The nurse prepares for a temporary pacemaker insertion because the client has developed a type 2 second-degree AV block. The PR interval remains constant and there are twice as many P waves as there are R waves, which indicates a block in the AV node.
Second-degree, type 2 AV block is a cardiac arrhythmia that is a more progressed type of heart block, where the electrical impulses from the atria cannot consistently conduct to the ventricles. The PR interval is usually constant, but not all P waves are followed by QRS complexes. The QRS complexes are often twice the length of the conducted QRS complexes, and there may be pauses in conduction that become longer with time, leading to a complete heart block, and making the patient dependent on a pacemaker.
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hen preparing to insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse determines the length of the tube to be inserted. the nurse places the distal tip of the tube at which location?
When preparing to insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the distal tip of the tube at the pharynx.
In nursing, NG tube insertion is a common procedure. The nasogastric tube is a medical device that is used to provide enteral feeding or the insertion of medication through the nose and into the stomach.
When inserting a nasogastric tube, the nurse determines the length of the tube to be inserted. The length of the tube should be determined by the patient's weight, height, and medical history. The nurse should then place the distal tip of the tube at the pharynx.
Pharynx is a muscular tube that extends from the back of the nasal cavity to the esophagus. When the distal tip is placed in the pharynx, the patient should be instructed to swallow to aid in the insertion of the tube.
Once the tube has been inserted, the nurse will then verify the placement of the tube by performing an X-ray or measuring the pH of the gastric fluid. If the placement of the tube is incorrect, the tube should be removed and reinserted.
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a client develops a vitamin k deficiency due to intestinal malabsorption. what intervention should the registered nurse (rn) implement in the plan of care?
The registered nurse should add the vitamin K in the client’s diet, and implement Vitamin K injections if the patient is unable to take it orally.
The nurse should also monitor the client's INR level and educate the client about the condition and diet changes. Intestinal malabsorption is a condition in which the small intestine is unable to absorb essential nutrients from the food that is consumed. Intestinal malabsorption can result from a variety of medical conditions, including Crohn's disease, celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic insufficiency.
Vitamin K deficiency can lead to bleeding, blood clotting difficulties, and the development of bruises. Because vitamin K is essential for blood clotting, a vitamin K deficiency can result in excessive bleeding and bruising.The vitamin K should be added to the patient's diet. Green vegetables, especially broccoli, kale, collard greens, turnip greens, spinach, and mustard greens, are abundant in vitamin K.
Vitamin K injections can be given to the patient if they are unable to consume it orally. INR levels should be monitored by the registered nurse regularly. Vitamin K deficiency can be the root cause of high INR levels, which may cause internal bleeding, hematomas, or other complications. The client should be educated about the importance of dietary changes, avoiding anticoagulants, and taking medications as prescribed by the doctor.
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Describe positive and open nonverbal behaviors that should be used with patients
With patients, encouraging nonverbal cues including eye contact, smiling, nodding, open body posture, leaning in, touching, and mirroring should be used.
What kind of nonverbal behaviours are effective?Positive nonverbal cues include smiles, body language, eye contact, tone of voice, and eye contact. Positive nonverbal communication helps interactions with children and their development.
What is a good illustration of nonverbal communication?When in a conversation, a smile, a nod, and the use of your brows can convey satisfaction. Example: When a coworker is telling you about their recent vacation, you can nod in agreement and smile to convey that you are enjoying what they are saying.
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in modern chinese medicine, cannabis seeds have little medicinal value. true/false
In modern Chinese medicine, cannabis seeds have little medicinal value is true. Because cannabis seeds are believed to have a variety of health advantages, including the ability to regulate digestion and prevent digestive system problems, manage weight, and control diabetes.
Cannabis seeds are a fantastic source of nutrition, with a high concentration of fatty acids and essential amino acids. They also contain antioxidants, iron, and zinc, among other important nutrients.
Cannabis seeds are rich in antioxidants, which can help to improve the immune system and reduce inflammation. In addition, consuming cannabis seeds may help to enhance the functioning of the liver, reducing the risk of liver disease.
