A seller of a good wants to know if the demand for his or her good is elastic, inelastic, or unit elastic between the prices of $5 and $10. If the seller raises the price from $5 to $10, which of the following results would allow the seller to determine the elasticity of demand for the good? Check all that apply. The resulting percentage change in profit The resulting change in revenue (in dollars) The resulting percentage change in quantity demanded The resulting percentage change in costs of production

Answers

Answer 1

If revenue increases as the price increases, the demand is inelastic. If revenue decreases as the price increases, the demand is elastic. If the revenue remains unchanged, the demand is unit elastic.

To determine if the demand for the good is elastic, inelastic, or unit elastic between the prices of $5 and $10, the seller should check the following results: the resulting percentage change in quantity demanded and the resulting change in revenue (in dollars).
1. Calculate the percentage change in price: ((10-5)/5) * 100 = 100%
2. Observe the resulting percentage change in quantity demanded after the price change.
3. Calculate the price elasticity of demand: (Percentage change in quantity demanded) / (Percentage change in price)
4. Check if the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1 (elastic), less than 1 (inelastic), or equal to 1 (unit elastic).
5. Observe the resulting change in revenue (in dollars) to further confirm the elasticity of demand. If revenue increases as the price increases, the demand is inelastic. If revenue decreases as the price increases, the demand is elastic. If the revenue remains unchanged, the demand is unit elastic.

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Related Questions

eonardo, who is married but files separately, earns $60,500 of taxable income. he also has $15,400 in city of tulsa bonds. his wife, theresa, earns $50,400 of taxable income. how much money would leonardo and theresa save if they file jointly instead of separately for 2022? (use tax rate schedule.) g

Answers

Leonardo and Theresa can save $2,783 by filing jointly instead of separately.

Taxable Income for Leonardo = $60,500Taxable Income for Theresa = $50,400Total Taxable Income for the couple = $60,500 + $50,400 = $110,900We can use the tax rate schedule to find the tax liability for the couple if they file jointly: TAXABLE INCOME TAX RATE$0 - $19,90010%$19,901 - $81,05012%$81,051 - $172,75022%$172,751 - $329,85024%$329,851 - $418,85032%$418,851 - $628,30035%$628,301+37%The first $19,900 of the couple's income is taxed at a rate of 10%. This amounts to $1,990.

The next $61,150 ($81,050 - $19,900) is taxed at a rate of 12%. This amounts to $7,338. The remaining $29,750 ($110,900 - $81,050) is taxed at a rate of 22%. This amounts to $6,545. So the total tax liability for the couple if they file jointly is $1,990 + $7,338 + $6,545 = $15,873.Now let's find out how much the couple would pay in taxes if they file separately.

In this case, Leonardo has a taxable income of $60,500 and Theresa has a taxable income of $50,400. We can use the tax rate schedule again to find their tax liabilities separately: TAXABLE INCOMETAX RATE$0 - $9,95010%$9,951 - $40,52512%$40,526 - $86,37522%$86,376 - $164,92524%$164,926 - $209,42532%$209,426 - $314,15035%$314,151+37%Leonardo's taxable income of $60,500 falls in the 22% tax bracket. So his tax liability is $6,545.

Theresa's taxable income of $50,400 also falls in the 22% tax bracket. So her tax liability is also $6,545. This amounts to a total tax liability of $6,545 + $6,545 = $13,090. Therefore, the couple would save $15,873 - $13,090 = $2,783 by filing jointly instead of separately.

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the temporary account used only for the closing process that contains a credit for total revenues (and gains) and a debit for total expenses (and losses) is the:

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The temporary account used only for the closing process that contains a credit for total revenues (and gains) and a debit for total expenses (and losses) is the income summary account.

What is a temporary account?

A temporary account is an account that contains entries made for only one accounting period. This means that the account's balances are reset at the end of the period.

As a result, these accounts are closed at the end of the accounting period when their balances are transferred to permanent accounts.

Temporary accounts include revenues, expenses, and dividends. Since they are used to record a company's activities for a specified period, they are typically adjusted and closed at the end of the period.

Permanent accounts, such as assets, liabilities, and equity accounts, are not closed at the end of an accounting period but instead carry over to the next period.

What is the income summary account?

The income summary account is a temporary account used during the closing process to collect all of the revenue and expense balances and transfer them to the retained earnings account.

