The accumulation of extra fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lungs is known as a pleural effusion, also known as "water on the lungs." Often a sharp pain is felt during a deep breath, which is a common objective finding.
The pleura, which are tiny membranes that line the chest cavity and the lungs, help to lubricate and assist breathing. The pleura typically contains a tiny amount of fluid.
The underlying cause of the pleural effusion, whether breathing is impacted, and whether it is treatable efficiently all determine how serious the illness is.
Treatment-effective pleural effusion causes include viral infections, pneumonia, and heart failure. Therapy of related mechanical issues and treatment of the underlying cause of the pleural effusion are two things that need to be taken into account.
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which nursing action(s) reflect(s) the evaluation phase of the critical thinking process? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. quizlet
The nurse identifies that a client's pain is not being adequately treated
The nurse documents the client's response to suctioning
The nurse determines the client did not lose the expected 2 lb (0.90 kg)
What is critical thinking process ?A triage nurse evaluates the cases at hand and determines the patients' treatment priorities. A plumber determines which supplies are most appropriate for a certain task. An attorney examines the evidence and develops a plan to win the case or determine whether to reach a settlement outside of court.
You can focus more on your strengths and prevent any form of restrictive or negative beliefs by using critical thinking to help you understand yourself. The ability to communicate your ideas can improve your quality of life.Learn more about Critical thinking here:
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A diabetic patient receives daily nph insulin 15 units subcutaneously at 0730. at what time will this medication peak?
The medication will peak in 2-3 hours.
Regular insulin (a short-acting insulin) tops in 2 to 3 hours, and NPH (intermediate acting insulin) crests in 4 to 10 hours. Hypoglycemia would no doubt happen between 1000 to 1600.
Rapid Inhaled Insulin begins to function in 12 to 15 minutes, peaks in 30 minutes, and leaves your body 180 minutes later. It is combined with injectable long-acting insulin and breathed at the start of each meal.
Within 30 minutes of administration, regular or short-acting insulin normally enters the bloodstream. After injection, it reaches its peak and remains active for between three and six hours.
After administration, intermediate-acting insulin usually enters the bloodstream two to four hours later. It operates for roughly 12 to 18 hours before peaking four to twelve hours later.
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after a diagnosis of crf, the client was started on epoetin alfa. which finding indicates that the medication has been effective?
Parenterally administered epoetin alfa can be given intravenously or subcutaneously. Because it is a glycoprotein and would be broken down in the digestive system if taken orally, it cannot be administered.
Hemodialysis always results in anemia, and erythropoietin deficiency is the main culprit. An erythropoiesis-stimulating agent is used to treat patients after diagnosis (ESA). Nevertheless, despite taking this drug, some patients continue to be anemic. The goal of this study was to look at the variables that contribute to recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO) therapeutic resistance. From July 2015 to June 2016, we conducted a prospective, long-term study of hemodialysis patients receiving EPO therapy at our reference hospital. The response to EPO treatment was assessed using clinical data and the erythropoietin resistance index (ERI). The weekly weight-adjusted EPO dose (U/kg per week)/hemoglobin level (g/dL) was used to define the ERI.
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a patient presents with a burn that is white with cherry red areas. the entire affected area has a hard, dry, leathery appearance. this burn would be classified as a
This burn would be classified as a Third degree burn
What is a Third degree burn ?Burns of the third degree penetrate the fat layer beneath the dermis. The skin may have a tight, waxy, leathery, or brown appearance. Skin grafts are frequently necessary to close the wounds from these kinds of burns.
Burns of the third degree are a dangerous injury that require rapid medical attention. Full-thickness burns may not hurt, in contrast to less severe burns, which can be excruciatingly painful. This is due to the burn's potential to harm pain-sensing nerve endings in the skin. A third-degree burn victim will need to be hospitalised.Learn more about Third degree burn here:
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evaluate the national committee for quality assurance’s (ncqa) impact on health information systems scholarly
The NCQA Accreditation of Population Health Programs increases productivity and harmonizes business strategies with population health management best practices. Resources and assistance are provided to organizations seeking accreditation both during and after the examination process.
By collaborating with major employers, governments, physicians, patients, and health plans to determine what is significant, how to assess it, and how to encourage progress, NCQA has assisted in fostering consensus on critical health care quality issues.
The NCQA criteria serve as a road map for improvement; firms utilize them to conduct gap analyses and focus improvement efforts on issues like network sufficiency and consumer protection that are crucial to employers and states. Improvement and Quality Management are examples of categories.
