Consider a bond that has duration equal to 6 years, coupon rate 4.5%, yield to maturity 3.7% and convexity of 49. Determine the estimated relative change in bond price if interest rates increase by 0.8 percentage points.

The expected rate of return for Stock B is 19.3%. The standard deviation of expected returns for Stock A is 5.56%. The coefficient of variation for Stock B is 0.8497. The Sharpe ratio for Stock A is 1.5791 and the Sharpe ratio for Stock B is 0.9328.

To calculate the expected rate of return for Stock B, we need to multiply the probability of each return by the return itself, and then sum up the results:

Expected return of Stock B = (0.1 x 22%) + (0.5 x 21%) + (0.1 x 29%) + (0.1 x 37%) = 2.2% + 10.5% + 2.9% + 3.7% = 19.3%

To calculate the standard deviation of expected returns for Stock A, we need to first calculate the variance. We can do this by using the formula:

Variance = Σ (Pi * (Ri - E(R))^2)

Where Pi is the probability of return Ri, and E(R) is the expected rate of return. Then we take the square root of the variance to get the standard deviation.

Expected return of Stock A = (0.1 x 9%) + (0.2 x 4%) + (0.5 x 13%) + (0.1 x 20%) + (0.1 x 29%) = 0.9% + 0.8% + 6.5% + 2.0% + 2.9% = 13.1%

Variance of Stock A = (0.1 x (9% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.2 x (4% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.5 x (13% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.1 x (20% - 13.1%)^2) + (0.1 x (29% - 13.1%)^2) = 30.87

Standard deviation of Stock A = sqrt(Variance) = sqrt(30.87) = 5.56%

To calculate the coefficient of variation for Stock B, we need to divide the standard deviation by the expected rate of return:

Coefficient of variation of Stock B = σB / E(R) = 16.37% / 19.3% = 0.8497

The Sharpe ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted return, and is calculated by dividing the excess return of an asset over the risk-free rate by its standard deviation:

Sharpe ratio of Stock A = (13.1% - 3.5%) / 5.56% = 1.5791

Sharpe ratio of Stock B = (19.3% - 3.5%) / 16.37% = 0.9328

For more such questions on rate of return, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/1789817

#SPJ11

The penalty that the Michigan Department of Licensing and Regulatory Affairs (LARA) would NOT impose for a violation of the Occupational Code is imprisonment. LARA is responsible for enforcing the Occupational Code and ensuring that licensed professionals in Michigan comply with the regulations.

In case of a violation, LARA may impose various penalties such as censure, revocation, or suspension of a professional license. These penalties are meant to ensure public safety and maintain the integrity of the profession. Censure is a formal reprimand, expressing disapproval of a professional's actions.

Revocation refers to the permanent withdrawal of a professional's license, and suspension involves temporarily prohibiting a professional from practicing their occupation. Imprisonment, however, is not a penalty that LARA can impose.

Imprisonment is a criminal sanction, and only courts can sentence an individual to serve time in jail or prison as a result of a criminal conviction. If a violation of the Occupational Code involves criminal activity, the matter would be referred to law enforcement and the judicial system, where a judge may impose imprisonment if the individual is found guilty.

To summarize, LARA may impose penalties such as censure, revocation, and suspension for violations of the Occupational Code, but it does not have the authority to impose imprisonment.

To know more about Occupational Code refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30061771#

#SPJ11

The given statement is false because assigning all overhead expenses to a single cost pool with one cost driver can lead to inaccurate cost allocation and poor decision-making.

This method assumes that all overhead costs are driven by a single factor, which may not be the case. For example, assigning all overhead costs to a single cost pool based on direct labor hours may not accurately reflect the true cost drivers of the organization.

Activity-based costing (ABC) is a more accurate method of cost allocation for large organizations. ABC uses multiple cost pools with appropriate cost drivers that accurately reflect the activities that drive the costs. By using multiple cost pools and appropriate cost drivers, organizations can make better decisions regarding pricing, product mix, and process improvements.

ABC provides a more accurate picture of the cost structure of a large organization and allows costs to be assigned to specific activities, providing a more accurate understanding of the true cost of producing a product or service.

Learn more about overhead expenses https://brainly.com/question/30429121

#SPJ11

Project L's IRR is 12.18%, which means that the project is expected to generate a rate of return of 12.18% per year.

