A very large population of randomly-mating bunnies exists near the foothills of a local town. A hiker notices that the vast majority of the bunnies have fluffy, white tails. However, the hiker also spots some bunnies with fluffy, grey tails. White tails are dominant to grey tails. The hiker counts all of the bunnies in the foothills (because he clearly ran out of other things to do in life) and finds that out of 720 bunnies only 35 have grey tails. Using this information calculate a) the allele frequencies and b) the genotype frequencies for this population

Answers

Answer 1

In this population, the majority of bunnies have white tails, and the frequency of the dominant allele is much higher than that of the recessive allele.

How to calculate the allele frequencies?

To calculate the allele frequencies, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation:

[tex]p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1[/tex]

where p is the frequency of the dominant allele (white tail) and q is the frequency of the recessive allele (grey tail).

Since white tails are dominant, we can assume that the majority of the white-tailed bunnies are homozygous dominant (WW), while the minority of the white-tailed bunnies are heterozygous (Ww). The grey-tailed bunnies are homozygous recessive (ww).

Let's use the frequency of the grey-tailed bunnies (q²) to calculate q:

[tex]q^2 = 35/720q^2[/tex]

= 0.0486q

= √(0.0486)

≈ 0.221

Now, we can use p + q = 1 to find p:p + q = 1p + 0.221 = 1p = 0.779

So, the allele frequencies are:

p = 0.779 (frequency of the dominant allele, white tail)

q = 0.221 (frequency of the recessive allele, grey tail)

To calculate the genotype frequencies, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg equation again:

[tex]p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1[/tex]

where p² is the frequency of WW, 2pq is the frequency of Ww, and q² is the frequency of ww.

Let's plug in the allele frequencies we just calculated:

WW = p² = (0.779)² ≈ 0.606Ww = 2pq = 2(0.779)(0.221) ≈ 0.343

ww = q² = (0.221)² ≈ 0.049So, the genotype frequencies are:

WW = 0.606 (frequency of homozygous dominant, white tail)

Ww = 0.343 (frequency of heterozygous, white tail)

ww = 0.049  (frequency of homozygous recessive, grey tail)

Therefore, in this population, the majority of bunnies have white tails, and the frequency of the dominant allele is much higher than that of the recessive allele.

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Related Questions

How does Claire’s diagnosis explain why 1 mL of liquid from her small intestine digested slowly but 1 mg of her pure protease digested protein normally?

Answers

Protein digestion is facilitated by the enzyme protease slowly by 1 mg . Together with protease, one cc of the small intestine's fluids also contains other substances.

As a result, compared to pure protease, these proteases took longer to digest the material. Because there are less or no longer any proteolytic enzymes in the small intestine, Claire's diagnosis may help to explain why proteins are digested slowly.

This is due to the fact that these enzymes must exist in the small intestine in quantities that allow for the rapidity of the protein digestion process, which is a digestive process that involves enzymes. This is because the metabolic processes are sped up by enzymes, and if there aren't enough of them, the metabolic processes slow down.

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Gasoline's New Math-Miles Per Dollar

40

On her 17th birthday, Bethany was given her 87 year old, great grandmother's car (Her Great Grandmother has to use public transportation now

because she is on a fixed income. ). The 1992 Oldsmobile Cutlass is in pristine condition, with only 37,000 miles on the odometer.

After a few weeks of driving, Bethany determines that she can drive 225 miles on one tank of gasoline (16 gallons). Use the current price of

gasoline of $2. 50 to determine the miles per dollar for Bethany's car.

How many miles per gallon does her car get? **round to the nearest mile.

1

How many miles per dollar?

Answers

The miles per dollar for Bethany's car is car gets approximately 5.6 miles per dollar.

To determine the miles per dollar for Bethany's car, we first need to calculate the cost per gallon of gasoline. If the price of gasoline is $2.50 per gallon and the car's fuel tank holds 16 gallons, then one tank of gasoline costs $40.

To calculate the miles per gallon (mpg) for Bethany's car, we can divide the number of miles she can drive on one tank of gasoline (225 miles) by the number of gallons of gasoline used to travel that distance (16 gallons).

225 miles / 16 gallons = 14.06 mpg

Therefore, Bethany's car gets approximately 14 miles per gallon.