It is beneficial for health but modern Chinese medicine does not value cannabis seeds much due to various reasons. Thus, it can be concluded that cannabis seeds have little medicinal value in modern Chinese medicine.
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you are caring for a child who is in respiratory arrest with a central pulse of 55 bpmyou are caring for a child who is in respiratory arrest with a central pulse of 55 bpm and signs of poor perfusion. what should you do?and signs of poor perfusion. what should you do?
If a child is suffering from respiratory arrest with a central pulse of 55 bpm and symptoms of poor perfusion, you must take immediate action to save the child's life.
There are several things you can do in this situation. These are listed below:-
Respiratory arrest is a medical emergency, and a child requires prompt medical attention. Therefore, it is important to have a basic knowledge of CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation) skills. Knowing how to perform CPR can save a child's life.
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Using Internet resources, discuss one disease of each of these systems (1) cardiovascular/heart and vessels, (2) lymphatic system and digestive system. Include causes, symptoms, and risk factors for each disease in your discussion.
Answer:
1. Cardiovascular/Heart and Vessels:
Atherosclerosis is a disease of the cardiovascular system that occurs when plaque builds up in the walls of arteries, causing them to narrow and harden. This can lead to complications such as heart attack, stroke, and peripheral artery disease. The main risk factors for developing atherosclerosis include high blood pressure, high cholesterol levels, smoking, obesity, diabetes, and a family history of the disease. The symptoms of atherosclerosis vary depending on the location of the affected artery, but can include chest pain, shortness of breath, numbness or weakness in the legs, and difficulty speaking or understanding speech. Treatment for atherosclerosis may include lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, medications to lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels, and in severe cases, surgery to remove the blockage.
2.Lymphatic System and Digestive System:
Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the digestive system, specifically the small intestine and colon. The exact cause of Crohn's disease is unknown, but it is thought to be related to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. The symptoms of Crohn's disease include abdominal pain, diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and sometimes rectal bleeding. The disease can also cause complications such as intestinal blockages and fistulas. Risk factors for developing Crohn's disease include a family history of the disease, smoking, and a history of infections in the gut. Treatment for Crohn's disease may include medication to reduce inflammation, dietary changes, and in some cases, surgery to remove damaged parts of the digestive system.
56. a client diagnosed with peptic ulcer discase is prescribed antacids. the nurse would teach the client that antacids: a. are more effective in chewable form than as suspensions b. should be taken 1 - 2 hours after meals and at bedtime c. do not interfere with the absorption of other medications d. increase hydrochloric acid production and lower stomach
The nurse would teach the client that antacids should be taken 1-2 hours after meals and at bedtime. The correct answer is b.
Antacids are a common class of medication used to treat peptic ulcer disease. It is important to teach clients about how to take this medication, which can include taking them after meals and before bed. Additionally, antacids are not known to interfere with the absorption of other medications.
What are antacids?Antacids are a class of medication used to treat heartburn, indigestion, and other gastrointestinal issues. They work by neutralizing stomach acid, which can cause pain and discomfort. Antacids can be taken as tablets, capsules, or liquid suspensions. They are available over the counter at most pharmacies and drug stores.
It should be taken 1-2 hours after meals and at bedtime. This is the optimal time to take this medication, as it allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness.
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a nurse is reviewing an article about preterm premature rupture of membranes. which factors would the nurse expect to find placing a woman at high risk for this condition? select all that apply.
Following are the factors that place a woman at high risk for Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) : Uterine over distension, Chorioamnionitis, Vaginal bleeding, History of preterm birth, Cervical incompetence, Multiple pregnancy, Urinary tract infection, Sexually transmitted infection, Signs of inflammation on cervical culture.
Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) refers to a condition when the sac that contains the baby (amniotic sac) and the fluid surrounding the baby break (rupture) before the completion of 37 weeks of pregnancy.
A nurse should expect to find the above-listed factors placing a woman at high risk for preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). The amniotic sac is a tough membrane that surrounds and protects the baby throughout pregnancy.
