Additional clinical findings lead the healthcare provider to believe they have a moderately large pulmonary embolism:
- Blood-tinged sputum
- Apprehensive, especially when asked to lie flat
The symptoms of a pulmonary embolism vary depending on the size and location of the obstruction. Patients who have emboli of a moderate size frequently present with breathlessness, pleuritic pain, anxiety, a mild fever, and a cough that produces blood-tinted sputum. Green sputum is abnormal and typically indicates pneumonia. More than a "slight" fever is a temperature above 103°F (39.4°C). An abnormal sound in the lungs known as a pleural friction rub is brought on by the rubbing of inflammation in the pleural layer of the lungs. On inspiration and expiration, there is what sounds like a low-pitched, harsh, or grating pleural friction rub.
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a fundamental premise of chiropractic care is that it can prevent illness rather than cure it. can cure illness rather than prevent it. can both cure and also prevent illness. can promote health but not aid illness.
A fundamental premise of chiropractic care is that it can both cure and also prevent illness. Option C.
One of the deepest and most enduring legacies of Cartesian philosophy was his thesis that the mind and body are truly different, now called mind-body dualism. He came to this conclusion by arguing that the nature of the mind is quite different from that of the body. Chiropractic is a form of alternative medicine used to treat musculoskeletal disorders.
Chiropractic is an alternative medicine but chiropractors must be college graduates and highly qualified. Alternative medicine philosophies typically emphasize the promotion of well-being, healing, and prevention through mind-body self-awareness, exercise, diet, and other forms of self-care. Alternate practitioners often work alongside alternate practitioners.
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a client admitted to the hospital with elevated blood glucose is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. what characteristics commonly differentiate type 1 diabetes mellitus from type 2 diabetes mellitus? select all that apply.
The main difference is the autoimmune beta cell damage and abrupt onset of symptoms before age 20 in type 1 diabetes.
The primary distinction between type 1 and type 2 diabetes is that type 1 is a genetic condition that typically manifests itself early in life, whereas type 2 is primarily a lifestyle condition that progresses over time.
If she has type 1 diabetes, her immune system is attacking and destroying the cells in her pancreas that make insulin. If she has type 2 diabetes, you have too much glucose in her blood, which is a type of sugar. This applies to both types equally. However, the manner in which this occurs sets them apart.
the client has an autoimmune condition if she has type 1 diabetes. This indicates that their body has attacked and destroyed the insulin-producing cells. because they can no longer produce insulin.
Insulin is needed by everyone because it helps transport glucose into the cells of the body. After that, we turn this glucose into energy. The blood glucose level rises too high without insulin.
Diabetes type 2 is distinct. If she has type 2, either her body does not produce sufficient insulin or her insulin does not function correctly. Insulin resistance is the term for this. This indicates that their blood glucose level is excessive, similar to type 1.
(complete question)
a client admitted to the hospital with elevated blood glucose is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. what characteristics commonly differentiate type 1 diabetes mellitus from type 2 diabetes mellitus? select all that apply.
a. Onset before age 20
b. immune system is attacking insulin-producing cells
c. Abrupt onset of symptoms
d. Autoimmune beta cell damage
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the nurse encourages a pregnant client who is human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) positive to immediately report any early signs of vaginal discharge or perineal tenderness to the primary health care provider. the client asks the nurse about the importance of this action, and the nurse responds by making which statement to the client?
Ninety-nine percent of HIV-positive mothers will not transmit HIV to their offspring by adhering to these recommendations.
Why is medication for HIV advised while pregnant?Two objectives of treatment throughout pregnancy are to safeguard your personal health and to lessen the risk of HIV transmission to your unborn child.
Evaluation results is the best sign that a woman is pregnant:
Blood tests are quite reliable and can detect pregnancy as early as the second week following fertilization. Approximately two weeks after conception, or around the time a period is expected, women can perform an at-home pregnancy test by testing a sample of urine. Over the past ten years, home pregnancy tests have improved in accuracy.
Which of the following would be a client's ectopic pregnancy's priority nursing diagnosis? Explanation for Question 7: The main sign of an ectopic pregnancy for a client is lower abdomen pain, which is typically unilateral. Pain thus takes precedence.
To ease discomfort or pain:
After the birth, ask your nurse to apply cold packs. In the first 24 hours following delivery, using cold reduces swelling and eases discomfort.
Wait 24 hours after giving birth before taking a warm bath.
To ease discomfort, take ibuprofen or another painkiller.