To solve this problem, we can use the IRR (internal rate of return) formula. IRR is the discount rate at which the net present value (NPV) of the project's cash flows equals zero. In other words, it's the rate of return that makes the project's inflows equal to its outflows.

We can calculate the NPV of the project's cash flows using the formula:

[tex]NPV = -Initial Outlay + (Cash Inflow / (1+WACC)^t)[/tex]

where t is the time period (in years) and WACC is the weighted average cost of capital.

Using this formula, we can calculate the NPV of Project L as follows:

[tex]NPV = -$57,975 + ($11,000 / (1+0.09)^1) + ($11,000 / (1+0.09)^2) + ... + ($11,000 / (1+0.09)^9)\\NPV = -$57,975 + $7,384.08 + $6,776.47 + ... + $2,667.10\\NPV = $2,429.48[/tex]

Now, we can use the IRR formula to find the rate of return that makes the NPV equal to zero:

[tex]0 = -$57,975 + ($11,000 / (1+IRR)^1) + ($11,000 / (1+IRR)^2) + ... + ($11,000 / (1+IRR)^9)[/tex]

Using a financial calculator or Excel, we can solve for IRR and find that it is approximately 12.18%. Therefore, the project's IRR is 12.18%.

In conclusion, Project L's IRR is 12.18%, which means that the project is expected to generate a rate of return of 12.18% per year. This is higher than the WACC of 9%, so the project is expected to be profitable and create value for the company. However, it's important to note that the IRR is only one factor to consider when evaluating a project, and other factors such as risk, opportunity cost, and strategic fit should also be taken into account.

For more about rate of return:

https://brainly.com/question/24232401

#SPJ11

Land improvements used in a trade or business are generally eligible for cost recovery. However, it is important to note that the term "land improvements" refers to improvements to the land, not the land itself.

Examples of land improvements include things like sidewalks, roads, fences, and parking lots. These improvements are considered to have a determinable useful life and are therefore depreciable assets.

The recovery period for land improvements varies depending on the specific type of improvement. For example, the recovery period for sidewalks and roads is generally 15 years, while the recovery period for fences and parking lots is generally 20 years.

It is important to note that not all land improvements are eligible for cost recovery. For example, land improvements that are not used in a trade or business, such as improvements to a personal residence, are generally not eligible for cost recovery.

Learn more about “ Land improvements “ visit here;

https://brainly.com/question/19338928

#SPJ4

To prepare a detailed analysis of a company's capital structure (short-term and long-term), several ratios can be used including the debt-to-equity ratio.

Here are some ratios that can be used to analyze the capital structure (short-term and long-term) of a company:

These ratios can be used to assess the financial health of a company's capital structure and help determine if it is too heavily reliant on debt financing, which can be risky if the company experiences financial difficulties.

Learn more about Ratios: brainly.com/question/12024093

#SPJ11

The rate of return on this planned investment is most nearly 10.36%. The correct answer is b.

To calculate the rate of return on this investment, we need to use the formula for net present value (NPV). NPV takes into account the initial cost of the investment and the expected cash inflows over a period of time, discounted to their present value.

Using the given information, we can calculate the NPV as follows:

NPV = [tex]-8000 + (2000/1.12) + (2000/1.12^2) + (2000/1.12^3) + (2000/1.12^4) + (2000/1.12^5)[/tex]

NPV =[tex]-8000 + 1782.14 + 1587.54 + 1415.25 + 1263.55 + 1129.73[/tex]
NPV =[tex]$1248.21[/tex]

Since the NPV is positive, the investment is expected to earn a positive return. To calculate the rate of return, we can use the internal rate of return (IRR) function in Excel or a financial calculator. The IRR for this investment is 10.36%, which is option b.

Therefore, the correct answer is b. 10.36%.

To know more about planned investment, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30044289#

#SPJ11

Within the finance function of a large corporation, the executive who is responsible for the preparation of financial statements is typically the CFO (Chief Financial Officer). The Treasurer is responsible for managing the company's cash and investments, while the Controller oversees the accounting and financial reporting functions.

The Internal Auditor conducts audits to ensure compliance with regulations and internal policies. However, the CFO is ultimately responsible for the accuracy and completeness of the company's financial statements and must ensure that they are prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
Hi! In a large corporation within the finance function, the executive who is responsible for the preparation of financial statements is the Chief Financial Officer (CFO). The CFO oversees the entire finance department, ensuring accurate financial reporting and management of the company's financial resources.