The amniotic sac contains amniotic fluid that protects the baby from infections and injuries. The amniotic sac breaks when the membrane ruptures. When the membrane breaks, the amniotic fluid leaks out of the uterus via the cervix.
A woman with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) may need treatment for her baby’s and her own health. Doctors will manage the mother's health first because the baby's health depends on the mother's health. Depending on the baby's gestational age and health, doctors may recommend delivering the baby immediately, waiting to deliver the baby, or attempting to delay delivery.
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3) a patient is admitted to the neuro intensive care unit after acute head injury. the patient has multiple fractures of the right leg which resulted in severe haemorrhage. what is the most important intervention for the patient after blood and fluid resuscitation have been instituted? a. aggressive hypoglycemic control b. use of hypotonic iv fluids c. early enteral nutritional support as tolerated d. maintaining central venous pressure
The most important intervention for the patient after blood and fluid resuscitation has been instituted is maintaining central venous pressure.
So, the correct answer is D.
Central venous pressure (CVP) is the blood pressure within the thoracic vena cava or, more generally, the right atrium of the heart. CVP reflects the amount of blood that is being returned to the heart and the ability of the heart to pump the blood out again, as well as the capacity of the vascular system to accommodate blood.
A central venous catheter (CVC) is typically used to assess CVP. By providing an assessment of the adequacy of intravascular volume, cardiac function, and systemic perfusion, CVP measurement is a valuable component of the monitoring of hemodynamically unstable patients. Hence, maintaining central venous pressure is the most important intervention for the patient after blood and fluid resuscitation has been instituted.
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a client has been taking buproprion (wellbutrin) for over a year and was just in a major car accident. the client lost conciousness and was brought to the ed. for which reason would the nurse question the continued use of this medication?
If a patient has been taking Buproprion (Wellbutrin) for over a year and has been involved in a major car accident, the nurse should question the medication's continued use due to the possibility of a head injury.
Buproprion (Wellbutrin) is a medication that is used to treat depression and seasonal affective disorder. The active substance in Wellbutrin is bupropion.It operates by improving the brain's natural chemicals, particularly norepinephrine and dopamine, which are related to mood and motivation.
Due to its antidepressant properties, Wellbutrin may cause an elevated risk of seizures, particularly in people who have had head injuries or a seizure disorder.
If a patient loses consciousness due to a head injury, the nurse should be wary of the continued use of this medication since it might increase the possibility of seizures. The risk of seizures may be enhanced by consuming a lot of alcohol or abruptly ceasing the medication.
Because of the heightened risk of seizures, the patient's Wellbutrin dosage should be gradually decreased and the medication should be discontinued only after a thorough consultation with a healthcare professional.
The side effects of Wellbutrin, such as dizziness, nausea, vomiting, and headache, may worsen after a head injury, making the nurse's care even more crucial.
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the student nurse is collecting data on a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis and notes the child has a barrel chest and clubbing of the fingers. in explaining this manifestation of the disease, the staff nurse explains the cause of this symptom to be:
The staff nurse states that the student nurse is gathering information on a child with cystic fibrosis and has noticed the child has clubbing of the fingers and a barrel chest, the cause of this symptom is reduced lung compliance and elastic recoil, the correct option is (D).
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs, digestive system, and other organs. Reduced lung compliance and elastic recoil are common manifestations of cystic fibrosis that result from the buildup of thick, sticky mucus in the airways, leading to inflammation and damage of the lung tissue. This damage causes the lungs to lose their elasticity, which in turn reduces their ability to expand and contract efficiently during breathing, leading to a barrel-shaped chest. Clubbing of the fingers is also a common manifestation of cystic fibrosis, which is believed to result from chronic hypoxia (low oxygen levels) due to poor oxygen exchange in the lungs.