Regardless of gestational age, pregnant women who are eligible for ART should begin treatment as soon as practical and continue throughout pregnancy, delivery, nursing (if applicable), and life.
The most reliable method for determining gestational age and intrauterine pregnancy during the early first trimester is TVUS. In the early stages of pregnancy, TVUS has a number of advantages over TAUS. Compared to TAUS, TVUS can assist in identifying intrauterine pregnancy symptoms about 1 week earlier.
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following blunt trauma to the anterior chest, a 44-year-old man presents with restlessness, respiratory distress, perioral cyanosis, diaphoresis, and tachycardia. further assessment reveals a midline trachea, engorged jugular veins, and absent breath sounds on the right side of his chest. you should
Following blunt trauma to the anterior chest Perform an immediate needle thoracentesis to the right side of the chest.
What are thoracentesis?Thoracentesis is a technique used to drain air or fluid from the area around the lungs. The pleural space is reached by inserting a needle through the chest wall. The pericardial space is the little opening between the inner chest wall and the pleura of the lung. A dual layer of membrane called the pleura encircles the lungs.
What fluid is removed in thoracentesis?The pleural space, which surrounds the lungs, can be sampled using a procedure known as thoracentesis. Pleural fluid is a fluid that often only exists as a thin layer in the space between the lungs and the chest wall.
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according to the principle of reversibility, what would happen if you were to build an elevated level of cardiorespiratory fitness and then not maintain it?
The oxygen demand of the heart would increase if you were to build an elevated level of cardiorespiratory fitness and then to maintain it.
In order to maintain a specific level of any kind of fitness, an athlete is required to exercise regularly. If they do not exercise on a regular basis, the size of their heart and muscles may reduce in size and thus they may reduce their efficacy to perform. In addition to this, if an elevated level of cardiorespiratory fitness is set by an athlete, he must perform exercises regularly to maintain it.
According to the principle of reversibility, an athlete will lose any workout gains or development if they cease training. All types of exercise, including cardiovascular, endurance, and strength training, are subject to reversibility in fitness. When a sportsperson picks up their training again, the consequences of the principle of reversibility can be undone.
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a nurse is examining a client's chest. during the exam, the nurse palpates what feels like bubbles under the client's chest muscles. which term would the nurse use when documenting this finding?
A nurse is examining a client's chest. during the exam, the nurse palpates what feels like bubbles under the client's chest muscles. crepitus term would the nurse use when documenting this finding.
What does the nurse know about the assessment result?The nurse recognizes that this assessment result is based on: A patient arrives at the doctor's office with a two-day history of febrile sickness, dyspnea, and cough. When the nurse helps the client into a gown, she notices that the client's sternum is depressed, especially on inspiration. Crackles can be heard in the lung fields' bases.
What should the nurse look for when evaluating a person's physical appearance?During the general survey, the nurse should look at the symmetry of the body parts as well as the posture to see if it is straight and erect. The nurse is getting ready to take a health history.
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an epidemiologic experiment is performed in which one group is exposed to a suspected factor and the other is not. all individuals with an odd hospital admission number are assigned to the second group. the main purpose of this procedure is to:
The main purpose of this procedure is to improve the likelihood that the two groups will be comparable regarding known and unknown confounding factors.
Epidemiology is the term that's utilized to characterize a ponder in which they think about done on a characterized populace for the health-related issues, that's almost replying to the who, when, and were related to this study.
The study of disease transmission is the ponder and examination of the dispersion (who, when, and where), designs, and determinants of well-being and illness conditions in a characterized populace.
Epidemiological considerations are pointed, where conceivable, at uncovering fair connections between exposures such as liquor or smoking, natural operators, stretch, or chemicals to mortality or dreariness.
This given address the explore centers on creating two distinctive bunches to get it and conduct the think about and examination legitimately, based on the suspected calculations and how they respond to it.
Thus, it'll lead to comparing the bunches in arrange to create the investigation proficient keeping consistent components.
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an older client has been prescribed an anticoagulant. what statement made by the client assures the nurse that the discharge information was understood correctly? (select all that apply.)
Th statement made by the client would be like: It's really important that I have my blood tested on a regular basis and they may need to increase the dosage of medicine.
Before starting treatment, the older patient who has been prescribed an anticoagulant should have their liver and renal function, usage of other medications, and capacity to adhere to regular blood tests and medical evaluations thoroughly assessed. The lowest dose of therapy should be administered at first, and it should then be increased or decreased based on the patient's reaction.