To calculate the miles per dollar for Bethany's car, we can divide the number of miles she can drive on one tank of gasoline (225 miles) by the cost of one tank of gasoline ($40).

225 miles / $40 = 5.625 miles per dollar

Therefore, Bethany's car gets approximately 5.6 miles per dollar.

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Which of the following does NOT support the theory of natural selection? *

There are species that live in North America that are not found in Australia

Humans have small bones at the end of our spine that resemble tail
bones in other animals

Prehistoric mastodons are similar to today's elephants

Species that are similar to each other tend to live near each other

Answers

Answer:

It's A.

Explanation:

There are species that live in North America that are not found in Australia. This fact does not provide evidence for or against the theory of natural selection, which is based on the idea that organisms with traits that are better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing those traits on to their offspring. Choices B, C, and D are all examples that support the theory of natural selection because they demonstrate how traits can change over time in response to environmental pressures, as seen in the vestigial tailbones in humans, the similarities between mastodons and elephants, and the tendency for similar species to live near each other.

What is sickle cell anemia and how is it caused by your genes? Use the starter sentence below.

Sickle is caused by ____________

Answers

Sickle cell disease is caused by inheriting the sickle cell gene.

Answer:

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation in the hemoglobin gene.

Explanation:

Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. In sickle cell anemia, the mutation causes the hemoglobin to form abnormal, sickle-shaped cells instead of the normal round shape. These sickle cells are stiff and sticky, and they can block blood flow in the small blood vessels, leading to pain, infections, and organ damage. The mutation that causes sickle cell anemia is inherited from both parents, and it is more common in people of African descent but can also occur in other populations.

2. If the side of a cubical cell doubled, what would the cell then require?

Select all of the correct answers. *

1 point

Eight timmes more nutrients

to excrete eight times more waste

four time more nutrients

to excrete four times more waste

Answers

As the cell will require eight times more nutrients to support its increased volume and metabolic activity. Here option A is the correct answer.

If the side of a cubical cell is doubled, the volume of the cell increases eightfold, as each dimension (length, width, and height) is doubled. Therefore, the cell will require more nutrients to support its increased volume and metabolic activity.

Option A, "eight times more nutrients," is correct, as the cell's volume has increased eight-fold, and it will need proportionately more nutrients to support its increased metabolic activity.

Option B, "to excrete eight times more waste," is incorrect. While the cell's volume has increased eightfold, the rate at which waste is produced is not necessarily directly proportional to the volume. The amount of waste produced by a cell is dependent on its metabolic rate and activity, which may not change proportionately with the cell's volume.

Option C, "four times more nutrients," is incorrect, as the cell's volume has increased eight-fold, not four-fold. Option D, "to excrete four times more waste," is also incorrect for the same reasons as option B.

Complete question:

If the side of a cubical cell doubled, what would the cell then require? Select all the correct answers.

A. eight times more nutrients

B. to excrete eight times more waste

C. four times more nutrients

D. to excrete four times more waste

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suppose jonathan breeds flowers and wants to optimize production of offspring with both short stems and white flowers, which are coded for by two genes with the recessive alleles t and p, respectively. in flowers, t codes for tall stems and p codes for purple flowers. jonathan crosses two heterozygotes that produce 656 offspring. how many of these 656 offspring are predicted to have both short stems and white flowers?

Answers

The number of offspring that are expected to have both short stems and white flowers when Jonathan breeds two heterozygotes with recessive alleles t and p is 41.

Since Jonathan wants to optimize the production of offspring with both short stems and white flowers, he breeds plants with the homozygous recessive alleles for both genes. However, in this scenario, Jonathan is crossing two heterozygotes. In flowers, t codes for tall stems, and p codes for purple flowers, which are the dominant alleles.

The recessive alleles are t, which codes for short stems, and p, which codes for white flowers. The cross between two heterozygotes will produce a 3:1 phenotypic ratio. We can figure out the number of offspring with short stems and white flowers by:-

We may create a Punnett square to determine the offspring's genotype if we know the parent's genotype. The genotypic results obtained can be turned into phenotypic results as:-

The 'TTpp' offspring will be tall with purple flowers, the 'Ttpp' offspring will be tall with white flowers, the 'ttpp' offspring will be short with white flowers, the 'TtpP' offspring will be tall with purple flowers, the 'Ttpp' offspring will be tall with white flowers, the 'ttPp' offspring will be short with purple flowers, the 'TtpP' offspring will be tall with purple flowers, the 'TtpP' offspring will be tall with purple flowers.