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The complete question is:
The student nurse is collecting data on a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis and notes the child has a barrel chest and clubbing of the fingers. In explaining this manifestation of the disease, the staff nurse explains the cause of this symptom to be:
A. Hypertrophy of the respiratory muscles
B. Bronchospasm and increased airway resistance
C. Hypoxemia and chronic respiratory acidosis
D. Reduced lung compliance and elastic recoil
a patient diagnosed with hiv infection taking antiretroviral therapy appears less depressed and more talkative. the patient tells you the drugs seem to be working, and she is certain she is now cured. what are your best responses? (select all that apply.)
There are a number of things you should say to a patient who has HIV infection and is undergoing antiretroviral therapy and appears to be feeling better e.g. "It is fantastic that you are feeling better".
Let's take a look at a few things that you could say to such a patient: "It is fantastic that you are feeling better." Antiretroviral therapy can help you feel better and even reduce the chance of HIV transmission. However, HIV is still in your body and you will have to take medicine for the rest of your life to keep the virus under control.
It is not possible to fully cure HIV as of now, but we can take steps to control the virus and make sure it does not progress to AIDS. We can also use other drugs to treat the various symptoms and side effects of HIV infection. Therefore, it is vital to keep taking your medication as prescribed and to come in for follow-up appointments.
Additionally, if you have any questions or concerns about your treatment or the disease in general, please do not hesitate to ask us.
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a nurse has very strong client education skills. in which health care setting would the nurse make best use of these skills?
The nurse would make the best use of her client education skills in the community health care setting.
Client education is a collaborative effort that necessitates the integration of the patient's understanding, values, and cultural beliefs. Patient and family education and training is a vital component of a nurse's work. Teaching is a technique that involves imparting information and skills to patients, caregivers, and families so that they can make informed decisions about their health, cure, and recovery. Patients' and families' ability to learn depends on a number of factors, including their readiness to learn, language, reading and writing skills, level of knowledge, socio-economic status, cultural heritage, and learning abilities. Community health care setting is where the nurse can make the best use of her client education skills.
Community health nursing is centered on delivering primary health care services to people living in their communities, with the goal of promoting health, avoiding disease, and enhancing the quality of life. Community health nursing necessitates that the nurse be knowledgeable about community health problems, have the ability to work as part of a team, and be able to use a range of instructional strategies.
Therefore, Community health nursing allows nurses to use their client education skills to promote health, avoid illness, and enhance the quality of life for patients and communities, in particular.
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Calculate how many tablets for the weekly dose for each of the prescriptions below:
Order: Ibuprofen 200 mg po tid for 7 days
How many total tablets will the patient take over 7 days?
Give:
Answer: 21 tablets
Explanation:
Po tid means "three per day." Since the patient will take them for 7 days, that will be three times seven. (this will also be 4200 mg in total)
a newly licensed nurse would like to work in a hospital that is innovative in the provision of nursing services. the nurse should apply to which institution?
A newly licensed nurse who would like to work in a hospital that is innovative in the provision of nursing services should apply to Mayo Clinic Hospital.
Mayo Clinic Hospital is one of the world's leading academic medical centers. Their multidisciplinary medical team includes a range of clinicians who collaborate on patient care to provide innovative medical and surgical treatments. Mayo Clinic is ranked as one of the top hospitals in the United States and has been named one of the "100 Great Hospitals in America."
In order to apply for a job at Mayo Clinic Hospital, a nurse can visit their website and apply for available nursing positions that fit their skill set.
Mayo Clinic Hospital is a world-class medical institution that provides a range of benefits to its employees. Some of the benefits of working at Mayo Clinic Hospital include:
Competitive salary, Health insurance, Life insurance, Dental insurance, Vision insurance, Disability insurance, 401k retirement plan, Tuition reimbursement, Paid time off and holidays, Employee wellness programs, Opportunities for professional development.
In addition to the above benefits, Mayo Clinic Hospital also provides a supportive work environment, excellent work-life balance, and opportunities for career advancement. These factors make it an ideal place for newly licensed nurses to start their career in nursing.
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a family is touring a long-term care facility to determine whether it is a good place for their older family member. what is the best way for the nurse to describe the nutritional options offered by the facility?
