.
Light aerobic (with oxygen) exercise can maintain your cardiovascular health. it's useful to your arteries as a result of it facilitates the raising of high density lipoprotein cholesterol while serving to to minimalise a lot of harmful low density lipoprotein cholesterol within the blood.
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How+many+whole+graham+crackers+would+a+person+on+a+2,000+calorie+diet+need+to+eat+to+obtain+100%+of+the+daily+value+(dv)+for+fiber?
The number of whole graham crackers would an individual on a 2000 calorie diet have to be compelled to eat to get 100% of the daily value for fiber is 50.
In 2 whole graham crackers contain dietary fiber - 1g.
So in one graham cracker contain dietary fiber - 0.5 g
The suggested daily value of dietary fiber on a 2000 calorie diet - 25 grams
0.5 grams of dietary fiber ---------> one cracker
For 25 of dietary fiber ------->
= 1 x 25/0.5
= 50 graham crackers
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Why is speeding a major factor in accidents and road fatalities?
Answer:
Higher driving speeds lead to higher collision speeds and thus to severer injury. Higher driving speeds also provide less time to process information and to act on it, and the braking distance is longer.
Answer:
Speed is one of the basic risk factors in traffic
Explanation: Higher driving speeds lead to higher collision speeds and thus to severer injury. Higher driving speeds also provide less time to process information and act on it, and the braking distance is longer.