Therefore, of the 656 offspring, there are 163 'ttpp' offspring, and since the 'ttpp' offspring are the only ones with short stems and white flowers, the number of offspring with both short stems and white flowers is 163/4 = 41.

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PLEASE ANSWER ASAP FOR BRAINLIEST+20 POINTS!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Haversian Canals contain
a) Osteons
b) Canaliculi
c) Arteries
d) Ligaments

Answers

Answer:

its arteries  

Explanation:

because there is arteries in every canal

Answer:

A

Explanation:

The Haversian canals surround blood vessels and nerve fibers throughout the bone and communicate with osteocytes. The canals and the surrounding lamellae are called a Haversian system (or an osteon). A Haversian canal generally contains one or two capillaries and nerve fibers

How might your parents (and grandparents) have shaped your epigenome?

Answers

“If your great-grandparents lived through a famine, their experience could well have altered their genetic code”

1. Number the stages of the cell cycle in proper order, from 1 - 6: ( ) anaphase ( ) cytokinesis ( ) interphase ( ) metaphase ( ) prophase ( ) telophase 2.
Circle ALL the correct answers. In humans, meiosis gives: A. two identical cells B. haploid cells C. diploid cells D. growth of the organism E. cell replacement F. four gametes G. sexual reproduction H. asexual reproduction

Answers

The proper order of cell cycle stages would be Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, and Cytokinesis.Meoisis gives four gametes in humans, Option F.

The cell cycle

The cell cycle consists of four stages: G1, S, G2, and M. During G1, the cell grows and prepares for DNA replication. The G1, S, and G2 phases are collectively referred to as the Interphase.

In S phase, DNA replication occurs, and each chromosome is duplicated. In G2, the cell continues to grow and prepare for cell division.

The final stage, M, includes mitosis and cytokinesis, resulting in two identical daughter cells. It further breaks down into Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, and Cytokinesis.

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Which of the following are TRUE of fat and fuel use during exercise?A. Fat is the preferred fuel for low- to moderate-intensity activitiesB. Fat is a good short-term fuel since the fat stores in the body are almost unlimitedC. Oxygen is not needed to use fat to generate ATPD. Sprinting is an activity that primarily relies on fat for fuel

Answers

The correct answer is A. Fat is the preferred fuel for low- to moderate-intensity activities.

During low to moderate-intensity activities, the body relies on fat as the primary fuel source. This is because fat is a long-term energy source that can provide sustained energy for longer periods of time.

B. Fat is a good short-term fuel since the fat stores in the body are almost unlimited is not true. Fat is not a good short-term fuel source because it takes longer to break down and convert into energy.

C. Oxygen is not needed to use fat to generate ATP is not true. Oxygen is required to break down fat and convert it into ATP, which is the energy currency of the cell.

D. Sprinting is an activity that primarily relies on fat for fuel is not true. Sprinting is a high-intensity activity that primarily relies on carbohydrates for fuel. Carbohydrates are a quick and efficient source of energy that can be used during short-term, high-intensity activities.

therefore, The correct answer is A. Fat is the preferred fuel for low- to moderate-intensity activities.

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A group of individuals becomes lost at sea and gets stranded on an island where they begin their own population this is an example of which of the following ?

Answers

This is an illustration of the Founder Effect. In this case, the Founder Effect is clear.

What exactly is the Founder Effect?

Furthermore, it differs with the Law of Segregation, a fundamental genetics principle that states that each person has two copies of each gene and that during the formation of gametes (sex cells), these copies are separated and passed down to children independently.

The Founder Effect outlines the process by which a small group of people separated from a larger population become a new population. This can occur if a group becomes geographically isolated, such as being marooned on an island, or if they become separated from other tribes due to migration or colonisation.

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If 12.5% of a Carbon-14 sample remain...

a. How many
half-lives have gone by?

b. How old is the sample?

Answers

Answer:

The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. Therefore, after 1 half-life there is 50% = 1 2 of the original amounts left. 2 half-lives there is 25% = 1 4 of the original amounts left. 3 half-lives there is 12.5% = 1 8 of the original amounts left.