The nurse should explain to the family that the long-term care facility offers nutritional options tailored to the individual needs of the resident.
The options may include a variety of nutritious meals that are planned and prepared according to dietary guidelines and restrictions. The nurse can also discuss any specialized diets, food allergies, or other dietary preferences that may need to be accommodated.
When describing the nutritional options offered by the facility to the family touring the long-term care facility, the nurse should use clear and concise language that is easy for the family to understand. The nurse needs to emphasize the importance of proper nutrition for older adults and how it can impact their health and well-being.
The nurse can explain the variety of available menu options, including any special diets that are offered to accommodate specific dietary needs or restrictions. The nurse can also describe how meals are prepared and served, including any options for snacks or hydration.
Additionally, the nurse can provide information on how the facility ensures that residents are receiving adequate nutrition, such as through the monitoring of weight and nutritional assessments. The nurse can also describe any programs or activities that are offered to encourage residents to maintain a healthy diet.
Overall, the nurse should emphasize the importance of nutrition and how the facility strives to meet the nutritional needs of its residents. The nurse can also offer to answer any questions the family may have and provide additional resources or information as needed.
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a patient who was recently treated with clindamycin for an infection has called the nurse line as she has developed frequent diarrhea that she believes has blood in it. what would be the appropriate care for her?
The appropriate care for her would be: to check the patient's vital signs, supportive care for dehydration, switch to antibiotics, monitor the patient's stool and educate the patient on ways to prevent diarrhea, etc.
The appropriate care for her would be the following:
First and foremost, take the patient's vital signs (blood pressure, pulse, respiratory rate, and temperature) and assess her abdomen for any signs of inflammation, such as distension or tenderness. Provide supportive care for dehydration, such as oral rehydration therapy or intravenous fluids. Consider reducing or discontinuing the dose of clindamycin or switching to a different antibiotic. Monitor the patient's stool for any changes and perform laboratory tests to check for the presence of blood or infectious agents. Lastly, educate the patient on ways to prevent diarrhea, such as washing their hands frequently and avoiding consuming undercooked meat or unpasteurized dairy products.The reason why it is important to check the patient's vital signs is to evaluate whether she is dehydrated or not. Diarrhea can cause dehydration, which is a serious condition that can lead to further complications. It is also important to check her abdomen for any signs of inflammation, such as distension or tenderness.
This will help identify whether she has developed any complications or not. Provide supportive care for dehydration, such as oral rehydration therapy or intravenous fluids, as this will help the patient to recover quickly.
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during transport of a child to the medical facility the mother is standing and interfering with the care of the patient. the ambulance operator should:
The ambulance operator should ask the mother to sit down and explain the importance of the child's care in case of interference in the care of a child during transport to a medical facility.
The ambulance operator should ask the mother to sit down and explain the importance of the child's care in case of interference in the care of a child during transport to a medical facility. The ambulance operator may need to call for backup or additional support if the situation becomes uncontrollable. The operator should also provide a calm environment, explain any potential risks or procedures, and update the parents or guardians about their child's condition during transport.
The operator should also maintain effective communication with the hospital or medical facility receiving the patient. The ambulance operator should firmly and respectfully explain to the mother that they need to provide the medical care to the child in order for them to receive the appropriate treatment and ask her to stay out of the way. The operator should explain that it is for the child's safety and health and ask the mother to remain nearby and be informed of their child's condition.
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a worried mother calls the nurse and tells her that her son has developed a horrible croup cough and is having trouble breathing. what would be the best intervention for the nurse to recommend to the mother?
Run a hot shower to create steam in the room and keep the boy there. Running the shower or hot water tap in the bathroom until the space is filled with steam and keeping the child in this warm, moist atmosphere can help relieve croup symptoms in an emergency. This relaxes the airway tissues and opens the bronchi lumens.
What would a nurse anticipate finding while examining a youngster with croup?Stridor during rest, tracheal tug, chest wall retractions, fluctuating breathing rate, and elevated heart rate all point to the need for medical intervention.