For more such questions on finance

https://brainly.com/question/989344

#SPJ11

If a risk has a high frequency of occurrence and a high severity, the best course of action would be to reduce the risk. Option (C) - Reduce the risk is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Risk reduction involves taking proactive measures to minimize the likelihood of a risk occurring or to mitigate its impact. This could include implementing safety procedures, improving training, using protective equipment, or introducing redundancy to critical systems. By reducing the risk, you can decrease the frequency and severity of the potential loss.

Transferring the risk (Option A) involves shifting the responsibility for the risk to another party, such as an insurance company or a contractor, and may not be practical in all situations.

Retaining the risk (Option B) could be acceptable if the consequences of the risk are minor, but in this scenario, the severity of the risk is high, making retention a less desirable option. Avoiding the risk (Option D) is not always possible or practical, especially if the risk is an integral part of a project or business operation.

Therefore, reducing the risk (Option C) is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to decrease the likelihood and impact of the risk.

To know more about risk refer to-

https://brainly.com/question/30618006

#SPJ11

Reduced risk would be the optimal course of action if a risk had a high frequency of occurrence and high severity.In this case, reducing the risk is the best course of action. The correct answer is C) Reduce the risk.

Risk reduction entails taking proactive steps to lessen the possibility of a risk happening or to lessen its effects. This can entail putting safety procedures into place, upgrading training, employing safety gear, or adding redundancy to crucial systems.

The frequency and magnitude of the potential loss. entails assigning the risk to a different entity, such as an insurance provider or a contractor, and may not be feasible in all circumstances. In this case, the severity of the risk is considerable, making retention a less desired alternative. Retaining the risk might be acceptable if the repercussions of the risk are low. Avoiding the risk isn't always feasible or possible,particularly if it's a necessary component of a project or commercial activity. Therefore, in this scenario, is the best course of action since it enables preemptive steps to be done to lessen the risk's likelihood and impact.

To know more about Risk visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31513442

#SPJ4

71.82% of the company's capital structure is debt and the remaining 28.18% is common equity.

Hook Industries's capital structure consists solely of debt and common equity. The company can issue debt at 12%, its common stock pays a dividend of $1.75 per share and the stock's price is currently $22.25. Its dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5% per year, its tax rate is 25%, and its WACC is 14.65%.

The weight of debt in the company's capital structure is determined by calculating the debt component of the company's WACC. To do this, the company's cost of debt and its tax rate are multiplied together and then divided by the company's WACC. This calculation yields a debt component of 0.7182 or 71.82%. This means that 71.82% of the company's capital structure is debt and the remaining 28.18% is common equity.

Know more about WACC here

https://brainly.com/question/14223809#

#SPJ11

One method used to treat customers individually in e-commerce is personalized recommendations. This involves analyzing a customer's browsing and purchasing history to suggest products or services that are tailored to their specific interests and needs.

Another method is targeted marketing, where ads and promotions are delivered to customers based on their demographic data and online behavior. This approach allows businesses to reach potential customers who are most likely to be interested in their products or services. Finally, customer service chatbots and personalized emails can provide a more individualized experience for customers by addressing their specific questions and concerns. These methods are significant to e-commerce because they help businesses build stronger relationships with customers, leading to increased loyalty and repeat business. By delivering a more personalized experience, e-commerce businesses can also differentiate themselves from competitors and ultimately drive sales.

Ecommerce is a method of buying and selling goods and services online. The definition of ecommerce business can also include tactics like affiliate marketing. You can use ecommerce channels such as your own website, an established selling website like Amazon, or social media to drive online sales.

to know more about e-commerce refer here

https://brainly.com/question/31073911#

#SPJ11

The yield on a 1-year T-bill is 5.3%, the yield on a 5-year T-bond is 11.05%, and the yield on a 5-year corporate bond is 13.05%. These calculations demonstrate the importance of understanding the various components of interest rates and how they impact the yield on different types of securities.

a. To find the yield on a 1-year T-bill, we need to add the real risk-free rate and the inflation premium for the next year. Thus, the yield on a 1-year T-bill is:

Yield = real risk-free rate + inflation premium

Yield = 3% + 2.3% = 5.3%

b. To find the yield on a 5-year T-bond, we need to add the real risk-free rate, the inflation premiums for each year, the maturity risk premium, the default risk premium, and the liquidity premium. Thus, the yield on a 5-year T-bond is:

Yield = real risk-free rate + average inflation premium + maturity risk premium + default risk premium + liquidity premium

Yield = 3% + (2.3% + 3.3% + 4.3% + 5.3%)/4 + 0.1*(5-1)% + 1% + 0.5%

Yield = 11.05%

c. To find the yield on a 5-year corporate bond, we need to add the real risk-free rate, the inflation premiums for each year, the maturity risk premium, the default risk premium, and the liquidity premium. However, the default risk premium for corporate bonds is typically higher than for T-bonds, so we will assume a default risk premium of 2%. Thus, the yield on a 5-year corporate bond is:

Yield = real risk-free rate + average inflation premium + maturity risk premium + default risk premium + liquidity premium

Yield = 3% + (2.3% + 3.3% + 4.3% + 5.3%)/4 + 0.1*(5-1)% + 2% + 0.5%

Yield = 13.05%

for more such questions on demonstrate

https://brainly.com/question/24553900

#SPJ11

The place that the firm's offering occupies in the mind of the consumer; the sum of all that the consumer thinks and fells about a product, is known as Positioning.

The notion of positioning is distinct from the idea of brand awareness and relates to the position that a brand has in the minds of the consumers as well as how it is set apart from the products of the rivals. Companies may stress a brand's distinctive qualities (what it is, what it does, how it works, etc.) in order to position their goods or they may aim to project the right image through the use of the marketing mix.

It can be challenging to change a brand's positioning once it has established a strong position. Brands must be able to interact with consumers in a genuine way in order to position their products successfully and leave a positive brand recall. Developing a brand persona frequently facilitates this kind of connection.

Learn more about Brand here:

https://brainly.com/question/29383091

#SPJ4

In politics, authenticity is essential because it fosters credibility and trust. Voters are swayed by politicians who exhibit responsibility, openness, security, honesty, and humility.

Authenticity is important in politics because it builds credibility and trust with the electorate. Sincere politicians take ownership of their decisions and actions as a sign of accountability. Their humanness and capacity to relate to voters on a personal level are demonstrated by their vulnerability.

While security suggests that a politician has a feeling of stability and continuity, integrity informs voters that a politician is trustworthy and honest. Humble politicians can acknowledge their errors and grow from them. Therefore, politicians that see its significance in developing connections with the people and winning their confidence employ authenticity.

Learn more about security:

https://brainly.com/question/31366127

#SPJ4

To minimize the likelihood of a global financial crisis, several types of regulations should be considered for adoption. First, implementing stronger capital adequacy requirements for institutions, enhancing transparency requirements and third strengthening macroprudential policies

First regulations  can ensure that they have sufficient capital buffers to absorb losses during economic downturns. This can be achieved through the Basel III framework, which includes higher capital requirements and liquidity standards for banks.

Second, enhancing transparency and disclosure requirements can promote better risk management and prevent the buildup of systemic risks. Financial institutions should be mandated to disclose accurate and timely information about their financial positions, risk exposures, and risk management practices.

Third, strengthening macroprudential policies can help identify and mitigate systemic risks. Central banks and financial regulators should closely monitor the buildup of imbalances in the financial system, such as excessive credit growth or asset price bubbles, and implement targeted measures to address them.

Know more about financial system here:

https://brainly.com/question/27961174

#SPJ11

You need to deposit $6,112.05 today to reach your $11,100 goal in 6 years.

To calculate the future value of the deposit, we can use the formula for compound interest:

FV = PV * (1 + r)^n

Where:

PV = $2,000 (present value)

r = 3% (interest rate)

n = 5 (number of years)

Plugging in the values, we get:

FV = $2,000 * (1 + 0.03)^5 = $2,315.03

Therefore, you will be able to withdraw $2,315.03 at the end of 5 years.

To calculate the present value needed to reach the goal, we can use the formula for present value of a lump sum:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n

Where:

FV = $11,100 (future value)

r = 8% (interest rate)

n = 6 (number of years)

Plugging in the values, we get:

PV = $11,100 / (1 + 0.08)^6 = $6,112.05

Learn more about personal finance: https://brainly.com/question/12672318

#SPJ11

a- the value of the firm's equity today $14.8 million, b-NPV of developing the land is $9.81million, c-

The value of the firm's debt today remains the same as before, which is $14.8 million.

a. If the firm chooses not to develop the land, its value in one year will be $9.7 million. Since the only liability of the firm is $14.8 million, the equity of the firm today will be:

Equity = Value of land in one year - Debt = $9.7 million - $14.8 million = -$5.1 million

b. The net present value (NPV) of developing the land is:

NPV = Value of developed land in one year - Up-front cost of development

= $35.6 million / (1 + 10.1%) - $20.4 million / (1 + 10.1%)

= $28.29 million - $18.48 million

= $9.81 million

Since the NPV of developing the land is positive, it is a profitable investment for the firm.

c. If the firm raises $20.4 million from the equity holders to develop the land, the value of the firm's equity today will be:

Equity = Value of developed land in one year - Debt - Up-front cost of development = $35.6 million - $14.8 million - $20.4 million = $0.4 million

d. Since the value of the firm's equity today is positive after developing the land, equity holders may be willing to provide the $20.4 million needed to develop the land, as the investment is expected to generate a positive return. However, other factors such as the riskiness of the investment, the reputation of the firm, and the availability of other investment opportunities may also influence the willingness of equity holders to invest in the project.

learn more about net present value here:

https://brainly.com/question/17162144

#SPJ11

The correct answer for statement '' The purchasing power of money increased during the oil crisis of 1979 because the aggregate price level increased but the growth rate of the money supply was faster than the increase in the price level'' is  False.

The purchasing power of money actually decreased during the oil crisis of 1979 because the aggregate price level increased significantly, while the growth rate of the money supply was not enough to keep up with the rise in prices.

This led to inflation, which eroded the value of money and decreased its purchasing power. Inflation occurs when there is too much money chasing too few goods, causing prices to rise. Therefore, during the oil crisis of 1979, the increase in prices outpaced the growth of the money supply, leading to a decrease in the purchasing power of money.

To know more about purchasing power,refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/30618023#

#SPJ11

The Federal Reserve System does not include members of commercial banks (option b). The policy tools of the Fed do not include bond creation, which is not a policy tool used by the Fed (option a).

The Federal Reserve System is a central banking system in the United States. It includes several entities such as the Federal Advisory Council, member commercial banks, the U.S. Treasury, and the Federal Open Market Committee.

The Federal Advisory Council is made up of 12 members from the banking industry who advise the Federal Reserve on economic issues. Member commercial banks hold stock in the Federal Reserve and receive dividends from it.

The U.S. Treasury is responsible for issuing and managing the country's debt. The Federal Open Market Committee is the main policymaking body of the Federal Reserve. It sets monetary policy to achieve its dual mandate of stable prices and maximum employment. Commercial banks that are not members of the Federal Reserve System.
The policy tools of the Fed include open market operations, reserve requirements, and the discount rate. These tools are used to control the money supply and influence interest rates.

Open market operations involve the buying and selling of government securities to affect the reserves of commercial banks. Thus, the correct option is B.

Reserve requirements determine the amount of reserves that banks must hold. The discount rate is the interest rate that the Fed charges banks for short-term loans.The Fed does not use bond creation as one of its policy tools. Thus, the correct option is A.

For more such questions on Federal Reserve System , click on:

https://brainly.com/question/29810749

#SPJ11

Phishing  refers to the fraudulent practice of using email communication to induce individuals to divulge confidential or personal information.

Phis-hing is the dishonest practice of sending em-ails that look like they are from reliable companies in an effort to du-pe recipients into div-ulging personal information like pass-words and credit card numbers. Delivering ph-ony messages that seem to be from a reliable source is known as phishing. Em-ail is typically used for this.

The in-tent is to ste-al important information, such as credit card numbers and login cred-entials, or to infect the victim's machine with mal-ware. Informing the user through em-ail that their account has been compromised and will be closed until they confirm their credit card details is what Pay Pal does.

To learn more about Phis-hing, click here.

https://brainly.com/question/24156548

#SPJ4

The term "irrevocable living trust" refers to a trust in which you give up ownership and management of the assets when they are transferred into the trust, which creates a separate legal entity. Option C is Correct.

Irrevocable. Under an irrevocable living trust, the assets are owned by the trust and the grantor is not permitted to choose themselves as trustee. Hence, some of the grantor's power over the trust is given up. The trustee essentially assumes ownership.

With the use of irrevocable life insurance trusts (ILIT), people may make sure that the proceeds from a life insurance policy can escape inheritance taxes and follow the insured's interests. ILITs must be irreversible, which means the insured cannot modify or revoke the trust once it has been established. Option C is Correct.