Explanation:

an ecologist was observing rabbits and observed that they consume a certain species of native plant and that the rabbit is also a food source for a local coyote population. what level of ecology is the ecologist most likely focusing on?

Answers

The scientist is most likely focusing on biology's use of the environment.

What do you call the study of how animals and plants interact in a specific environment?

Ecology is the study of how living organisms, such as humans, interact with their natural surroundings. It seeks to comprehend the vital relationships between living things like plants and animals and their environment.

Which of the following variables most significantly affects how organisms are distributed?

Temperature. Temperature is the single factor that has the biggest influence on how organisms are distributed because it controls the physical state of the water. Most living things cannot endure temperatures of 0 °C or 45 °C for any period of time.

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Match the terms to their definition.

1 .
an animal or insect that is known to transmit a specific disease
immunization
2 .
vaccination, artificially stimulating antibodies to a disease
leukocyte
3 .
white blood cell
pathogenic
4 .
producing disease
vector

Answers

To understand how vaccines work, it helps to first look at how the body fights illness. When germs, such as bacteria or viruses, invade the body, they attack and multiply. This invasion, called an infection, is what causes disease. The immune system uses your white blood cells to fight infection. These white blood cells consist primarily of macrophages, B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes:

Macrophages are white blood cells that swallow up and digest germs, plus dead or dying cells. The macrophages leave behind parts of the invading germs called antigens. The body identifies antigens as dangerous and stimulates antibodies to attack them.

B-lymphocytes are defensive white blood cells; they can produce antibodies to fight off infection.

T-lymphocytes are another type of defensive white blood cell, that recognizes a familiar germ, if the body is exposed again to the same disease

The first time the body is infected with a certain germ, it can take several days for the immune system to make and use all the tools needed to fight the infection. After the infection, the immune system remembers what it learned about how to protect the body against that disease. If your body encounters the same germ again, the T-lymphocytes recognize the familiar germ and the B-lymphocytes can produce antibodies to fight off infection.

How Vaccines Work

Vaccines can help protect against certain diseases by imitating an infection. This type of imitation infection, helps teach the immune system how to fight off a future infection. Sometimes, after getting a vaccine, the imitation infection can cause minor symptoms, such as fever. Such minor symptoms are normal and should be expected as the body builds immunity.

Once the vaccinated body is left with a supply of T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes that will remember how to fight that disease. However, it typically takes a few weeks for the body to produce T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes after vaccination. Therefore, it is possible that a person infected with a disease just before or just after vaccination could develop symptoms and get that disease, because the vaccine has not had enough time to provide protection. While vaccines are the safest way to protect a person from a disease, no vaccine is perfect. It is possible to get a disease even when vaccinated, but the person is less likely to become seriously ill.

Types of Vaccines

Scientists take many approaches to developing vaccines. These approaches are based on information about the diseases the vaccine will prevent, such as how germs infect cells, how the immune system responds to it, regions of the world where the vaccine would be used, the strain of a virus or bacteria and environmental conditions. Today there are five main types of vaccines that infants and young children receive in the U.S.:

Live, attenuated vaccines fight viruses and bacteria. These vaccines contain a version of the living virus or bacteria that has been weakened so that it does not cause serious disease in people with healthy immune systems. Because live, attenuated vaccines are the closest thing to a natural infection, they are good teachers for the immune system. Examples of live, attenuated vaccines include measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine (MMR) and varicella (chickenpox) vaccine. Even though they are very effective, not everyone can receive these vaccines. Children with weakened immune systems—for example, those who are undergoing chemotherapy—cannot get live vaccines.

Non-live vaccines also fight viruses and bacteria. These vaccines are made by inactivating, or killing, the germ during the process of making the vaccine. The inactivated polio vaccine is an example of this type of vaccine. Often, multiple doses are necessary to build up and/or maintain immunity.

Toxoid vaccines prevent diseases caused by bacteria that produce toxins (poisons) in the body. In the process of making these vaccines, the toxins are weakened so they cannot cause illness. Weakened toxins are called toxoids. When the immune system receives a vaccine containing a toxoid, it learns how to fight off the natural toxin. The DTaP vaccine contains diphtheria and tetanus toxoids.