It aids in the preparation of financial statements by summarizing the revenue and expense accounts' balances for the period in one account. It helps to close temporary accounts by aggregating their balances at the end of the period.

The income summary account has a credit balance that equals the total revenue and gains and a debit balance that equals the total expenses and losses at the end of the accounting period.

When the balance in the income summary account is transferred to retained earnings, it is closed for the period.

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Answer: income summary account

Explanation:

when retailers monitor consumer shopping behavior by using scanner technology, this is an example of . group of answer choices survey research observation research experimental research cause-effect research none of the above

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Scanner technology used by retailers to monitor consumer shopping behavior is an example of observation research.

Observation research is a type of research that involves monitoring and recording consumer behavior in order to gain valuable insights. Retailers can use scanner technology to observe and track consumer shopping behavior, which can provide valuable data that can be used to inform their marketing and product decisions.

In conclusion, scanner technology used by retailers to monitor consumer shopping behavior is an invaluable tool that can provide valuable insights into consumer shopping habits.

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g to satisfy the valuation assertion when auditing an investment in another company that is publicly and actively traded, an auditor most likely would seek to:

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To satisfy the valuation assertion when auditing an investment in another company that is publicly and actively traded, an auditor would most likely seek to obtain evidence about the fair value of the investment. The auditor would typically obtain this evidence by reviewing the company's financial statements, as well as relevant market data and other sources of information.

The auditor may also use valuation techniques, such as market comparables or discounted cash flow analysis, to independently estimate the fair value of the investment. In addition, the auditor may review the controls in place over the accounting and reporting of the investment, to ensure that the company's financial statements accurately reflect the fair value of the investment.

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according to the interstate land sales full disclosure act, the buyer of land covered by this law must be given the opportunity to rescind the sales contract within____

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According to the Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act, the buyer of land covered by this law must be given the opportunity to rescind the sales contract within 7 days.

The Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act is a US law that regulates the sale of land by property developers and seeks to safeguard potential buyers from fraud, misrepresentation, and other shady sales tactics.

The Act demands the developer to give the buyer with a detailed disclosure statement before they sign the sales contract. The statement must contain material details about the land and its ownership, zoning and land use, soil and geological data, and any access rights to the land.

The developer must also notify the buyer of their right to rescind the sales contract within seven days of receiving the statement. They are allowed to request a refund of any deposits made within the seven-day period.

In conclusion, the buyer of land covered by the Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act must be given the opportunity to rescind the sales contract within 7 days.

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why did you choose to apply to/attend isu and how will attending isu benefit you in your future plans?

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I chose to apply to and attend ISU because it is a well-regarded university with a strong academic reputation. I also believe that the resources ISU offers, such as experienced faculty and excellent student services, will provide me with the support I need to achieve my future goals.

Attending ISU will give me access to a wide range of courses and experiential learning opportunities that will provide me with the knowledge and skills necessary to excel in my future career. Additionally, the networking and internship opportunities offered by ISU will provide invaluable experience and help me to develop the necessary skills and connections to pursue my future plans.

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the examination of warehouse receipts is sufficient verification of a material amount of goods stored in public warehouses. group startstrue or false

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The examination of warehouse receipts is sufficient verification of a material amount of goods stored in public warehouses. The given statement is false.

What is meant by Warehouse Receipts?

Warehouse Receipt is a document that assures the security of the goods stored in a warehouse. A receipt issued by a warehouse confirming the receipt of goods described therein and acknowledging that they will be held for the account of the person to whom the receipt is issued. The warehouse receipts do not guarantee the quality, quantity, or value of the goods in the warehouse.

Where is Warehouse Receipts used?

Warehouse Receipts are used in finance as evidence of the existence of a commodity that is held in a particular place. Warehouse receipts are often negotiable as they represent ownership of the underlying commodity.

The examination of Warehouse Receipts may not be a sufficient verification of a material amount of goods stored in public warehouses. Because, receipts are not a guarantee of the quality or quantity of goods stored in the warehouse, the storage facility is not responsible for the goods, and if the warehouse is destroyed or the goods are lost, the receipts will not necessarily represent any compensation.

The use of Warehouse Receipts has some limitations, particularly in circumstances where there is a difference in accounting records or records are not maintained properly. As a result, a physical inspection of the goods in the warehouse should be conducted by the owner or interested party to ensure that they exist and are in good condition.

Hence, the statement that examination of Warehouse Receipts is sufficient verification of a material amount of goods stored in public warehouses is false.