Anticoagulants are drugs that work to stop blood clots from forming. They are administered to those who have a high risk of blood clots in order to lower their risk of suffering from major illnesses including heart attacks and strokes. To halt bleeding from wounds, the blood forms a seal known as a blood clot.
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a white woman is being treated in an airport infirmary following development of a painful, swollen leg during a transatlantic flight in economy class. which teaching points should the airport health care provider give this women as to her risk for the development of deep vein thrombosis (dvt)?
Anticoagulation with blood thinners is the primary treatment for DVT and PE. These drugs lengthen the time it takes for blood to clot. They inhibit the formation of new clots and the growth of existing clots. Clots are not dissolved by anticoagulants.
What is deep vein thrombosis?Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a medical condition caused by the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein. Clots in the lower leg, thigh, or pelvis are most common, but they can also occur in the arm.A blood clot can be caused by anything that prevents blood from flowing or clotting properly. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is caused by damage to a vein caused by surgery or inflammation, as well as damage caused by infection or injury. The Homan's Test consists of lying flat on your back and extending the knee in the suspected leg. Allow a friend or family member to raise the extended leg to 10 degrees and squeeze the calf. It is possible that you have calf pain.To learn more about deep vein thrombosis refer to :
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which hospitalized client is likely to have the anteroposterior chest diameter equal to the lateral chest and the slope of the ribs more horizontal to the spine
The hospitalized client which is likely to have the anteroposterior chest diameter equal to the lateral chest and the slope of the ribs more horizontal to the spine is that which has cystic fibrosis.
What is Cystic fibrosis?This is referred to as a type of medical condition which damages the lungs and digestive system of the affected individual. This is because of an abnormality in the properties of the fluid in the area.
In this condition, the fluid which make up the mucus, digestive juices etc become more sticky and leads to the blockage of the tubes and passageways of different substances.
This leads to coughing and infection in the affected area and the anteroposterior chest diameter is usually equal to the lateral chest and the slope of the ribs more horizontal to the spine.
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while providing initial ventilations to an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest despite an adequate mask-to-face seal. you should:
While providing initial ventilations to an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest despite an adequate mask-to-face seal we should increase the volume of your ventilations.
What is ventilations ?
Ventilation, as used in science, is the process through which the lungs get air by exchanging their contents with the outside air. The most typical form of ventilation in terrestrial animals is pulmonary ventilation, which is defined as follows. It is because of this procedure that we can actually breathe. The medical definition of ventilation, on the other hand, relates to the process of breathing by the respiratory system, including that of the human body.
While providing initial ventilations to an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest despite an adequate mask-to-face seal we should increase the volume of your ventilations.
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joe just burned himself on a hot pot. a blister forms and the burn is painful. joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn. joe just burned himself on a hot pot. a blister forms and the burn is painful. joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn. true false
It is true that Joe who just burned himself on a hot pot due to which a blister forms and the burn is painful, so his burn would best be described as a third-degree burn.
A blister may be a painful skin condition wherever fluid fills an area between layers of skin. They form when things — like too-tight shoes — repeatedly rubs against your skin. These fluid-filled bubbles are a pain, however you'll be able to treat them simply reception.
Third-degree burns extend into the fat layer that lies to a lower place the corium. The skin might seem stiff, waxy white, leatherlike or tan. These forms of burns sometimes need skin grafts for wound closure. there's no sensation within the space since the nerve endings are destroyed.
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select the true statement from the choices below. a. drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription. b. prescription drugs can only be dispensed by pharmacists. c. vitamins, supplements, and herbal remedies are classified as prescription drugs and dietary supplements. d. prescription drugs are also known as over-the-counter drugs.
Rx drugs are only available with a prescription from a doctor or another licensed medical professional, such as a nurse practitioner or physician assistant.
" prescription drugs can only be dispensed by pharmacists. " is True statement.
What are the prescription and nonprescription drugs?Prescription drugs are those that are safe and effective when used under the supervision of a doctor, whereas nonprescription or OTC drugs are those that the FDA has determined are safe and effective for use without a doctor's prescription.Over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription (Rx) drugs are examples of legal drugs. Legal drugs include alcohol, nicotine, and caffeine.Rx drugs are only available with a prescription from a doctor or another licensed medical professional, such as a nurse practitioner or physician assistant. These medications are typically stronger than over-the-counter medications and can only be used by the intended person to treat a specific medical condition.To learn more about : Prescription drugs
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a. drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription.