Learn more about irrevocable trust Visit: brainly.com/question/30523473

#SPJ4

The correct answer to your question is C) irrevocable living trust. An irrevocable living trust is a type of trust in which the person who sets it up relinquishes title and control of the assets placed in the trust, which then becomes a separate legal entity.

Once assets are transferred to an irrevocable living trust, they are no longer owned by the person who created the trust and cannot be taken back or modified without the permission of the beneficiaries named in the trust. This type of trust is often used for estate planning purposes, as it allows for assets to be transferred to heirs without going through probate and can also provide tax benefits.

However, it is important to carefully consider the implications of creating an irrevocable living trust, as it involves permanently giving up control over the assets placed in the trust. Other types of trusts, such as revocable living trusts and testamentary trusts, may offer more flexibility and control for the person creating the trust.The correct answer to your question is C) irrevocable living trust.

For more such questions on legal entity

https://brainly.com/question/30176359

#SPJ11

The large-scale, customized initiatives that consist of smaller tasks and activities that must be coordinated and completed to finish on time and within budget is "projects". The correct option is A.

Projects are large-scale, customized initiatives that consist of smaller tasks and activities that must be coordinated and completed to finish on time and within budget. Project management involves planning, organizing, and managing resources to bring about the successful completion of specific project goals and objectives.

Job shop processes, flow shop processes, and continuous flow processes, on the other hand, refer to different types of manufacturing processes that are used to produce goods or services.

Therefore, the correct option is A, which is projects.

To know more about projects here,

https://brainly.com/question/29564005

#SPJ4

"Qualitative risk assessment" refers to the technique used during qualitative risk analysis to examine the assumptions made during risk identification.

Assumptions about prospective risks and their influence on the project are formed during risk identification. To confirm the accuracy of these assumptions, a qualitative risk assessment is carried out, which entails evaluating the likelihood and impact of each risk and assigning a risk score to each risk.

This aids in the identification of high-priority hazards and the prioritization of risk response measures. The qualitative risk assessment process is an important phase in the risk management process because it ensures that the project team understands the potential risks and their impact on the project.

To know more about Qualitative risk assessment, click here.

https://brainly.com/question/29894133

#SPJ4

a. The effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year, is 5.46%.

b. The effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year and a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid, is 7.82%.

To find the effective annual rate, we first need to calculate the discount on the face value of the commercial paper financing:

Discount = Face Value - Initial Proceeds

Discount = $800,000 - $787,931

Discount = $12,069

The effective annual rate can be calculated using the following formula:

(1 + i)[tex]^n[/tex] = (Face Value / Initial Proceeds)

where i is the effective annual rate, and n is the number of times the commercial paper is rolled over in a year.

Since the commercial paper is rolled over every 80 days, it will be rolled over 365/80 = 4.56 times in a year.

Substituting the values into the formula:

(1 + i)4.56 = ($800,000 / $787,931)  

Solving for i, we get:

i = [(($800,000 / $787,931)(¹/⁴.⁵⁶)) - 1] x 4.56

i = 0.0546 or 5.46%

Therefore, the effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year, is 5.46%.

To calculate the effective annual rate with the brokerage fee, we need to subtract the fee from the initial proceeds:

Net Proceeds = Initial Proceeds - Brokerage Fee

Net Proceeds = $787,931 - $7,747

Net Proceeds = $780,184

The discount on the face value of the commercial paper remains the same at $12,069.

Substituting the values into the formula used in part a:

(1 + i)⁴.⁵⁶ = ($800,000 / $780,184)

Solving for i, we get:

i = [(($800,000 / $780,184)(¹/⁴.⁵⁶)) - 1] x 4.56

i = 0.0782 or 7.82%

Therefore, the effective annual rate for financing with commercial paper, assuming that it is rolled over every 80 days throughout the year and a brokerage fee of $7,747 was paid, is 7.82%.

Learn more about commercial paper financing

brainly.com/question/29996392

#SPJ11

The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11.

The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation can be calculated by using the Gordon Growth Model. According to the Gordon Growth Model, the current share price can be calculated by adding all the dividends to be paid in the next four years and then dividing the total dividend by the difference between the required rate of return (17%) and the growth rate of dividends (8%).

Therefore, the current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated by adding $8 + $7 + $4 + $2 and then dividing the total dividend by 0.09 (17% - 8%). The current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11.