Subunit vaccines include only parts of the virus or bacteria, or subunits, instead of the entire germ. Because these vaccines contain only the essential antigens and not all the other molecules that make up the germ, side effects are less common. The pertussis (whooping cough) component of the DTaP vaccine is an example of a subunit vaccine.

Conjugate vaccines fight a type of bacteria that has antigens. These bacteria have antigens with an outer coating of

2. How do you chink DNA mutations would have regulated shin color in different populations? Compare sub- Saha ran Africans and Northern Earopeans

Answers

Certain mutations in an organism can be created through homologous recombination. The cell is given a vector that contains DNA sequences related to the target gene's DNA.

What is the purpose of DNA?

The molecule of information is DNA. It contains data necessary to produce proteins, which are other big molecules. The 46 lengthy structures known as chromosomes that make up each of your cells house these instructions.

What is DNA, and what other types are there?

Both autosomal and mitochondrial DNA are present in each cell. The 22 paired chromosomes that make up autosomal DNA. Both the mother's and the father's autosomes were passed down in each pair.

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If the cells in your body are being attacked and damaged, yoou can infer that microbes ___________

a
are living the dry regions of your body
b
that make you sick have entered your body
c
are working to break down the food you eat
d
from your mother have been passed on to you

Answers

Answer:

b. That make you sick have entered your body.

If the cells in your body are being attacked and damaged, it is likely that microbes that make you sick have entered your body. Microbes such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites can invade the body and cause infections, which can lead to damage and destruction of cells. This can result in a range of symptoms, depending on the type and severity of the infection.

What do saturated fats and trans fats have in common

Answers

Dietary fats such as trans fats and saturated fats have both been linked to poor health outcomes.

What is saturated fat?

Dietary fats of the saturated variety are normally solid at room temperature. It can be present in some plant-based foods like coconut and palm oil as well as in animal products like meat, dairy, and butter.

The fact that both saturated and trans fats are solid at room temperature is one of their main commonalities. Animal goods including meat, dairy, and butter as well as tropical oils like coconut and palm oil often include saturated fats. Vegetable oils that have been partially hydrogenated, which are utilized in many processed meals like baked goods, fried dishes, and snacks, frequently include trans fats.

Saturated and trans fats both have the potential to elevate levels of the "bad" LDL cholesterol in the blood, which has been related to an increased risk of heart disease. Also, they may contribute to bodily inflammation, which raises the risk of other chronic illnesses including diabetes and cancer.

It is advised to minimize consumption of saturated and trans fats and concentrate on ingesting more beneficial unsaturated fats, such as those present in nuts, seeds, and fatty fish, in order to lessen their detrimental impact on health.

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in pea plants, the traits for plant height, seed shape, and pod color are coded by genes with two alleles. the allele for tall plants (t) is dominant over the allele for short plants (t), the allele for round seeds (r) is dominant over the allele for wrinkled seeds (r), and the allele for green pods (g) is dominant over the allele for yellow pods (g). a plant that is heterozygous for all three traits is crossed with a plant that is homozygous for the tall trait, has wrinkled seeds, and is heterozygous for pod color. how many phenotypes are possible from this cross?

Answers

Three types of phenotypes are possible from this cross; tall plants with green pods and round seeds, tall plants with yellow pods and round seeds, and short plants with green pods and wrinkled seeds.

The given traits for plant height, seed shape, and pod color are encoded by genes with two alleles. The allele for tall plants (T) is dominant over the allele for short plants (t), the allele for round seeds (R) is dominant over the allele for wrinkled seeds (r), and the allele for green pods (G) is dominant over the allele for yellow pods (g).

In pea plants, the number of phenotypes possible from a cross between a plant that is heterozygous for all three traits and a plant that is homozygous for the tall trait that has wrinkled seeds and is heterozygous for pod color is three. One may use a Punnett square to illustrate the possible outcomes of the cross.

TT Rr Gg x tt rr Gg
T   t      r    r     G    g
Tt Tt    Rr  Rr   Gg Gg
Tt Tt    Rr  Rr   Gg Gg
Tt Tt    Rr  Rr   Gg Gg
Tt Tt    Rr  Rr   Gg Gg

The resulting offspring have three different phenotypes: tall plants with green pods and round seeds, tall plants with yellow pods and round seeds, and short plants with green pods and wrinkled seeds. Therefore, the answer is three.