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what kind of information does the nutrition facts label give about requirements for essential nutrients? a. the number of calories from vitamins and m
The kind of information that nutritional facts gives about is the percent of various nutrients in one serving. The correct option is C.
What is nutritional labeling?Nutrition labels are frequently displayed on the back or side of packaging as a panel or grid.
Energy (kJ/kcal), fat, saturates (saturated fat), carbohydrate, sugars, protein, and salt are all included on this type of label. It may also contain additional information about certain nutrients, such as fiber.
They assist consumers in making informed decisions about the food they purchase, in storing and using it safely, and in planning when they will consume it.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
A) the number of calories from vitamins and minerals
B) the number of servings needed for a nutritious daily diet
C) the percent of various nutrients in one serving
a mother and young child arrive at the outpatient laboratory with a physician's order for a lead test on the child. the phlebotomist decides to perform a dermal puncture (fingerstick). what step is important to perform when a test for lead is collected by finger puncture and would not be necessary if the specimen collection was to be collected by venipuncture?
Washing the patient's hands thoroughly with soap and water is a crucial step to take when a lead test is conducted using a finger puncture. This step would not be necessary if the specimen was obtained via a venipuncture.
What is the purpose of venipuncture?When blood is drawn from a vein using a needle, usually for laboratory analysis, it is a function.By eliminating surplus red blood cells from the blood, venipuncture can also be used to treat various blood disorders. also referred to as blood drawing and phlebotomy.Phlebotomy is the procedure of taking blood with a needle from a vein, usually in the arm.This important technique, sometimes referred to as a blood test or venipuncture, is used to diagnose a variety of medical conditions.The blood is typically donated to a lab for study. The most frequently used site for venipuncture is the antecubital fossa, which is located in the anterior elbow near the fold. Here are the basilic, middle cubital, and cephalic veins.When doing a lead test with a finger puncture, it is essential to properly wash the patient's hands with soap and water. If a venipuncture was used to obtain the specimen, this step wouldn't be required.To learn more about venipuncture, refer to:
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The __________ is an intradermal test performed using a sterile, disposable multiple-puncture lancet.
The tine test & Heaf test are intradermal tests performed using a sterile, disposable, multiple-puncture lancet.
What is tine test & Heaf test ?Children's exposure to tuberculosis infection has long been determined by the Heaf test, a diagnostic skin examination. The examination carries F's name. Heaf, R. G. The Heaf gun (trademarked "Sterneedle"),a spring-loaded device with six needles arranged in a circular formation, was used to administer the test, which is also known as the Sterneedle test. It was inserted into the wrist or shoulder.
A multiple-puncture tuberculin skin test called the tine test is used to help doctors diagnose tuberculosis (TB). Although the Mantoux test is more frequently employed, the tine test is comparable to the Heaf test. The old tine test (OT) and the pure protein derivative are two of the many types of tine tests that are typically divided into these two groups.Learn more about Tine test & Heaf test here:
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assessment of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision reveals tenderness over ribs 9-12 on the lateral right side. based on this injury, the emt should be alert for which additional concern?
The EMT should be on the lookout for liver damage in light of this incident.
How do you define EMT?The most prevalent EMS service providers are Emergency Medical Technicians (EMTs), also known as EMTs.
The fundamental abilities needed to assist in life-threatening situations are taught to EMTs, and many of them go on to obtain an Advanced EMT credential or become Paramedics.
What is an EMT's function?Basic Emergency Medical Technicians (EMT-B) respond to emergency calls to treat the injured and critically ill quickly and effectively while transporting the patient to a hospital.
Are EMTs and paramedics the same thing?EMTs and paramedics generally differ in their level of education and the kind of operations they are permitted to do.
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question 6. a nurse may not be reported to the bon, may not have his or her license sanctioned by the bon, and may not be suspended or terminated from his or her employment for either appropriately invoking safe harbor or for advising another nurse of their right to invoke safe harbor. these are a. criteria for determining a minor incident. b. rules that apply to rns and not lvns. c. safeguards that protect the nurse from all methods of retaliation. d. protections for a nurse who requests a peer review determination.
All of the above are: D. protections for a nurse who requests a peer review determination.