Is wheezing in children best detected during exhalation?High-pitched whistling or purring is the sound of wheezing. As your child is exhaling, you can hear it the greatest. Over 40 breaths per minute of rapid breathing. restless breathing (having to work hard to push air out).
What is one of the steps in treating croup in children?The majority of croup cases are minor and manageable at home. It's crucial to sit your child up straight and console them if they're upset because sobbing could make the symptoms worse. To avoid dehydration, your youngster should also drink plenty of fluids.
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an older client presents with a sudden onset of impaired level of consciousness. the triage nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of which condition?
When an older client presents with a sudden onset of impaired level of consciousness, the triage nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of stroke.
The triage nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of a stroke. Stroke can cause a sudden onset of impaired level of consciousness. The nurse should look for any signs of facial drooping, slurred speech, arm weakness or difficulty speaking. They should also check the patient's blood pressure and monitor their pulse. Additionally, they should check for signs of any head or neck injury that could be associated with the stroke.
Stroke is a sudden impairment of brain function caused by an interruption in the blood supply to the brain. A stroke is a medical emergency that requires immediate medical attention as it can cause brain damage and can be fatal if not treated promptly.
Symptoms of stroke include sudden onset of confusion or trouble speaking, trouble seeing in one or both eyes, weakness or numbness in the face, arm, or leg, sudden severe headache with no known cause, dizziness, trouble walking or loss of balance, and sudden onset of impaired level of consciousness.
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a nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (itp). which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to treat this disorder?
The nurse will administer prednisone to treat immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
What is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a blood disorder characterized by a low platelet count caused by the immune system destroying the patient's own platelets.
Patients with ITP may have petechiae, ecchymoses, and mucosal bleeding because they do not have enough platelets to form clots in small blood vessels or to repair damaged blood vessels.
The nurse will administer prednisone to treat immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Prednisone is an immunosuppressant that works by decreasing the immune system's ability to destroy the patient's platelets. Prednisone also helps to reduce inflammation in the patient's body.
The following are other medications that may be used to treat ITP:
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) is a medication that provides the patient with healthy antibodies, which can help to boost the platelet count. This medication is frequently given to individuals with ITP who are in need of rapid platelet support.Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that is given to patients with ITP who have not responded to traditional treatment methods.Splenectomy is the surgical removal of the spleen, which is a common treatment for ITP.However, splenectomy is reserved for patients who have not responded to other treatment methods or have severe bleeding.
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which statements made by a student nurse would a registered nurse need to correct about emergency treatment procedures for the local complication of intravenous therapy involving thrombosis? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
As a student nurse, the following statements need to be corrected about emergency treatment procedures for the local complication of intravenous therapy involving thrombosis:
1. "If a clot is present, the IV site will be placed in a dependent position, and heat should be applied to encourage clot lysis." Incorrect, because raising the limb above the level of the heart or heat should not be applied because these interventions will promote embolism. The infusion should be stopped, and the catheter should be removed as soon as possible to decrease the likelihood of the clot dislodging and traveling to other parts of the body.
2. "When a thrombosis occurs, the catheter should be left in place." Incorrect, because the catheter should be removed as soon as possible to prevent the possibility of the clot dislodging and traveling to other parts of the body.
3. "As soon as a thrombosis is detected, the use of anticoagulants is recommended." Incorrect, because the use of anticoagulants is not recommended as a first-line treatment for catheter-related thrombosis.
4. "Thrombolytics are the best treatment for catheter-related thrombosis." Incorrect, because thrombolytics should only be used if the thrombus is causing a significant reduction in flow, there is a complete occlusion of the vein, or other treatments are ineffective.
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an older adult client has recently been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer and asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication they can take for a headache. what medication will the nurse suggest?
Aspirin is the over-the-counter medication the nurse will suggest to an older adult client who has been diagnosed with gastric ulcer and asks for a medication that can be taken for a headache.
A gastric ulcer refers to an open sore in the lining of the stomach caused by a disruption of the mucous membrane layer that protects the stomach from digestive acid.