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paralysis is a term used to describe the loss of muscle function. how did blocking v-gated na channels in motor neurons cause dr. westowood's paralysis? be specific regarding its effect on the ability of a neuron to communicate.

Answers

The term 'paralysis' is used to describe the loss of muscle function. Blocking V-gated Na+ channels in motor neurons caused Dr. Westowood's paralysis by inhibiting the depolarization process needed for action potential generation.

It was achieved by TTX (tetrodotoxin), a potent neurotoxin that selectively blocks V-gated Na+ channels. Therefore, muscle fibers in the target regions of the affected motor neurons could no longer receive messages to contract, resulting in paralysis.

Voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels are essential for generating the action potential in neurons. These channels play a crucial role in the excitation of neurons. When a neuron is at rest, the concentration of Na+ ions is higher outside the cell.

At rest, the channel is closed, but when the stimulus reaches the threshold, the channel opens, and Na+ ions diffuse inside the cell, resulting in depolarization that initiates the action potential. The toxin, tetrodotoxin (TTX), selectively blocks V-gated Na+ channels. The blocking of Na+ channels means that the depolarization of neurons cannot occur, and action potentials cannot be generated.

This leads to paralysis, as the message to contract muscles is not transmitted effectively. TTX blocks the flow of Na+ ions, so the membrane potential does not change, and there is no way to produce action potential that can cause muscle contraction. Therefore, the muscle loses its ability to contract, resulting in paralysis.

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in fruit flies, long wings are dominant to short wings. Complete a cross between a short winged male snd s heterozygous female

Answers

A test cross in which the precise Mendelian ratio of 1:1 is established is a cross between heterozygous flies and tiny winged flies. 96 long-winged flies and 96 short winged flies, respectively.

What does it mean to be homozygous or heterozygous?

Allele pairings are categorised as homozygous or heterozygous. Homozygous people are those who have two copies of the same allele (RR or rr). Individual organisms with various alleles (Rr) are referred to as heterozygous.

What occurs when both parents have heterozygotes?

Every birth will carry the same danger. Children that inherit a heterozygous dominant mutation from both parents have a 50% probability of developing the dominant allele, a 25% chance of developing both dominant alleles, and a 25% risk of developing both recessive alleles (no symptoms).

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For your model to show the left and right brain hemispheres, which part would need to be divided: cerebrum, cerebellum, or brain stem?

Answers

Answer:

The left and right brain hemispheres are divided by the cerebrum, which is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for many higher-level functions such as conscious thought, perception, and movement. The cerebellum and brain stem are important structures in their own right, but they do not play a significant role in dividing the brain into its left and right hemispheres.

2. The pedigree shows the phenotypes for hair color in a family over four
generations.
In this pedigree, light hair color is the recessive allele, and dark hair color is
the dominant allele.
Which Punnett square shows the possible genotype for offspring W's hair
color?
d
d
D
Dd
Dd
d
dd
dd
B. D
D DD
d
DD
d Dd Dd
D
D Dd
d Dd
d
Dd
Dd
D.
D
D
Dd
d Dd
d
DD
dd
W
FAMILY PEDIGREE
8-0
or
of
Key
Dark hair color
O Light hair color
Male
Female

Answers

The pedigree shows that over the four generations, there are both dominant and recessive alleles present.

What is an Allele?

An allele is a genetic variety. Alleles can be either dominant or recessive, and they determine a person's hereditary characteristics such as eye color, hair color, and other physical traits. Every gene has at least two alleles, which are inherited from one's parents. Alleles can be the same or different, and the presence of certain alleles can affect the expression of a trait.

In the first generation, both the father and mother have dark hair color, showing a dominant allele. In the second generation, two of the children have dark hair color, again showing a dominant allele, while the other two children have light hair color, showing a recessive allele. In the third generation, two of the children have dark hair color, again showing a dominant allele, while the other two children have light hair color, showing a recessive allele. Finally, in the fourth generation, two of the children have dark hair color, again showing a dominant allele, while the other two children have light hair color, showing a recessive allele.

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2. The function of a protein is related to its shape (tertiary and
quaternary structure). View the images below showing the
structures of different proteins. Match each figure to the
appropriate description in the list below.

Answers

Based on the structure of the proteins;

the first image is collagenthe second image is the porin proteinthe third image is kinesinthe fourth image is microtubules

What is the function of the given proteins?