What is the difference between prescription drugs and OTC drugs?
A drug is a substance that is used to treat, diagnose, mitigate, or prevent disease.
Prescription medications are issued by a doctor, obtained from a pharmacy, and intended for use only by the patient for whom they are issued. The FDA regulates this via the New Drug Application (NDA) process.
Nonprescription drugs are known as Over-the-counter drugs(OTC). OTC drugs are those that can be purchased without a prescription from a doctor and are found in retail establishments. Through OTC Drug monographs, the FDA regulates this. When used according to the instructions on the label and those given by your healthcare provider, they are safe and effective.
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1. the post-bariatric surgery diet is low in kcalories and high in protein. what percent of kcalories come from protein in this 1-day soft foods diet menu?
d. 42% calories from protein
the new york state health department reported in 1997 that the death rate for aids in the state had fallen over the past year due to the efficacy of the new drugs. the incidence of hiv remained constant. what has happened to the prevalence of hiv infections?
At the end of 1997, 27.5 million people were receiving antiretroviral therapy worldwide. HIV drug resistance can compromise the effectiveness of antiretroviral drugs in reducing HIV incidence and HIV-associated morbidity and mortality due to the efficacy of the new drugs.
What is mortality?Mortality refers to the state of death . In medicine, the term is also used for mortality, or the number of deaths of a certain group of people during a certain period of time. Mortality is defined as the condition in which a person died. .
The most common global causes of death in order of total lives lost relate to three broad themes cardiovascular (coronary heart disease, stroke), respiratory (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, lower respiratory infections) and neonatal diseases, which include e.g. asphyxia during childbirth and childbirth trauma.
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this is the rhythm that the telemetry technician observed on the cardiac monitor at the central telemetry station. what is your interpretation of the rhythm on the cardiac monitor?
The ems professional should be the one to monitor the patient's cardiac rhythms and use the defibrillator if necessary is Paramedics (EMT-Ps).
What is the main role of the Paramedics (EMT-Ps)?The term Paramedics (EMT-Ps) has been known to be one that tends to use the manual defibrillators. The ems professional should be the one to monitor the patient's cardiac rhythms and use the defibrillator if necessary is Paramedics (EMT-Ps).
It has been one that has seen to be are capable of carrying out defibrillation and also of handling a lot of physiological parameters for example heart rhythm, blood pressure, and others.
Therefore, The ems professional should be the one to monitor the patient's cardiac rhythms and use the defibrillator if necessary is Paramedics (EMT-Ps).
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in early 2014, west african countries began diagnosing and reporting cases of ebola for the first time in their history. this is an example of a(n) (endemic/epidemic/sporadic) disease.
In early 2014, west african countries began diagnosing and reporting cases of ebola for the first time in their history. this is an example of a(n) epidemic disease.
The bulk of Ebola virus disease cases and outbreaks since its discovery in 1976 have happened in Africa. The West African Ebola outbreak that occurred between 2014 and 2016 started in a rural area of southeast Guinea, quickly expanded to cities and across borders, and within months, became a worldwide epidemic.
Scientists are unsure of the origins of the Ebola virus. They think EVD is animal-borne and that bats or nonhuman primates are the most plausible sources of infection based on similar viruses. Apes, monkeys, duikers, and humans are just a few of the numerous animals that the viral disease can infect and spread to.
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a 56-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ckd. she first went to the doctor due to complications of hypertension. how are hypertension and ckd related?
CKD and hypertension are related by arteries receiving blood with high pressure.
CKD refers to Chronic Kidney Disease. Our kidney functions to remove the waste from body and balance the amount of ions and water content. Both the functions are performed on blood received in Bowman's capsule. Hypertension is the high blood pressure or excess force of blood posed in artery walls.
If such blood is received by arteries in kidney, their walls narrow, weaken and harden. This results in improper filtration of blood. Additionally, kidneys are unable to maintain the blood pressure via hormone aldosterone. Thus, hypertension results in chronic kidney disease and hence needs to be managed.
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milk is a good source of calcium but a poor source of iron. meat is a good source of iron but a poor source of calcium. a diet incorporating both of these foods demonstrates what characteristic of a healthful diet?
Solution: A diet incorporating both milk and meat demonstrates balance.
$ | A healthful diet contains a variety of foods from each food group in order to get all the nutrients needed for good health.
a client is admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis (dka) and is prescribed a higher total daily dose of insulin than normally taken. what contributes to the need for increased insulin dosing during dka?