Who is a nurse?A nurse can be defined as a professional who has been trained in a medical institution and licensed to perform the following tasks and activities in a hospital:
Promoting hygienic behaviors among clients (patients).Providing care for sick people (clients).Providing care for an injured client or patient.Perform routine checks on some medical instruments.Providing an assessment and intervention to client issues.Report findings on the adverse effect of a medication.Planning discharge teaching for clients.Take note of changes in electrolyte results.Wound care and dressing change.What is BON?BON is an abbreviation for Board of Nursing and it can be defined as a licensing and regulatory body that is saddled with the responsibility of licensing qualified registered nurses to enable them practice as advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) within a defined jurisdiction.
In this context, we can reasonably and logically deduce that all of the above are protections for a nurse who requests a peer review determination.
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who is responsible for passing a medication to the surgeon for administration during the surgical procedure?
Answer:
The Scrub PERSON
Explanation:
The scrub person is responsible for Identify, accept, label, passing the medication to the surgeon for administration during the surgical procedure.
you are assessing a middle-aged unconscious man who is lying in bed. his skin is cool and clammy. his heart rate is 124 beats/min, his respiratory rate is 140 breaths/min, and his blood pressure level is 74/52 mm hg. when you established iv access, he moaned. he has not opened his eyes or moved. you examine his eyes and note they are twitching with pupils at 3 mm and equal bilaterally. what is this patient’s gcs score?
The GCS of patient who is middle aged and his heart rate is 124 beats/min, his respiratory rate is 140 breaths/min, and his blood pressure level is 74/52 mm hg is 3.
What is GCS?GCS stands for Glasgow Coma Scale. A person's ability to speak, move their body, and make eye movements are all evaluated by the GCS. The three components of the scale are motor, verbal, and eye behaviors. The GCS score for an individual can range from 3 (completely unresponsive) to 15. Following a brain injury (from a collision, for example), this score is used to direct immediate medical care. It is also used to monitor and track the level of consciousness of patients who are hospitalized. The severity is based on the scoring Eye (4), Verbal (5), and Motor (6) criteria.
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a 56-year-old man is taking otc antacids for relief of indigestion. he tells the nurse that he consumes at least one bottle a week and has done so for more than 1 month because ""it works for me."" the nurse’s main concern is that:
This self-treatment may be delaying treatment of a more serious problem.
Normally, over-the-counter medications should be used only for short-term treatment of common minor illnesses. Their use may postpone effective management of chronic disease states and may delay treatment.
What is Indigestion ?You feel discomfort in your upper abdomen when you have indigestion, also known as dyspepsia or an upset stomach. Instead of referring to a specific illness, the term "indigestion" defines a set of symptoms, such as stomach pain and a feeling of fullness shortly after eating. Additionally, indigestion may be a sign of a number of digestive disorders.
Consuming excessive amounts of alcohol or coffee is the usual culprit for indigestion. eating too quickly or in excess. eating foods that are fatty, hot, or acidic.Dyspepsia, a pain or discomfort in the upper belly, and burning pain behind the breastbone are two symptoms of indigestion (heartburn).Learn more about Indigestion here:
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When cameron was born, he was blue from head to toe as a result of having his umbilical cord wrapped around his neck. this severe restriction of oxygen to his body is called?
Codes from category _______ are vague and should only be used if the location of a burn(s) is not documented.
Burns in Category T30 are extremely vague and should be used only in cases when it is in an unspecified region and has corrosion.
Burn is an injury caused due to heat or flame exposure. The ICD 10 code classifies burns into different degrees. These degrees are measured according to the tissue injury or death and depth of the burn due to heat, electricity, flame, chemical, radiation, etc.
First degree burns are limited to damage caused to the outer layer of the epidermis along with increased tenderness and erythema. Second degree burns can lead to superficial or deep partial-thickness injury to the dermis which is prone to infection and may result in hypertrophic scarring. Third degree burns lead to dermal barrier loss and the necrotic tissue results in systematic effect on capillaries away from the site and fluid volume loss.
ICD 10 code for burn of unspecified body region, unspecified degree is category T30. Since it is very vague, it should be rarely used and only when necessary.