The function of a protein is related to its shape (tertiary and quaternary structure.

The function of the given proteins as related to their structure is as follows;

A microtubule is a protein structure that provides a track for a motor protein that moves a vesicle.A motor protein, kinesin, walks along a microtubule carrying a vesicle with its contents.A porin protein provides a channel for a small molecule to diffuse across a cell membrane.Collagen is a long protein with several polypeptides twisted together like a rope or cable. Collagen gives strength to the tendons and ligaments which connect bones and muscles.

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As well as reducing the risk of injurythe Social Competition hypothesis argues that accepting defeat and assuming a subordinate position aided survival by

Answers

According to Price's social competitiveness hypothesis, depression is a subconscious, reflexive losing tactic that permits people to concede loss in competitive situations.

What is the depression social competition hypothesis?

The depressive mood is thought to have evolved in response to social rivalry as an unconscious, automatic losing tactic, allowing the person to accept defeat in ritual agonistic conflicts and to accommodate to what would otherwise be intolerably low social rank.

What are the two possible explanations for the advantages of social support?

The buffering hypothesis and the direct effects hypothesis are the two main explanations for the relationship between social support and health.

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How did teamwork play a role in saving Kevin’s life

Answers

The collaboration was particularly visible during Kevin's lifesaving by exhibiting the sudden execution of all of the health and safety courses they received throughout their Red Cross training.

Red Cross training prepares individuals to respond to emergencies and disasters by providing them with the necessary skills and knowledge to provide first aid, CPR, and other types of assistance. Red Cross training programs include courses for both individuals and organizations, and cover a range of topics, from basic life support to disaster response and recovery.

Red Cross training is conducted by certified instructors who have experience and expertise in emergency response and disaster management. The courses are designed to be interactive and hands-on, providing participants with opportunities to practice and apply their skills in real-life scenarios.

Red Cross training can help individuals become more confident and prepared in emergency situations, and can also be a valuable asset for organizations, businesses, and communities looking to improve their readiness and resilience. By completing Red Cross training, individuals can contribute to building more resilient and safer communities.

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1. Select a professional athlete with a current or recent injury (within

last 6 months) who required/requires taping and/or wrapping to

return to play/train.


For my kinesiology class, I need to find a professional athlete who experiences/experienced a recent injury within the last 6 months, and as a result requires the use of taping and or wrapping to return to play/train.

Answers

One example of a professional athlete who experienced a recent injury and required taping and wrapping to return to play/train is Anthony Davis.

What is meant by professional athlete?

Professional athletes are the people who have natural talent, stamina and competitive drive.

One example of professional athlete who experienced recent injury and required taping and wrapping to return to play/train is Anthony Davis, a basketball player for the Los Angeles Lakers.

In February 2021, Davis suffered a calf strain and aggravation of Achilles tendon injury, which caused him to miss several games. When he returned to play, he was seen wearing kinesiology tape on his lower leg to provide support and stability to injured area. The tape helps to reduce pain, swelling and inflammation and also improving joint function and muscle activation. By using kinesiology tape, Davis was able to continue playing while recovering from his injury.

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Complete the food chain using the following animals and key terms:


Plants and Animals:

Mice, Cacti, Rattlesnakes, Scorpion




Food Chain Levels: Producers:

Primary Consumers, Secondary Consumers, Tertiary Consumers

Answers

Trophic chains involve the interaction of organisms in different levels that feed on each other and trasfere energy. Producer: Cacti. Primary consumer: Mice. Secondary consumer: Rattlesnakes and scorpion.

What is a food chain?

Trophic chains are composed of different interacting organisms. This interaction involves the transference of energy, which occurs when some of them feed on the other ones. The ones placed at lower levels pass energy to the ones at the higher levels.

Organisms at each level feed on the preceding one and become food for the next one.

The first link corresponds to a producer organism -autotroph-.The following links are the consumers -heterotrophs-: herbivores and carnivores.The last links are the decomposers that degrade organic matter from dead organisms.

When a sudden change affects any of the involved links, there can be a cascade effect on the chain.

Any change in a link population size (increasing or decreasing) will affect the superior links and the immediately anterior link.

In the exposed example,

Producer: Cacti ⇒ is the autotroph organismPrimary consumer: Mice ⇒ is the herbivoreSecondary consumer: Rattlesnakes and scorpion ⇒ are carnivores

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Which of the following is the difference between Swedish massage and deep tissue massage?