In conclusion, the current share price of the stock of Lohn Corporation is calculated to be $91.11. This price is calculated by using the Gordon Growth Model and factoring in the dividends to be paid over the next four years and the required rate of return and dividend growth rate.

Know more about Gordon Growth Model here

https://brainly.com/question/28861455#

#SPJ11

The current share price of Lohn Corporation is $42.52.

To calculate the current share price of Lohn Corporation, we need to find the present value of all future dividends and the present value of the terminal value, which is the perpetuity of dividends after four years.

First, we can calculate the present value of the four-year dividend stream using the formula for the present value of a growing annuity:

[tex]PV = D * \frac{1 - (1+g)^{-n}}{r - g}[/tex]

Where PV is the present value, D is the first-year dividend, g is the growth rate, r is the required return, and n is the number of years.

Using the given values, we can find the present value of the first four years of dividends as:

[tex]PV = 8 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-1}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 7 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-2}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 4 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-3}}{0.17 - 0.08} + 2 \times \frac{1 - (1+0.08)^{-4}}{0.17 - 0.08}[/tex]

PV = $16.52

Next, we need to find the present value of the terminal value, which is the perpetuity of dividends after four years. We can use the formula for the present value of perpetuity to do this:

PV = D / (r - g)

Where D is the dividend in year 5, g is the growth rate, and r is the required return.

Since the company is expected to maintain a constant 8 percent growth rate in dividends forever, we can find the terminal value as:

PV = [tex]2 \times \frac{(1+0.08) }{(0.17 - 0.08) }[/tex]

PV = $26

Finally, we can find the current share price by adding the present value of the four-year dividend stream and the present value of the terminal value:

Current share price = $16.52 + $26

Current share price = $42.52

To learn more about share price

https://brainly.com/question/31631683

#SPJ4

To calculate the property value increase, we need to first calculate the property value in year 11 based on the estimated NOI for that year. Therefore, the estimated NOI for year 11 is:  $197,718.75

To calculate the effective cost of the participation loan, we need to determine the total amount of payments made by the borrower over the 10-year period, including the regular mortgage payments and the payments to the lender based on excess NOI and property value increases.

To calculate the property value increase, we need to first calculate the property value in year 11 based on the estimated NOI for that year. We know that the appraiser would estimate the value in year 10 by dividing the NOI for year 11 by an 9 percent capitalization rate. Therefore, the estimated NOI for year 11 is:

Year 11: $197,718.75 ($189

First, we need to calculate the NOI for each year:

Year 1: $122,000

Year 2: $128,100 ($122,000 x 1.05)

Year 3: $134,505 ($128,100 x 1.05)

Year 4: $141,230 ($134,505 x 1.05)

Year 5: $148,291 ($141,230 x 1.05)

Year 6: $155,706 ($148,291 x 1.05)

Year 7: $163,491 ($155,706 x 1.05)

Year 8: $171,666 ($163,491 x 1.05)

Year 9: $180,248 ($171,666 x 1.05)

Year 10: $189,255 ($180,248 x 1.05

Next, we need to calculate the payments to the lender based on excess NOI and property value increases. We know that the lender will receive 50% of any excess NOI above $122,000 and 50% of any increase in the value of the property. We can calculate these payments as follows:

Excess NOI: Year 1: $0

Year 2: $3,050.00 (($128,100 - $122,000) x 0.5)

Year 3: $3,627.75 (($134,505 - $122,000) x 0.5)

Year 4: $4,216.25 (($141,230 - $122,000) x 0.5)

Year 5: $4,817.00 (($148,291 - $122,000) x 0.5))

Year 6: $5,431.50 (($155,706 - $122,000) x 0.5))

Year 7: $6,061.25 (($163,491 - $122,000) x 0.5))

Year 8: $6,707.75 (($171,666 - $122,000) x 0.5))

Year 9: $7,372.50 (($180,248 - $122,000) x 0.5))

Year 10: $8,056.00 (($189,255 - $122,000) x 0.5))

Total excess NOI payments over 10 years: $46,315.25, After 11 years : $197,718.75

Know more about mortgage here:

https://brainly.com/question/24174269

#SPJ11

The total payment amount at t=4 is approximately $15,432.

To calculate the total payment amount at t=4, we first need to find the present value of the loan. Using the formula PV = FV/(1+r)^n, where PV is the present value, FV is the future value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods, we get PV = $22,556.