Option D. Regular the need for increased insulin dosing during DKA regular insulin is administered intravenously to deal with DKA. it's far brought to an IV answer and infused constantly.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious hassle of diabetes that can be existence-threatening. DKA is maximum not unusual amongst humans with type 1 diabetes. humans with type 2 diabetes also can develop DKA. DKA develops when your body doesn't have enough insulin to permit blood sugar into your cells to be used as energy.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a critical hassle that can take place in people with diabetes if their body starts to expire from insulin. whilst this happens, harmful substances known as ketones build up inside the body, which may be life-threatening if it's no longer determined and dealt with speedily.
Non-diabetic ketoacidosis is a rare situation that may be caused by hunger. A loss of glucose can pressure the body into ketogenesis inflicting metabolic acidosis. As formerly suggested within the literature, ketoacidosis would possibly, on rare activities, be a result of a weight loss plan with low carbohydrate content material.
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Disclaimer:- your question is incomplete, please see below for the complete question.
A client is admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis (dka) and is prescribed a higher total daily dose of insulin than normally taken. what contributes to the need for increased insulin dosing during dka?
a) Lente
b) Glargine
c) NPH
d) Regular
an adult client with a long history of alcohol abuse has been diagnosed with wernicke disease. which is the most likely course of this client's health problem?
Answer: Chronic Alcohol Use
Explanation:
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome happens due to a lack of thiamine. This essential vitamin changes (converts) sugar into energy. When you have too little thiamine, your brain doesn't have enough energy to work properly. The most common cause of thiamine deficiency is chronic alcohol use.
in icd-10, which has combination codes that include the type of diabetes, what code is used if the type of diabetes is not documented in the medical record and the practitioner cannot be questioned?
The type of diabetes is not documented in the medical record and the practitioner cannot be questioned as an External cause of morbidity.
Types of diabetes mellitus affected body systems, and complications affect those body systems. According to the American Hospital Association Coding Clinic, any combination of diabetes codes can be assigned together as long as one diabetes condition is not unique to another. The order of the secondary diabetes codes in relation to the diabetic cause codes follows the instructions in the tabular list for categories E08 and E09.
Insulin use is involved in the diagnosis of type I diabetes itself. In this case, this patient is assumed to be using insulin, so there is no need to report her Z-code for long-term insulin use. Certain conditions have both an underlying etiology and symptoms of multiple body systems due to the underlying etiology. A fourth sign identifies the presence of symptoms or complications. The fifth and sixth signs identify specific types of symptoms.
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a reasonable weight-loss strategy for overweight and obese adults is to increase activity and reduce food intake enough to create a deficit of how many kcalories per day? a. 100 to 200 b. 200 to 300 c. 300 to 500 d. 500 to 750
In a weight-loss strategy food intake should be reduced to Deficit of 500 to 750 kcalories per day for overweight and obese adults.
Because people gain weight by using more energy than they burn, cutting back on calories can help over weight and obese adults to lose weight. However, genetics, metabolism, hormones, the type of food you eat, your body type, and lifestyle all play a role.
malnutrition and a poor diet can happen regardless of calories therefore, a meal plan needs to be balanced in terms of nutrients. A bad diet can also make you feel down and make it hard to get things done.
A person should gradually increase their daily calorie intake until they reach their "weight maintenance" figure once they have reached their desired body weight.
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What component of bone is responsible for its resiliency?
Answer:
the strength part of bone stuff is hydroxyapatite crystals. They're inorganic material, but they're laid down by organic processes.
Hope this helps !
Answer:
the matrix is the right answer
high cholesterol levels are considered a major risk factor for heart disease. if it is so bad for humans, why does the body make cholesterol in the first place?
Answer: Cholesterol is created in the body in order to make Vitamind D and hormones like estrogen and testosterone. Although your body requires cholesterol to create healthy cells, having too much of it might raise your chance of developing heart disease. You can form fatty deposits in your blood vessels if you have high cholesterol. Over time, these deposits thicken and restrict the amount of blood that can pass through your arteries.
