“Find the trig function and simplify if you can”

Answer:

If the diameter or radius of one circle is the same as another circle they are congruent.

Answer:

Tommy bought 6 boxes

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract 35 from 191, and you get 156. 156 divided by 26 = 6. so 6 boxes

Answer:

48 ounces

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

64 ounces.

Step-by-step explanation:

combined weigh = weight of cat 1 + weight of cat 2

combined weigh = 17 + 12 = 29 pounds

The difference in weight of the Dog's weigh by the combined cat's weigh is the subtraction between the two, so we have:

Difference in weigh = 33 - 29 = 4 pounds

We now have to convert it to ounces, since 1 pound contains 16 ounces we can multiply the value of the weigh in pounds by 16 to obtain the final value:

Difference in weigh = (4 pounds)* 16 = 64 ounces

Answer:

it's 47 degree answer of your question

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

one side is four the other is four 4x4 is 16

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

Since its 1/2 cm per cube, each side is 4 cubes, 4x1/2 = 2. 2x2x2 = 8

Answer:

D. All of the above

Step-by-step explanation:

All of those would reach higher than 300 when you go 4 to the right.

Answer:

B ; C ; D

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of faces on a number cube = 6

Sample space = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)

P(1 then 0)

P(1) = 1/6 ; P(0) = 0

P(1 then 0) = 1/6 * 0 = 0

P(even number then odd number) :

P(even number) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(odd) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(even number then odd number) = 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4

P(6 then 2) :

P(6) = 1/6 ; P(2) = 1/6 = 1/2

P(6 then 2) = 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36

P(even number then 5) :

P(even) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(5) = 1/6

P(even number then 5) = 1/2 * 1/6 = 1/12

P(odd number then 2) :

P(odd) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(2) = 1/6

P(odd number then 2) = 1/2 * 1/6 = 1/12

Given:

There are 3 cards, a 5 a 6 and a 7.

You pick a card at random. Without putting the first card back, you pick a second card at random.

To find:

The probability of picking a 5 and then picking a 6.

Solution:

We have,

Total number of cards = 3

Number of card of 5 = 1

So, probability of getting a card of 5 is:

[tex]P(5)=\dfrac{\text{Number of card of 5}}{\text{Total number of cards}}[/tex]

[tex]P(5)=\dfrac{1}{3}[/tex]

After this selection, the remaining number of cards is 2. So, probability of getting a card of 6 in second draw is:

[tex]P(6)=\dfrac{\text{Number of card of 6}}{\text{Total number of remaining cards}}[/tex]

[tex]P(6)=\dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

Now, the probability of picking a 5 and then picking a 6 is

[tex]P(\text{5 then 6})=P(5)\times P(6)[/tex]

[tex]P(\text{5 then 6})=\dfrac{1}{3}\times \dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]P(\text{5 then 6})=\dfrac{1}{6}[/tex]

Therefore, the probability of picking a 5 and then picking a 6 is [tex]\dfrac{1}{6}[/tex].

Answer: it’s 24

Step-by-step explanation: I need brainliest for next rank I’d appreciate it

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I believe it is D

Step-by-step explanation:

We can first multiply the 2 and 4 together to get 8.

Wow we already eliminated A.

When you have negative powers, you can just replace it with their inverse and turn the power positive.

For example, 2 to the power of -3  (2 ^ -3) can be replaced by 1/2 to the power of 3 (1/2^-3).

So we now have 8  (x^4 / yx^2

We can then just subtract the x's power of 2, because when dividing exponents with the same variable or base, we can just subtract them.

For example, x^5  divided by x ^ 2 has the same base/ variable of x, and you can subtract the 5 by 2 to get x^3.

So we have 8 ( x^2y)

So 8x^2 y

D.

Penny's Pickles divide their company into 10,000 shares of stock. If you buy 200 of these shares then you will have  [tex]2\[/tex]  percent of Penny's Pickles.

Percentage a is a number or ratio expressed as a fraction of 100. It is often denoted using the percent sign, [tex]\%[/tex].