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mateen fj, monrad pa, leep hunderfund an, robertson ce, sorenson ej. clinically suspected fibrocartilaginous embolism: clinical characteristics, treatments, and outcomes. eur j neurol. 2011 feb;18(2):218-225
Clinically suspected fibrocartilaginous embolism:
objective: Studying patients with an antemortem diagnosis of fibrocartilaginous embolism (FCE), a rare cause of spinal cord and cerebral infarction because of the alleged embolization of nucleus pulposus material into the vascular circulation, will allow us to better understand the frequency, demographics, clinical traits, and outcomes of these patients.
methods: We looked back on the institutional experiences of patients who were given an antemortem diagnosis of FCE at the Mayo Clinic (Rochester, Minnesota, USA) between 1997 and 2009. All patients underwent clinical, radiological, and laboratory elimination of additional potential diagnosis.
results: Nine patients (5.5%; 95% CI 2.5, 10.2%) out of 164 patients with acute spinal cord infarction seen during the study period met the inclusion criteria for a high risk of FCE (6 men, 3 women; median age 46 years old, range 21-64). Each patient had a serious condition (median modified Rankin Scale 4, median Barthel index 45; mean time to evaluation 57 days). Only one patient out of nine (1/9) had concurrent cerebral infarction. The use of steroids showed no discernible positive effects on any patients.
conclusion: At this referral facility, the diagnosis of FCE in life accounts for 5.5% of all cases of acute spinal cord infarction observed. We suggest clinical criteria for FCE in life despite the fact that it is a postmortem diagnosis in order to more accurately describe the relatively high proportion of patients with unexplained ischemic myelopathy.
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Which is remittance advice submitted by medicare to providers that includes payment information about a claim?
Provider Remittance Notice (PRN) is the remittance advice submitted by medicare to providers that includes payment information about a claim.
PRN is generally the remittance advice by Medicare so as to submit providers which includes payment information about a particular claim.
A remittance is considered an explanation of a payment for more than one claim sent by a particular payer to a provider. The InstaMed type of remittance solution is concerned with the delivery of electronic remittance advice which is also from payers to providers.
The Remittance Advice comprises information about some claim payments that the Medicare Administrative Contractors make submitting along with the payments to physicians, providers, and also to suppliers.
In cases of claims taking place in healthcare, a remittance notice usually refers to a particular process where the insurance providers sent back the payment to the respective hospital.
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which is considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic disorder?
The option that is considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic disorder is option B. The client will list three potential adaptive coping strategies to deal with stress by day 2.
What is the somatic disorder about?In regards to the disorder case, the nurse need to know that the proper outcome for a client that has ]somatic symptom disorder is that be the client need to list at most three likely adaptive coping strategies to handle with stress as at day 2.
Note that this is due to the fac that the symptoms of somatic symptom disorder are linked with psychosocial distress, and as such The option that is considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic disorder is option B. The client will list three potential adaptive coping strategies to deal with stress by day 2.
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See full question below
3. Which would be considered an appropriate outcome when planning care for an inpatient client diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder?
A. The client will admit to fabricating physical symptoms to gain benefits by day 3.
B. The client will list three potential adaptive coping strategies to deal with stress by day 2.
C. The client will comply with medical treatments for physical symptoms by day 3.
D. The client will openly discuss physical symptoms with staff by day 4.
Data pertaining to medication orders and prescription refills would be found within which type of clinical information system?
Data pertaining to medication orders and prescription refills would be found within an EMR system, which is a type of clinical information system.
Electronic medical records, or EMRs, are paper charts that have been digitized and contain information such as diagnoses, allergies, medical histories, immunization dates, lab findings, prescriptions, and doctor's notes.
EMR systems are capable of handling every task, including logging patient information, setting up appointments, writing medicines, and checking insurances. The deployment of an electronic medical records system can worry you.The productivity and efficiency of your facilities, however, can soar to new heights with it. By using these services, you can also receive financial rewards. EMR systems assist in securely storing patient medical data.
You can use it to capture notes made during patient consultations. Documents and photographs can be scanned and uploaded, as well as data from EKGs and dictation recordings. It would be difficult to organize tons of data and get a full picture of patients' health without a data input system.To know more about EMR go to https://brainly.com/question/14702704
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a nurse at an ophthalmology clinic is providing teaching to a client who has open-angle glaucoma and a new treatment regimen of timolol and pilocarpine eye drops. which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
The instructions that the nurse should provide is I'll be glad when I can stop taking this medication.
Who are Ophthalmologists?Ophthalmologists are medical professionals who treat patients with eye problems. Using their medical and surgical skills, they can identify, treat, and prevent diseases of the eyes and visual system.