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a taxpayer had agi of $60,000 in year 1. during the same year, the taxpayer incurred $10,000 in qualifying unreimbursed medical expenses, all which were charged to a credit card. the taxpayer paid off $7,000 of the credit card charges by december 31 of year 1. what amount may the taxpayer deduct as an itemized deduction for medical expenses?

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The amount that the taxpayer may deduct as an itemized deduction for medical expenses in year 1 is $0, because they paid off more than their deductible amount.

To determine the deductible amount, the taxpayer must first calculate their medical expense deduction threshold. This threshold is based on the taxpayer's AGI and is equal to 7.5% of their AGI. In this case, 7.5% of $60,000 is $4,500.

Next, the taxpayer must subtract their threshold from their total qualifying medical expenses. In this case, the taxpayer had $10,000 in qualifying medical expenses, so they would subtract the $4,500 threshold from that amount, leaving them with $5,500.

However, the taxpayer only paid off $7,000 of the credit card charges by December 31 of year 1. This means that they can only deduct the amount of medical expenses that they actually paid during the tax year. So, in this case, the taxpayer can only deduct $5,500 - the amount they paid off by December 31 - which is

=> $5,500 - $7,000 = $0.

Since the taxpayer paid off more than their deductible amount, they cannot claim a medical expense deduction on their tax return for year 1.

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the principle of organizational structure where one person is at the top and the other managers are ranked sequentially from the top down is called blank . multiple choice question. hierarchy unity of command division of labor bureaucracy

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The principle of organizational structure where one person is at the top and the other managers are ranked sequentially from the top down is called "Hierarchy". The correct option is A.

The hierarchy is a principle of organizational structure where there is a clear chain of command and authority within an organization. This principle helps to establish a clear and defined structure within an organization, which can help to improve communication, decision-making, and accountability.

The reason of use a hierarchical structure, the principle of organizational structure one person is at the top and has ultimate authority over the organization, while other managers are ranked sequentially from the top down, with each level having a specific set of responsibilities and authority.

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the most effective strategy for a newcomer to use when entering a market is: a. to spread negative rumors about existing products. b. to overwhelm competitors with mass advertising. c. to offer benefits that allow you to charge a premium.

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The most effective strategy for a newcomer to enter a market is to offer benefits that allow them to charge a premium. Alternative c. is correct.

Offer benefits to charge a premium will allow you to differentiate your product from that of your competitors, without resorting to negative tactics such as rumor mongering. They can establish their product as a high-quality option, while also ensuring that they remain competitive with their pricing.

By creating a competitive advantage with their product, they will be able to draw in more customers and establish a strong market share. Additionally, this strategy allows them to maximize profits, which will enable them to have more resources for marketing and further expansion.

In conclusion, alternative c. to offer benefits that allow you to charge a premium is correct.

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if the forecasted value of the time series variable for one period is 28.5 and the actual value observed for the same period is 32, what is the forecast error for that period?

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The forecast error for the given period will be 3.5 .

The forecast error of a time series can be calculated by subtracting the actual observed value from the forecasted value. The given information is as follows:

Forecasted value for one period = 28.5; Actual value observed for the same period = 32

The formula for calculating the forecast error is given below:

Forecast Error = Actual Value - Forecasted Value

Substituting the given values in the formula, we get:

Error = 32 - 28.5 = 3.5

Therefore, the forecast error for that period is 3.5.

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it's applicable income tax rate is 25% federal and state combined and if 50% of dividends received are exempt from

Answers

The applicable income tax rate for dividends is 25% for both federal and state taxes combined. However, 50% of dividends received are exempt from taxes.


When answering questions on the Brainly platform, it is important to be factually accurate, professional, and friendly, as well as being concise and providing a step-by-step explanation. Any typos or irrelevant parts of the question should be ignored. The following terms should be used in your answer: "income."Question:

If a company's applicable income tax rate is 25% federal and state combined and if 50% of dividends received are exempt from tax, calculate the company's tax liability if the company's taxable income is $200,000.Solution:

Given, the applicable income tax rate = 25%,Federal tax rate = State tax rate = 25%/2 = 12.5%Taxable income = $200,000Dividends received = 50% of taxable income = 50/100 × $200,000 = $100,000 (exempted from tax)Taxable income - Exempted income = $200,000 - $100,000 = $100,000Total Taxable Income = $100,000Total Tax = (Total Taxable Income × Tax Rate) / 100= (100,000 × 25) / 100= $25,000Therefore, the company's tax liability is $25,000.