Deep tissue massage helps improve the condition of the muscular system while Swedish massage involves pressing points on the
hands and feet to promote healing.

These two modalities are similar, but the movements in Swedish massage are slower, and the pressure is deeper and focused on
problem areas.

Deep tissue massage targets muscles underneath the connective tissue while Swedish massage involves finding a sore spot and
working on it using finger pressure.

These two modalities are similar, but the movements in deep tissue massage are slower, and the pressure is deeper and focused on
problem areas.

Answers

These two modalities are similar, but the movements in deep tissue massage are slower, and the pressure is deeper and focused on

problem areas.

What are modalities ?

Multimodal perception is the ability of the mammalian nervous system to combine all of the sensory nervous system's inputs to improve detection or identification of a specific stimulus. When a single sensory modality produces an ambiguous and incomplete result, all sensory modalities are combined.

Visual, auditory, and somatosensory perception are all located in the superior colliculus of the brain. The overlapping of these systems results in a multisensory space.

When multimodal neurons receive sensory information that overlaps with different modalities, they integrate all sensory modalities. The superior colliculus contains multimodal neurons, which respond to the versatility of various sensory inputs. The multimodal neurons cause behavioral changes and aid in the analysis of behavioral responses to certain stimuli.

What is a stimulus ?

A stimulus is defined as anything that can cause a physical or behavioral change. Stimuli is the plural of stimulus. External or internal stimuli can be used. Your body's response to medicine is an example of external stimuli. Internal stimuli include changes in vital signs caused by changes in the body.

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Function, Or Regulation Of Either The Hypothalamus, Posterior Pituitary, Or Anterior Pituitary. Sort The Phrases Into The Appropriate Bins Depending On Whether They Describe The Hypothalamus, Posterior Pituitary, Or Anterior Pituitary.
Each of the following phrases describes the structure, function, or regulation of either the hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, or anterior pituitary.
Sort the phrases into the appropriate bins depending on whether they describe the hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, or anterior pituitary.
1) Hypothalmus
2) Posterior Pituitary Gland
3) Anterior Pituitary Gland
A) Releases oxytocin
B) Synthesizes and releases PRL
C) Synthesizes and releases TSH
D) Synthesizes some hormones that are released into blood vessels bound for another gland
E) Regulated by hormones released into portal blood vessels
F) Is an extension of the Hypothalmus
G) Synthesizes oxytocin and ADH
H) Integrates nervous and endocrine systems

Answers

The following phrases can be sorted into the appropriate bins depending on whether they describe the hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, or anterior pituitary:

1) Hypothalamus:
D) Synthesizes some hormones that are released into blood vessels bound for another gland
H) Integrates nervous and endocrine systems

2) Posterior Pituitary Gland:
A) Releases oxytocin
F) Is an extension of the Hypothalamus
G) Synthesizes oxytocin and ADH

3) Anterior Pituitary Gland:
B) Synthesizes and releases PRL
C) Synthesizes and releases TSH
E) Regulated by hormones released into portal blood vessels

The hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, and anterior pituitary are all important parts of the endocrine system that help regulate various functions in the body. Each has specific structures, functions, and regulations that differentiate them from each other.

The anterior pituitary (front lobe) and the posterior pituitary are the two primary divisions of your pituitary gland (back lobe). The pituitary stalk, a bundle of blood arteries and neurons, connects your pituitary to your hypothalamus (also known as infundibulum)

In the anterior pituitary, seven hormones are produced. Different hormones produced by the hypothalamus promote or hinder the anterior pituitary's ability to create hormones. The hypophyseal portal system is the route by which hormones from the hypothalamus get to the anterior pituitary. Seven hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary.

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_____ increase a sample's boiling point and increase the range of ___ at which the sample will boil.

Answers

Impurities increase a sample's boiling point and increase the range of temperature at which the sample will boil.

What is the effect of impurities on the boiling point of substances?

The presence of impurities in a substance can affect its boiling point. Generally, a pure substance has a sharp and well-defined boiling point, meaning that it will boil at a specific temperature under a given set of conditions.

However, the presence of impurities can raise or lower the boiling point of a substance and make it more difficult to accurately determine its boiling point.

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