Ophthalmology is a fascinating surgical field that includes a variety of subspecialties, such as pediatric ophthalmology and strabismus, glaucoma, neuro-ophthalmology, retina/uveitis, anterior segment/cornea, oculoplastics/orbit, and ocular oncology.
They will check your retina and optic nerve as well as look for any early indications of eye conditions like cataracts or glaucoma. Ophthalmologists identify and treat diseases, infections, and conditions affecting the eyes.
In this case, the ophthalmology clinic is providing teaching to a client who has open-angle glaucoma and a new treatment regimen of timolol and pilocarpine eye drops. It's important to stop the self medication.
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A nurse at an ophthalmology clinic is providing teaching to a client who has open-angle glaucoma and a new treatment regimen of timolol and pilocarpine eye drops. which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Continue the mediation.
Buy a glass.
I'll be glad when I can stop taking this medication.
C) administer the medication five minutes apart is the instruction should the nurse provide
If the client has to take more than one ophthalmic drug, the nurse should advise them to do so five minutes apart. Due to excessively high pressure inside the eye, glaucoma is an eye condition that damages the optic nerve. Untreated, this illness has the potential to cause irreversible eyesight loss.
Timolol and Pilocarpine are two medications that are combined to create Timolol + Pilocarpine. Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist, while timolol is a beta blocker. They function by reducing the generation of aqueous humour, which lowers the elevated ocular pressure.
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Question correction:
A nurse is at an ophthalmology clinic is providing teaching to a client who has an open angle glaucoma and a new treatment regimen of Timolol and pilocarpine eye drops. Which of the following instruction should the nurse provide?
A) administer the medication by touching the tip of the dropper to the square of the I
B) hold pressure on the conjunctiva sac for two minutes following the application drop
C) administer the medication five minutes apart
D) it is not necessary to remove contact lenses before administering
which approach would the nurse take for an older client who is confused, does not recognize family members, and ofter soils clothing
A patient and careful approach should be adopted while handling an older client who is confused. The nurse should behave empathetically and gently with such clients.
Here are 15 suggestions for working and communicating with patients who are intellectually disabled.
Even if the patient's cognitive abilities are impaired, try to speak to them directly.captivate the person's interest. Maintain eye contact with the person by sitting in front of them at eye level.Speaking clearly and naturally is important. Avoid the need to speak loudly.Help the patient get settled. Describe (or reiterate) who you are and what you plan to do.If at all possible, meet in the patient's familiar setting. A family member or other familiar face can be present at first.Help and reassurance for the patient When a response is accurate, acknowledge it.Help the patient gently if they groan for a word.Learn more about nursing here:
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in reviewing the patient list you see two patients with similar names and dates of birth. as you investigate these records, you verify that they are the same patient. what is your next step?
The next step in this case which i will take is that remove the one name and record which is twice registered.
Who is responsible for the safety of the patient?
Patient's safety is the most important factor and matter of concern for the hospital management as well as nurse too. This consist of procedure that accumulate data and store the data and provide proper management and after that transmit electronic medical record of the patient.
Patient is already in critical situation where he needs help and medication and he is totally depend upon others for the basic routine activities. In such case if the patient stucks in danger than it is the duty of management of hospital to ensure the safety of the patient.
Therefore, the next step in this case which i will take is that remove the one name and record which is twice registered.
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strathdee sa, patrick dm, currie sl, et al. needle exchange is not enough: lessons from the vancouver injecting drug use study. aids1997; 11: f59–f6
To describe prevalence and incidence of HIV-1, hepatitis C virus (HCV) and risk behaviours in a prospective cohort of injecting drugs users (IDU).
What is the result of above study ?Out of 1006 IDU, 65% were male, Caucasian (65%), or Native American (27%). HIV-1 and HCV prevalence rates were 23 and 88%, respectively. The majority (92%) had participated in Vancouver's NEP, which accounted for 78% of all syringes. IDUs who are known to be HIV-positive and HIV-negative both reported lending used syringes in equal amounts (40%) 39% of IDUs with HIV-negative status borrowed used needles in the six months before. HIV-positive IDU were more likely to often inject cocaine (72 versus 62%; P 0.001) than HIV-negative IDU. Low education, unstable housing, commercial sex, borrowing needles, being an established IDU, injecting with others, and frequent NEP attendance were independent predictors of HIV-positive serostatus. HIV incidence was estimated to be 18.6 per 100 person-years based on 24 seroconversions among 257 follow-up visits (95% confidence interval).