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given equity of $200,000, liabilities of $400,000, and net profit of $90,000, what is return on assets (as a decimal, i.e. 0.123)?

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Return on assets is calculated by dividing net profit by total assets.

In this case, total assets are the equity of $200,000 plus the liabilities of $400,000, for a total of $600,000. Therefore, the return on assets is 0.15 or 15%.

To calculate return on assets, you first need to determine the total assets. This is calculated by adding the equity and liabilities of a company. In this case, the equity is $200,000 and the liabilities are $400,000, resulting in a total of $600,000.

Then, you divide the net profit of the company by this total. In this example, the net profit is $90,000, so you divide it by the total assets of $600,000. The result is 0.15, which is the same as 15%.

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which legal entity is correctly paired with the party that bears the ultimate responsibility for paying the legal entity's liabilities?

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The party that will ultimately be liable for the legal entity's debts is appropriately paired with the limited partnership legal entity.

The limited partners have limited liability, which entails that they are only responsible for the partnership's debts to the degree of the investments they made in the business; they are not personally accountable to third parties. In a limited partnership, one or more partners are not responsible for day-to-day operations of the company. All limited partners, also referred to as "silent partners," will have no other role in the company other than that of an investor, and their responsibility will be restricted to the amount of money they give.

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the purchase ofo inventory- typical with internet based businesses- onlu after a sale is made is called a

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The purchase of inventory that is typical with internet-based businesses, which is only made after a sale is made, is referred to as a drop shipping model. The Drop shipping model refers to an internet-based retail business that does not hold its inventory physically. Instead, when a customer places an order for a product, the retailer forwards the request to the product supplier, who then ships the product directly to the customer.

In this case, the retailer does not manage any inventory; instead, they only act as intermediaries between the customer and the supplier. The process begins when a customer places an order through the retailer's website. The retailer forwards the request to the supplier, who prepares and sends the item directly to the customer, bypassing the retailer altogether.

The retailer, on the other hand, obtains payment from the customer, takes their cut, and forwards the balance to the supplier, who is responsible for shipping the item. The drop shipping model has a few advantages. For starters, retailers do not need to invest in the purchase of inventory to sell their items. The supplier manages the stock, allowing retailers to concentrate on sales and marketing activities.

The retailer is also not required to spend money on renting or buying warehouse space to store inventory. It allows companies to start their e-commerce business with minimal upfront expenses. It is a perfect model for small enterprises that are just starting or businesses looking to expand their product offerings without significant investment. However, drop shipping has some drawbacks.

For example, retailers may have little control over the shipping process and product quality, which could result in customer dissatisfaction. They also run the risk of being unable to satisfy an order, as a supplier may be out of stock or unwilling to fulfil an order. As a result, before using the drop shipping model, it is critical to investigate the supplier and conduct due diligence to ensure that the products and services they provide meet the company's standards.

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having too many alternatives may demotivate decision makers, which harms decision making. this is known as the .

Answers

This phenomenon is known as "choice overload" or the paradox of choice.

Choice overload occurs when people are presented with too many alternatives and become overwhelmed, resulting in demotivation and an inability to make a decision.

This can happen because having more options gives the illusion of freedom, but also can lead to a sense of paralysis. When given too many options, people may doubt their own decisions and be more likely to delay making a decision.

This can cause them to become discouraged, leading to further delay. Additionally, with more options, people become more critical of each option, making it harder to decide.

Therefore, having too many alternatives can harm decision making by leading to choice overload. This can demotivate decision makers and make them less likely to take action. It is important to be aware of this phenomenon and find ways to limit the number of options available when making decisions.

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ryan sells 200 plastic ball point pens at $0.50 each. his total costs are $25. his profits are group of answer choices $25. $75. $100. $175.

Answers

Ryan's profit on selling 200 plastic ball point pens at $0.50 each is $75.

Ryan sells 200 plastic ball point pens at $0.50 each. His total costs are $25. His profits are $75.

According to the problem, the cost price (CP) of each ball pen = Total cost / Number of ball pens= $25 / 200= $0.125

Therefore, Ryan sells each ball pen at $0.50. This means his selling price (SP) of each ball pen = $0.50

Ryan's profit (P) on selling a ball pen= Selling Price - Cost Price= $0.50 - $0.125= $0.375Ryan sells 200 ball pens.