12. prior to using an alcohol based surgical hand rub product (waterless scrub), you must wash hands and forearms and clean subungual area with a disposable nail cleaner first: a. true b. false 13. after removal of surgical gloves, it is not necessary to wash your hands since you already scrubbed your hands prior to donning gloves: a. true b. false
12. The given statement about washing hands, forearms and clean subungual area with a disposable nail cleaner first is true
13. The given statement about washing hands after donning surgical gloves is false
What is the correct procedure to scrub your hands before and after using surgical gloves?Wash hands along with your forearms with soap under running water just before beginning the surgical scrubDry your handsDispense an approved microbial scrub agent according to directions mentioned by manufacturers.Also clean the subungual areas of both your hands under running water by using a disposable nail cleaner.Visualize each of your finger, hand, and arm. Wash all 4 sides effectively and repeat the process on other hand then rinse thoroughly.In addition to using gloves, it's important to wash your hands after removing them, as germs from the gloves may have touched your hands and wrists when you removed them.
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imagine talking with a friend about how fit you are for your health. what tests could you and your friend perform to determine how well you and each component of health-related fitness are doing, and what exercises could you do to get better?
The exercises which help you get better are; endurance exercise, strength exercise, balance exercise and flexibility exercise.
Components of physical fitness that are related to health are; Body composition, flexibility, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and cardiorespiratory endurance are the five elements of physical fitness.
Regular exercise might help you get in better cardiovascular shape. You might try out a variety of exercises, including running, walking, cycling, swimming, dancing, and boxing. Being consistent is important.
Maintaining aspects of health-related fitness enhances cardiovascular, respiratory, and general health. Maintaining a healthy weight, lowering your risk of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and various malignancies are other benefits of staying active.
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an just finished her fitness assessment with you. she is 58, has never engaged in physical activities, and tires easily while climbing stairs and walking her dog. which 2 components of the function-health-fitness-performance continuum will jan need to focus on during the beginning of her exercise program?
2 components of the function-health-fitness-performance required to focus are function and health.
What does function-health-fitness-performance continuum mean?This continuum is the premise that human movement and fitness begins with the development or recovery of basic functional movements and progresses and declines over a spectrum that is extended to perform advanced tasks and movements in athletics.
Each person is at a unique point on the continuum, which is based on health status and physical limitations, frequency, intensity and type of physical activity, and anything related to participation in athletics. increase. Lifestyle factors are related to growth and development throughout life.
Personal trainers working with clients who have trouble completing activities of daily living should work to set goals aimed at assisting them in their functional movements. is the first part of Move the spectrum from there.
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facilities that generally engage in geriatric care for elderly people needing nursing services and assistance with personal care and daily living activities provide what type of care?
Facilities that generally engage in geriatric care for elderly people needing nursing services and assistance with personal care and daily living activities provide convalescent care.
The time of convalescence is when the body heals following a serious disease, accident, or surgery. To ensure that the body has adequate time, care and rest to allow a full recovery, lifestyle adjustments may be required.
Convalescent care is a word used to describe the temporary assistance given to people who are recovering from an illness, surgery, or injury by trained experts.The eventual goal of this form of care is always for the patient to regain their independence and the strength to manage without assistance.
Convalescent care is best suited for those who are capable of recovering from whatever condition made them need more support. For instance, a person who has had a hip replacement may initially need assistance with activities like moving around and preparing meals, but once they have recovered, it is likely that they will be able to return to their normal lifestyle and manage without it.
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apart from suffering from recurrent and prolonged infections, marie curie also experienced the following signs and symptoms: fatigue, rapid heart rate, pale skin, easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, and dizziness. bone marrow transplant was not an option at that time and so blood transfusion was the treatment of choice.?trackid
Aplastic anemia caused Marie Curie's death in 1934. An autoimmune condition called aplastic anemia causes the body to create insufficient amounts of blood cells. The stem cells that live in the bone marrow create blood cells. Red, white, and platelet blood cell counts are all reduced as a result of aplastic anemia.
What are the signs and symptoms of bone marrow transplant?Aplastic anemia causes fatigue because there aren't enough red blood cells in the blood to carry oxygen to the organs. The body detects a drop in oxygen concentration, which causes the heart to beat more quickly to supply oxygen to the organs.
The blood vessels constrict in order to supply oxygen to the body's vital organs, such as the heart and brain, which results in pale skin. It indicates pale skin because less blood reaches the face. Because there are insufficient platelets to cause a blood clot to form and halt the bleeding, cuts might bleed for an extended period of time. Because not enough oxygen is getting to the brain, dizziness occurs.
She can only accept blood from O- or other A negative donors if she is an A negative. She possesses antibodies to both B and populations that contain the protein Rh (+). She cannot therefore get either B or Rh+ blood.
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