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the rda are the amount of nutrients and food components that will meet the needs of about % of the healthy population.
The RDA is the figure that should be used to direct people toward achieving an adequate nutritional consumption. RDAs are given separately for different life stage groups and, if relevant, by gender; they are meant to be applied to healthy people.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the level of average daily dietary consumption that is adequate to satisfy the nutrient needs of 97 to 98 percent of healthy persons in a population.
Vitamins and minerals found in diet and daily supplements must meet RDAs. These recommendations are meant to help you understand how much of a certain nutrient your body requires each day. To ensure that your body receives all the nutrients it needs to function, it is crucial to adhere to your daily suggested dietary requirements.Learn more about RDA here:
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murphy pa, fullerton j. outcomes of intended home births in nurse-midwifery practice: a prospective descriptive study. obstet gynecol 1998; 92:461-470
Under the supervision of skilled professionals and within a framework that permits transfer to hospital care when necessary, home birth can be achieved with positive results. The majority of intrapartal deaths during planned home births occur in postdates pregnancies that include meconium passage signs.
What is the result of this study ?Of the 1404 enrolled women who planned to give birth at home, 6% either had miscarriages, had abortions, or modified their intentions. 7.4% of pregnancies were referred to a planned hospital delivery because they were no longer eligible for home births before the commencement of labour at term due to the emergence of perinatal issues. 102 (8.3%) of the women who started labour intending to give birth at home were hospitalised during labour.
For women actually delivering at home, intrapartal fetal and neonatal mortality was 1.8 per 1000.Learn more about Home birth here:
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the principle of states that a period of rest between exercise training sessions is critical for maximal improvement in physical fitness.
Progression principle states that the body required recovery periods between exercise training sessions in order to adapt to the exercise stress.
What is Progression principle?The principle of progression states that as your body adapts to your exercise routine, you have to change it up. This can mean gradually increasing the weight, duration, or intensity of your weight training in order to see growth.
Why Progression principle is required/important?For example, the trainee will notice that the same sets and reps are no longer difficult to complete as the body adapts to the current resistance training program. The trainer can pull several factors to increase the demand on the muscles, such as increasing repetitions, intensity, timing, distance, or introducing a variety of movements. Increased resistance training load is one of the most common and effective ways to challenge the trainee and avoid plateau.
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according to education law, article 130, section 6502, to practice in this state, all registered professional nurses, nurse practitioners, and licensed practical nurses must register with the new york state:
According to Education Law, Article 130, area 6502, a license shall be legitimate at some stage in the existence of the holder except the: Board of Regents revokes, annuls, or suspends the license.
Education Department files charges against the licensee. licensee strikes without perfect notification.
What is the reason of the Nurse Practice Act in New York State?The state's responsibility to guard those who receive nursing care is the foundation for a nursing license. Safe, ready nursing practice is grounded in the regulation as written in the nation nurse practice act (NPA) and the nation rules/regulations. Together the NPA and rules/regulations information and govern nursing practice.
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https://brainly.com/question/28525209#SPJ423 year old g1p0 woman at 38 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with a one day history of lower abdominal pain and mild nausea
Answer:
Appendicitis
Explanation:
the reason for this is because the appendix is located in the lower abdominal region near where the pain is being felt.
a nurse-manager is participating in a hospital’s quality control efforts and is collating data sources. what data source should the manager identify as a qualitative source?
The data source that the nurse manager should identify as a qualitative source is the results of the interviews derived with discharged clients.
What is qualitative source data?The expression qualitative source data makes reference to all information that does not involve continuous values but instead, it falls into categories (i.e. qualities or characteristics).
In conclusion, the data source that the nurse manager should identify as a qualitative source is the results of the interviews derived with discharged clients.
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a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation. which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside?
Manual resuscitation bag is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside.
Airflow from the lungs is restricted due to a chronic inflammatory lung disease known as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Signs and symptoms include wheezing, coughing, mucus (phlegm), and difficulty breathing. It is commonly caused by prolonged exposure to irritating gases or particles, most commonly cigarette smoke. People with COPD are more likely to develop heart disease, lung cancer, and many other ailments. The two most common diseases that cause COPD are emphysema and chronic bronchitis. The severity of these two conditions can vary between COPD patients and usually coexist. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation of the lining of the bronchi, which carry air to and from the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs. Daily cough and phlegm are characteristic symptoms (sputum).Therefore, manual resuscitation bag must be kept at the patient's bedside.
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