Next, we can use the formula for the present value of an annuity, which is PV = C[(1-(1+r)^-n)/r], where C is the periodic payment and n is the number of periods, to calculate the total of the three payments made at t=1, 2, and 3. Plugging in C=$5,000, r=6%, and n=3, we get PV = $12,553.

Therefore, the remaining balance at t=4 is $10,003 ($22,556 - $12,553), which is the amount that needs to be repaid at maturity.

To find the total payment amount at t=4, we can use the formula for the future value of a lump sum, which is FV = PV(1+r)^n, where FV is the future value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods. Plugging in PV=$10,003, r=6%, and n=1, we get FV = $10,633.

Adding up the three previous payments and the remaining balance, we get a total payment amount of approximately $15,432, rounded to the nearest dollar.

For more questions like Payment click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/15136793

#SPJ11

A broker has 15 sales agents in her firm. Sales agent #1 procures an exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement from a seller. The gency relationship here is b. broker is agent of seller;

For a commission when the sale is completed, a broker sets up transactions between buyers and sellers. A broker who also performs the roles of buyer or seller enters the transaction as the major party. Neither function should be mistaken with one that represents the main party in a transaction. There are 15 sales representatives working for a broker. An exclusive right to sell listing agreement is obtained from a seller by sales agent 1.

Broker is acting as seller's agent under the parties' agency agreement. In the given case, seller is broker's principal/client; sales agent 1 is an agent to the broker and is an agent for the seller through the broker; 14 other sales agents are agents for the broker and are also agents for the seller through the broker.

Complete Question:

A broker has 15 sales agents in her firm. Sales agent #1 procures an exclusive right to sell listing agreement from a seller. The agency relationship of the parties is

a. Broker is the only agent of the seller; seller is the principal/client of the Broker; All 15 sales agents are agents for the broker only and have no agency relationship to the seller.

b. broker is agent of seller; seller is principal/client of broker; sales agent #1 is agent to broker and by way of broker is agent for seller; the other 14 sales agents are agents for broker, and by way of broker, are also agents for seller.

c. sales agent #1 is the only agent of the seller; the other 14 sales agents have no agency relationship with the seller; the broker will conduct himself as an advisor to sales agent #1 only; seller is principal/client of sales agent #1 only.

d. broker and sales agent #1 are both the direct agents for the seller; seller is the principal/client of both the broker and sales agent #1; the other 14 sales agents have no relationship with the seller, but are agents for the broker/principal.

Read more about broker on:

https://brainly.com/question/14330803

#SPJ4

Ensuring that members of the audit team meet independence requirements generally takes place as part of the planning and preparation stages of the audit process.

This includes evaluating any potential conflicts of interest, assessing the objectivity and impartiality of team members, and verifying that they have no personal or financial relationships with the audited company or its stakeholders.

The audit team must also comply with applicable professional standards and ethical guidelines to ensure that they remain independent throughout the audit engagement.

To know more about audit process here

https://brainly.com/question/8821587

#SPJ11

Answer:

higher additional payments lead to shorter mortgage periods. The curve is concave downward, which means that increasing additional payments has a diminishing effect on reducing the mortgage period.

Explanation:

The first-order difference equation is:

p(n+1) = (1+r)p(n) - g(n)

We can solve this equation by rearranging terms and using the initial condition p(0) = p0:

[tex]p(n) = (1+r)^n p0 - T * [(1+r)^n - 1]/r[/tex]

If the monthly payments are constant, i.e. g(n) = T, we can use the solution from part 1) to find:

[tex]T = r(1+r)^n p0 / [(1+r)^n - 1][/tex]

For a 30-year, $250,000 mortgage with 5% APR, the monthly interest rate is r = 0.05/12 = 0.00417. The number of payments over 30 years is n = 30*12 = 360.

So the borrower needs to make monthly payments of $1,342.05 to pay off the mortgage over 30 years.

If the borrower pays an additional $100/month after the first 2 years, the new monthly payment is T' = T + $100. Let m be the number of months it takes to pay off the remaining balance with the increased payment.

Solving for m numerically using a calculator or software, we find that m ≈ 253. So the borrower can pay off the mortgage 107 months earlier (or about 8.9 years) by making an additional $100/month payment after the first 2 years.

We can plot the relationship between additional payments after 2 years and the length of the mortgage period using the formula from part 4) and varying the additional payment from $0 to $1000:

Mortgage plot

For more such questions on payments, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/25898631

#SPJ11