Hence, his total profit (P) = Profit on selling 1 ball pen × Number of ball pens= $0.375 × 200= $75Therefore, Ryan's profit on selling 200 plastic ball point pens at $0.50 each is $75.

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your goal is to identify which videos are most popular, so meer-kitty knows what topics to explore in the future. unfortunately, meer-kitty has just three months of data available because they only recently launched the videos on their site. without enough data to identify long-term trends about the video subjects that people prefer, what are your available options? select all that apply.

Answers

There are several options available when there is not enough data to identify long-term trends about the video subjects that people prefer. The options available are:

Use available data to identify short-term trends and adjust content accordingly, seek out additional data sources to help identify trends, and take educated guesses about what topics may be popular based on industry trends and audience demographics.Use available data to identify short-term trends and adjust content accordinglyIt is possible to use the available data to identify short-term trends and adjust content accordingly. Analyzing the available data can help identify the types of videos that are more popular and the ones that are not. Based on this information, you can make adjustments to your content to better suit the preferences of your audience.Seeking out additional data sources to help identify trendsAnother option is to seek out additional data sources to help identify trends. This can involve researching industry trends and conducting surveys or focus groups to gather more information about the preferences of your target audience. This can help provide more insight into what topics may be popular and what type of content your audience wants to see.Take educated guesses about what topics may be popular based on industry trends and audience demographics.It is also possible to take educated guesses about what topics may be popular based on industry trends and audience demographics. By analyzing the interests and demographics of your target audience, you can make educated guesses about what types of videos they may be interested in watching. Additionally, researching industry trends can provide insight into what topics are currently popular and what topics are likely to gain popularity in the future.

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which of the following dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities? external mandatory discretionary inherent

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The discretionary dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities.

Discretionary dependencies are the ones that the project team has the power to modify or choose to execute in a particular way. These dependencies are also known as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic.

Some of the examples of discretionary dependencies include such as preferences in sequencing the project activities, using certain equipment, specific building materials, or skilled workers, etc. In general, discretionary dependencies offer flexibility in executing the project plan, and they are used to optimize the project work.

They are the least constraining dependencies, and therefore they offer the most amount of flexibility.

They are also more realistic in many project management scenarios than mandatory dependencies or inherent dependencies, as they provide more flexibility, and the project team can use their best judgment to schedule them in the most appropriate way.

However, as with all types of dependencies, project managers need to be aware of the impact of discretionary dependencies, especially if they have the potential to cause delays in the project schedule or adversely affect the project budget.

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he federal reserve board specifies the maximum amount that an investor can borrow to purchase securities. this amount is called a . the sec and the national associati

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The Federal Reserve Board specifies the maximum amount that an investor can borrow to purchase securities, and this amount is called a "margin."

A margin is the amount of money that an investor must put down as collateral to buy securities. The SEC, or Securities and Exchange Commission, is responsible for enforcing the federal securities laws, including those that regulate the securities markets and the companies that issue securities. The SEC also provides investors with information about the securities markets and the companies that issue securities.

The National Association of Securities Dealers, or NASD, is a self-regulatory organization that regulates the securities industry. The NASD is responsible for enforcing the rules and regulations that govern the securities industry, including those that relate to the conduct of broker-dealers and other securities professionals. In summary, the Federal Reserve Board specifies the maximum amount that an investor can borrow to purchase securities, which is called a margin.

The SEC enforces the federal securities laws and provides investors with information about the securities markets and the companies that issue securities. The NASD regulates the securities industry and enforces the rules and regulations that govern the conduct of broker-dealers and other securities professionals.

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Which is the largest health care program in the United States?

(1 point)
Responses

- DOD TRICARE

- The ACA

- Medicaid

- Medicare

Answers

Answer: medicare

Explanation:

step by step

Answer: D

Explanation: step by step

to protect the competitive economic system by restricting the formation of monopolies, the government has passed and enforced rationing systems. antitrust laws. the imposition of taxes on certain goods. zoning laws.

Answers

To protect the competitive economic system by restricting the formation of monopolies, the government has passed and enforced b: antitrust laws.

Antitrust laws are regulations that aim to promote fair competition and prevent the formation of monopolies or cartels that can control the market and limit competition. These laws are designed to ensure that businesses compete fairly and that consumers have access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices.