Percentage [tex]=\frac{ You\ owned}{Total \ share} * 100[/tex]

We have,

Total shares of Penny's Pickles [tex]=10,000[/tex]

You owned shares   [tex]= 200[/tex]

So,

Using above formula,

Percentage [tex]=\frac{ You\ owned}{Total \ share} * 100[/tex]

Percentage of shares I owned [tex]=\frac{200}{10000} * 100[/tex]

                                                    [tex]= 2 \%[/tex]

So, the shares you owned are [tex]2\ \%[/tex] of total share of the Penny's Pickles.

Hence, we can say that Penny's Pickles divide their company into 10,000 shares of stock. If you buy 200 of these shares then you will have  [tex]2\[/tex]  percent of Penny's Pickles.

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Answer:

Prolly faster than the flash

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

Answer:

D. x = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Graph the line using the slope and y-intercept, or two points.

Slope: Undefined

y-intercept: No y-intercept

x

y

3

0

3

1

Answer:

The sum is 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: 2 1/2 + 2 1/2 + 2 1/2 + 2 1/2

Rewrite: 4(2 1/2)

Make fraction improper: 4(5/2)

Distribute: 20/2

Simplify: 10

Answer:

1539 ft^3

Step-by-step explanation:

3.5×3.5=12.25

12.25×3.14=38.465

38.465×40=1,538.6

1538.6 rounded to the nearest whole number is 1539.

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

7 * 6 = 42

Hope this helps!

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

6 x 7 =42

Hope this helps! Please mark brainiest!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

P=3/6 ×5/26=5/52

2.for Corner

P=3/6×5/26=5/52

3. for Cecilia

P=2/6×5/26=5/78

length = 3 + width

perimeter = 34

34 ÷ 2 = 17

width = x

3 +x + x = 17

3 + 2x = 17

2x = 14

x = 7

width = 7

Answer:

-3x^2+16x+64

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you need to find the area of both areas (the total area and the area of the unshaded part). Let's find the total area.

(x+8)(x+8)=x^2+16x+64

The total area is x^2+16x+64

(2x)(2x)=4x^2

The area of the unshaded part is 4x^2

Now we have to subtract to find the area of the shaded part.

x^2+16x+64-4x^2

-3x^2+16x+64

That is the answer

Hope this helped!! :D

Answer:

Maria will have enough money to buy the bike in 13 weeks.

Step-by-step explanation:

w = weeks

42 + 7w = 133

take away 42 frim each side

7w = 91

divide each side by 7

w = 13

Answer:

63.5, 66.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Approximately 68% of Camden's finishing times fall within the interval from 63.5 seconds to 66.5 seconds.

The empirical rule states that for a normal distribution, approximately 68% of the data lies within one standard deviation of the mean, approximately 95% of the data lies within two standard deviations of the mean, and approximately 99.7% of the data lies within three standard deviations of the mean.

Since we want to find the interval that represents the middle 68% of Camden's finishing times, we need to find the range of times that are one standard deviation above and below the mean.

The mean of Camden's finishing times is 65 seconds, and the standard deviation is 1.5 seconds, so the interval that represents the middle 68% of his finishing times is:

[65 - 1.5, 65 + 1.5] = [63.5, 66.5] seconds

This means that approximately 68% of Camden's finishing times fall within the interval from 63.5 seconds to 66.5 seconds.

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Answer:

x = 1, y = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

x - y = -2

2x + y = 5

First, add y on both sides for the first equation.

x = y - 2

Then, plug in x into the second equation.

2(y -2) + y = 5

2y - 4 + y = 5

3y = 9

y = 3.

Next, now that you've found y, plug it into either the first or second equation to solve for x. I'll be using the second equation.

2x + 3 = 5

2x = 2

x = 1.

Ans: x = 1, y = 3

Answer:1.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4) 2xy(x^2-2x-8)  2xy(x-4) (x+2)

5) 3(x^2-9x-10   3(x+1) (x-10)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$5047

Step-by-step explanation:

im smart

deltamath gang

it's good to write it out

length = 5 + width

area = 150

width = x

length = 5 + x

area = length * width

so

(5 + x) (x) = 150

5x + x^2 = 150

x^2 + 5x - 150 = 0

following you have to guess what 2 numbers when multiplied male 150 and when added make 5

and they are 15 and 10

(x +15) (x-10)

x = -15

x = 10

so the dimensions are

length = 15

and

width = 10