Patients who have been diagnosed with gastric ulcer are often prescribed acid-reducing medicines and dietary recommendations, including avoiding foods and beverages that can worsen the symptoms, as well as medications to manage the pain.
Aspirin is an over-the-counter medication that is commonly used to alleviate pain and reduce fever. It is classified as a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for inflammation, fever, and pain transmission.
Aspirin, however, is an irritant that can damage the lining of the stomach and increase the risk of bleeding, and therefore not recommended for patients who have been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. Patients with peptic ulcer are advised to take acetaminophen instead of aspirin or other NSAIDs.
However, the nurse may suggest aspirin to a patient with gastric ulcer who has a headache but is not experiencing abdominal pain or other gastrointestinal symptoms.
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a nurse assesses a client on the medical-surgical unit. which statement made by the client should alert the nurse to the possibility of hypothyroidism?
A nurse assesses a client on the medical-surgical unit. The statement made by the client that should alert the nurse to the possibility of hypothyroidism is "I have gained 10 pounds in the past month, even though I am not eating more than usual."
A sign of hypothyroidism is a feeling of being cold all the time. If a client on the medical-surgical unit reports feeling constantly cold, the nurse should be alerted to the possibility of hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a condition that results from an underactive thyroid gland that doesn't produce enough thyroid hormones. This condition can lead to various symptoms and complications such as weight gain, fatigue, depression, constipation, and others.
The statement made by the client that should alert the nurse to the possibility of hypothyroidism is given above. This is because weight gain is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. The nurse should further investigate other possible symptoms of the condition and perform appropriate tests to confirm the diagnosis.
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a nurse is caring for a patient with instrumental activities of daily living. the nurse will most likely be assisting the client with which acitivty?
The nurse will most likely be assisting the patient with Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs).
A nurse is caring for a patient with instrumental activities of daily living. The nurse will most likely be assisting the client with meal preparation. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) refer to activities required to live independently in the community.
IADLs include things like meal preparation, grocery shopping, housekeeping, managing finances, taking medications correctly, and using the telephone and other forms of communication.
IADLs are more complex than ADLs and require higher levels of cognitive functioning. The patient needs to understand how to perform these tasks, manage medications, and handle other household responsibilities. These activities are critical to their ability to live safely and independently in their community.
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a nurse delegates a task to unlicensed assistive personnel (uap). after the uap informs the nurse that the task is complete, what is the appropriate action by the nurse?
The appropriate action by the nurse after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) informs them that the task is complete is to evaluate the task and verify that it was completed correctly.
The nurse should also provide feedback to the UAP to ensure that the task was done in an appropriate manner.
A nurse delegates a task to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and after the UAP informs the nurse that the task is complete, the appropriate action by the nurse is to check that the job is done satisfactorily.
A UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) is a type of nurse assistant who has not been approved by a state licensing body. Delegating a task to an UAP means that a nurse assigns a particular job to an unlicensed assistant, and the UAP has the authority to complete that task.The nurse must make sure that the task was carried out to completion and that there are no issues or difficulties when the UAP reports that the task is complete. The nurse must check that the job is done satisfactorily, as stated before.
However , This means that the nurse should: Ensure that the UAP has done the work, i.e., the task assigned. Make sure that the work was done to the satisfaction of the patient or other employees. Check that there are no difficulties or issues. If there are any issues or problems, the nurse should handle them immediately.
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a group of pregnant women are discussing high-risk newborn conditions as part of a prenatal class. when describing the complications that can occur in these newborns to the group, which would the nurse include as being at lowest risk?
The nurse should include low Apgar scores, premature births, low birth weight, and blood disorders as being at the lowest risk in a prenatal class when a group of pregnant women is discussing high-risk newborn conditions.
1. Low Apgar scores: The Apgar score is a measure of a newborn's health, taken shortly after birth. Low Apgar scores may indicate a health problem but are generally considered to be of the lowest risk in newborns.