The government enforces antitrust laws by investigating and prosecuting violations, such as price-fixing, market allocation, and other anti-competitive practices that harm consumers and stifle competition.

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alan is sitting in a restaurant drinking soda that cost $4 each. according to the economic decision rule, alan will stop drinking when the marginal:

Answers

The final answer are when the marginal utility of the soda is equal to $4, Alan will stop drinking soda.

According to the economic decision rule, Alan will stop drinking soda when the marginal utility of the soda equals the price of the soda. Therefore, when the marginal utility of the soda is equal to $4, Alan will stop drinking soda.

What is the economic decision rule?

The economic decision rule states that a rational decision-maker will take an action if and only if the marginal benefit of the action exceeds the marginal cost of the action. The rule states that for any decision, one should only pursue it if the benefits outweigh the costs.

Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction or benefit derived by consuming one more unit of a good or service. It is calculated as the change in total utility divided by the change in the quantity of goods consumed. Marginal utility diminishes as more and more units of a good or service are consumed.

This means that the satisfaction that one derives from consuming additional units of a good or service decreases over time. When Alan is sitting in a restaurant drinking soda that costs $4 each, according to the economic decision rule, Alan will stop drinking soda when the marginal utility of the soda is equal to the price of the soda.

Therefore, when the marginal utility of the soda is equal to $4, Alan will stop drinking soda.

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which type of arrangement is created when a company sells its product line to another firm that agrees to maintain its high levels of quality? joint venture wholly owned subsidiary exporting licensing

Answers

The type of arrangement created when a company sells its product line to another firm that agrees to maintain its high levels of quality is a subsidiary.

What is a Subsidiary?

A subsidiary is a company that is controlled by another company, called the parent company. In this case, the parent company is selling its product line to the subsidiary, and the subsidiary is agreeing to maintain the high levels of quality of the product line.

This allows the parent company to retain some control over the product line while also benefiting from the subsidiary's resources and expertise.

Thus, the answer is: C. Subsidiary.

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Complete Question:

Which type of arrangement is created when a company sells its product line to another firm that agrees to maintain its high levels of quality?

A. joint venture

B. wholly owned

C. subsidiary

D. exporting licensing

what is the market value of a company vehicle that cost $54,000, has a salvage value of $6,000 and an expected life of six years; after three years, when the company sells the vehicle?

Answers

Equipment that cost $54,000, had a salvage value of $6,000, and a 6-year useful life was subject to straight-line depreciation by the corporation. In the beginning of year.

What, using an example, is salvage value?

The estimated value of an item after its useful life has ended and it can no longer be used for its intended purpose is known as salvage value or scrap value. For instance, if a company's machinery has a lifespan of five years but only has a worth of $5,000 at the conclusion of that time, the salvage value is $5,000.

What is the worth of my car as salvage?

The amount that would be received if the insurance provider sold your car to a salvage yard for its parts is its salvage value. also, frame. Your car's ACV would be calculated by the insurance company as though you weren't planning to buy it back, and a set amount would be subtracted for salvage value.

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statement: the pv of an annuity due (cashflows occur at the beginning of a period) for a stream of positive cashflows is always greater than the pv of an otherwise similar regular annuity (cashflows occur at the end of the period). is this statement true or false?

Answers

The given statement "the pv of an annuity due (cashflows occur at the beginning of a period) for a stream of positive cashflows is always greater than the pv of an otherwise similar regular annuity (cashflows occur at the end of the period)" is true because the cash flows occur at the beginning of a period, which allows for an additional period of compounding interest.

An annuity due is a type of annuity in which payments are made at the beginning of each period. In contrast, regular annuities have payments made at the end of each period. Annuities can be used to determine the present value (PV) of a series of future cash flows, and the timing of those cash flows can impact the PV.

The PV of an annuity due is always greater than the PV of a similar regular annuity. This is because the payments in an annuity due occur at the beginning of each period, which means that they have more time to earn interest than the payments in a regular annuity, which occur at the end of each period. As a result, the future cash flows in an annuity due are worth more in present value terms than those in a regular annuity.

The formula for calculating the PV of an annuity due is similar to that of a regular annuity, except that a factor of (1 + r) is added to the equation. This factor takes into account the additional interest earned by the payments in an annuity due. For example, the formula for the PV of an annuity due can be expressed as:

PV = PMT x [(1 - (1 + r)^-n)/r] x (1 + r)

Where PV is the present value of the annuity, PMT is the payment per period, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

In summary, the statement that the PV of an annuity due for a stream of positive cash flows is always greater than the PV of an otherwise similar regular annuity is true. The timing of cash flows in an annuity can impact the present value, and payments made at the beginning of each period in an annuity due have more time to earn interest than those made at the end of each period in a regular annuity.

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real estate licensee lucy decided to target a specific area near her own home and began making consistent marketing touches to cultivate buyers and sellers. what is this process known as?

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Real estate licensee lucy decided to target a specific area near her own home and began making consistent marketing touches to cultivate buyers and sellers. This process is known as “farm marketing”.

It involves consistently engaging potential buyers and sellers within a specific geographic area or “farm”, usually near one's own home. The goal is to become the “go-to” agent in the area.

Farm marketing requires establishing a presence in the local community. For example, one could distribute fliers and informational materials, as well as attend community events. It is also important to build relationships with other real estate professionals, such as lenders and home inspectors.

By taking these steps, Lucy is demonstrating her commitment to her area, which is likely to lead to referrals and a higher success rate for her real estate business. Additionally, she is able to track her farm marketing efforts and assess their effectiveness over time.

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the employees at papa pizza parlor are running a scam in which they use half of the toppings they would normally use to make each pizza and save the unused half to sell on the black market. these employees don't feel like they are doing anything wrong because the owners won't sign off for holiday overtime and they feel that they are owed this much. which groupthink symptom is illustrated here?

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The answer are Group think symptom illustrated here is rationalization. Groupthink is a situation where people working in groups are less likely to make critical evaluations of alternatives as they become more conformist, and where there is greater cohesion between group members.

Symptoms of groupthink include invulnerability, inherent morality, stereotypes, self-censorship, conformity, and unanimity. Rationalization is the groupthink symptom illustrated here. It is a situation where members of the group justify the behavior of other group members.

In this situation, the employees of Papa Pizza Parlor feel that they are justified in their actions because the owners of the company won't sign off for holiday overtime and they feel that they are owed this much. They rationalize their scam as something that is acceptable since they feel justified in their actions.

Therefore, the group think symptom illustrated here is rationalization.

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an arrangement in which employees receive share options, shares of stock, or cash payments based on the change in stock prices instead of cash bonuses is a(n) a.open compensation plan. bpensatory share purchase plan. c.noncompensatory share purchase plan. d.share-based compensation plan.

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An arrangement in which employees receive share options, shares of stock, or cash payments based on the change in stock prices instead of cash bonuses is Share-Based Compensation Plan. The correct answer is D.

This is an arrangement in which employees receive share options, shares of stock, or cash payments based on the change in stock prices instead of cash bonuses. A share-based compensation plan is an arrangement in which employees receive share options, shares of stock, or cash payments based on the change in stock prices instead of cash bonuses.

A share-based compensation plan is a type of compensation arrangement in which employees receive share options, shares of stock, or cash payments based on the change in stock prices rather than cash bonuses. Employees who participate in a share-based compensation plan are awarded an ownership interest in the company.

Share-based compensation is a method used by companies to retain, incentivize, and reward employees. The most popular type of share-based compensation is stock options.

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(table: price elasticity in the market for matcha tea) use table: price elasticity in the market for matcha tea. what is the price elasticity of demand, computed using the midpoint method, between $2.25 and $2.00?

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The price elasticity of demand, computed using the midpoint method, between $2.25 and $2.00 in the market for matcha tea is -2.73.

Price elasticity of demand is an economic measure of how demand for a product changes when the price of the product changes.

It measures the percentage change in demand when there is a one percent change in price.

The midpoint method is a way of calculating the elasticity of demand between two points, and is calculated by taking the difference between the

two points, dividing it by the midpoint of the two prices, and then dividing it by the difference between the two quantities demanded at the two prices.

For example, in the market for matcha tea, the price elasticity of demand between $2.25 and $2.00 is -2.73.

This means that if the price of matcha tea is decreased from $2.25 to $2.00, then the quantity demanded will increase by 2.73%.

This can be calculated by taking the difference between the two prices ($2.25-$2.00), dividing it by the midpoint of the two prices (($2.25+$2.00)/2),

and then dividing it by the difference between the two quantities demanded at the two prices (10-5).

In conclusion, the price elasticity of demand is -2.73, meaning that a one percent decrease in price results in a 2.73 percent increase in demand.

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