2. Premature births: Premature births occur when a baby is born before 37 weeks gestation. Premature babies may have certain health risks, but many of these can be managed or avoided with proper medical care.
3. Low birth weight: Low birth weight refers to a baby that weighs less than 5 pounds 8 ounces at birth. Low birth weight is associated with certain health risks, but these risks are usually lower than those associated with more severe conditions.
4. Blood disorders: Blood disorders such as anemia, sickle cell anemia, and thalassemia are relatively uncommon in newborns. While they can be serious if present, they usually present with mild symptoms and can be managed with proper medical care.
In conclusion, the nurse should include low Apgar scores, premature births, low birth weight, and blood disorders as being at the lowest risk.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a peptic ulcer disease. the client vomits a large amount of undigested food after breakfast. which intervention will the nurse prepare to do for the client? a. insert a nasogastric (ng) tube to low intermittent suction b. administer a soap suds cleansing enema c. administer prochlorperazine (compazine) 10 mg im d. change the client's diet to clear liquids only
The nurse will prepare to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube to low intermittent suction for a client with peptic ulcer disease who vomits a large amount of undigested food after breakfast. The correct answer is a.
The medical and nursing management of patients with peptic ulcer, such as duodenal or gastric ulcers, is the focus of the nursing interventions. The nurse must be familiar with the pathophysiology of peptic ulcers, as well as the symptoms, diagnosis, and medical and nursing management.
The nurse should, therefore, do the following interventions: Administer proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and H2-receptor blockers; Stop using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs); Start a mild, low-fat, and high-protein diet; Evaluate the patient's diet for any irritants or foods that are difficult to digest; and Monitor the patient for any complications.
The most appropriate intervention for this patient is to insert an NG tube with low intermittent suction. The NG tube is used to suction gastric contents and relieve nausea and vomiting.
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the nurse is preparing to administer acyclovir intravenously to a child with varicella infection who is immunocompromised. the nurse correctly administers the medication over which time frame?
The nurse should correctly administer acyclovir intravenously to a child with varicella infection who is immuno compromised over a time frame of 60 minutes.
Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, such as shingles or genital herpes. Acyclovir is also known as acycloguanosine. It is usually used to treat infections, including cold sores.
Acyclovir works by inhibiting the multiplication of herpes viruses in the body, allowing the immune system to fight the infection.
Intravenous (IV) administration is a way of administering a medication directly into the vein. The medication enters the bloodstream directly, bypassing the digestive system. The medicines for IV are given for a specific period of time.
And so, the nurse should manage acyclovir intravenously for atleast over 60 minutes or an hour while treating a child infected with varicella infection and is immuno compromised.
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a hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is receiving high doses of prednisone. which is an appropriate nursing goal related to this?
One of the appropriate nursing goals related to a hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome receiving high doses of prednisone is maintaining fluid balance.
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by the excretion of excess protein in the urine, which results in the depletion of plasma proteins in the blood.The appropriate nursing goal related to this is: maintaining fluid balance. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication used to treat various types of nephrotic syndrome. As a result, the drug lowers inflammation and decreases the production of urine protein, resulting in reduced protein loss in the urine.
A nurse's primary goal when caring for a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome who is receiving high doses of prednisone is to ensure that the child is hydrated and maintaining a fluid balance within normal ranges. The nurse should weigh the patient every day and monitor urine output to ensure that fluid balance is maintained within normal ranges. In addition, nurses should provide oral hydration, restrict sodium intake, and administer diuretics if needed.
The nurse should also ensure that the patient is on a low-sodium diet that is high in protein and low in fat. A nurse's primary goal when caring for a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome who is receiving high doses of prednisone is to ensure that the child is hydrated and maintaining a fluid balance within normal ranges.
The nurse should weigh the patient every day and monitor urine output to ensure that fluid balance is maintained within normal ranges. In addition, nurses should provide oral hydration, restrict sodium intake, and administer diuretics if needed. The nurse should also ensure that the patient is on a low-sodium diet that is high in protein and low in fat.
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