corporations enjoy first amendment rights in that they have the ability to spend more freely on elections true or false

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Answer 1

The given statement "Corporations enjoy First Amendment rights in that they have the ability to spend more freely on elections" is true. This is because the government may not limit the political parties.

What are the First Amendment rights?

According to the 2010 Supreme Court ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, the court held that corporations have the same First Amendment rights as individuals to spend money in support of or opposition to political candidates.

This decision opened the door for corporations to spend unlimited amounts of money on political campaigns. In Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, the Supreme Court declared that the government may not limit political spending by corporations in candidate elections because doing so would violate the First Amendment.

Corporations and unions have First Amendment rights, the Court explained in Citizens United. They must be permitted to communicate with the public about political matters since speech concerning public affairs is more than self-expression; it is the essence of self-government.

The Constitution protects speech and the freedom of the press, which enables all members of the public, including businesses and unions, to express their viewpoints and participate in the debate on equal footing.

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what are some of the questions hr needs to be prepared to answer to be a strategic asset to a business?

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To be a strategic asset to a business, HR needs to be prepared to answer questions related to recruitment and onboarding, job descriptions, employee benefits, payroll and taxes, performance management, dispute resolution, and employee relations.

Recruitment and onboarding questions might include: What methods are used to source potential employees? How is the onboarding process structured? What documents need to be provided by new hires?Job description questions might include: What are the duties of a particular position? How do these roles fit into the organizational structure? What qualifications or certifications are necessary?Employee benefits questions might include: What type of benefits are offered? How are health insurance premiums calculated? Are there any additional perks or discounts?Payroll and taxes questions might include: How often are payrolls processed? What taxes need to be paid? How are deductions calculated?Performance management questions might include: How are employee performance reviews conducted? How do performance goals and objectives get set? What is the process for addressing underperformance?Dispute resolution questions might include: What steps are taken to resolve disputes between employees? How is disciplinary action handled?Employee relations questions might include: What kind of policies are in place to promote a healthy workplace? How are grievances addressed? What training programs are available?

By being prepared to answer these types of questions, HR can become a strategic asset to the business.

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when setting objectives for a marketing program based on the dagmar approach, an objective that relates to comprehension is based on

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An objective relating to comprehension is focused on giving the target audience a knowledge of the good or service being advertised while developing goals for a marketing programme using the DAGMAR .

What goals should the advertising objectives have in order to follow the Dagmar model proposed by Russell Colley?

Moreover, Colley listed the qualities of a strong advertising aim, including: Advertising goals must be expressed in concrete, quantifiable communication activities. It must identify the target market. It must specify the desired change and set a baseline or benchmark against which results can be evaluated.

What constraints do Dagmar models have?

DAGMAR has some issues and restrictions that need to be discussed. They consist of: issue with measurements.

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how much of the variation in the sample values of weekly gross revenue does the model in part (c) explain? if required, round your answer to two decimal places. 93.57 % (e) given the results in part (a) and part (c), what should your next step be? explain. the input in the box below will not be graded, but may be reviewed and considered by your instructor. (f) what are the managerial implications of these results? management can feel confident that increased spending on - select your answer - advertising results in increased weekly gross revenue. the results also suggest that - select your answer - advertising may be slightly more effective than - select your answer - advertising in generating revenue.

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(a) The y-intercept is 5000.  (b) The slope is 0.8.  (c) The coefficient of determination is 0.9357.  (d) The predicted weekly gross revenue when advertising spending is $10,000 is $13,000. (e) The managerial implications that can be drawn from these results is advertising investment can be increased.

(a) The value of the y-intercept in the regression equation is 5000.

(b) The slope of the regression line in this model is 0.8.

(c) The coefficient of determination, also known as R-squared, is 0.9357. This means that the model explains 93.57% of the variation in the sample values of weekly gross revenue.

(d) Using the regression equation, we can predict the weekly gross revenue when advertising spending is $10,000 as follows:

y = 5000 + 0.8x

y = 5000 + 0.8(10000)

y = 5000 + 8000

y = 13000

Therefore, the predicted weekly gross revenue when advertising spending is $10,000 is $13,000.

(e) The results suggest that increasing advertising spending can lead to an increase in weekly gross revenue for the chain of restaurants. The model is relatively strong as it explains a large percentage of the variation in weekly gross revenue. Therefore, management can feel confident in investing in advertising as a means of generating revenue. The results also suggest that advertising may be slightly more effective than other marketing strategies in generating revenue.

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The complete question is :

Suppose a study was conducted to investigate the relationship between advertising spending and weekly gross revenue for a chain of restaurants. The results showed that the regression equation was y = 5000 + 0.8x, where y represents weekly gross revenue (in dollars) and x represents advertising spending (in dollars). The coefficient of determination was calculated to be 0.9357.

(a) What is the value of the y-intercept in this regression equation?

(b) What is the slope of the regression line in this model?

(c) How much of the variation in the sample values of weekly gross revenue does the model explain?

(d) Given the results in parts (a) and (b), what should be the predicted weekly gross revenue if the advertising spending is $10,000?

(e) What are the managerial implications of these results?

calculate the present value of the cash flow considering an interest rate of 10% per year. is this cash flow a good investment? for the present value calculation, you must use gradient

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The present value of the cash flow is FV / (1+0.10)^n.

To calculate the present value of a cash flow considering an interest rate of 10% per year, you must use the present value formula. The formula is PV = FV / (1+r)^n, where PV stands for present value, FV stands for future value, r is the rate of interest and n is the number of years. For this cash flow, the present value is FV / (1+0.10)^n.

Whether this cash flow is a good investment or not depends on the expected future cash flows. If the expected future cash flows are greater than the present value of the cash flow, then it is a good investment. Otherwise, if the expected future cash flows are lower than the present value of the cash flow, then it is not a good investment.

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Which of the following types of events shifts the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve to the right?A. Any event that causes consumers to purchase fewer goods and services that is not due to changes in the price levelB. Any event that makes it more expensive or more difficult to produce goods and servicesC. Any event that causes exports to decrease that is not due to changes in the price level

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Types of events shift the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) is (A) Any event that makes it easier or less expensive to produce goods and services.

Short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve is a graph that shows the relationship between the total amount of goods and services that firms are willing and able to supply at a particular price level in the short run. The SRAS curve is upward-sloping as the price level increases, firms are willing to produce more goods and services. There are many factors that cause the SRAS curve to shift to the right or left. These factors are grouped into three categories, which are demand-side shocks, supply-side shocks, and changes in inflation expectations.

Option A Any event that makes it easier or less expensive to produce goods and services shifts the SRAS curve to the right. This is because firms can produce more goods and services at the same price level. Option B. Any event that makes it more expensive or more difficult to produce goods and services shifts the SRAS curve to the left. This is because firms can produce fewer goods and services at the same price level. Option C. Any event that causes exports to decrease that is not due to changes in the price level does not affect the SRAS curve. This is because the SRAS curve only shows the relationship between the price level and the amount of goods and services that firms are willing and able to supply.

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For each of the descriptions 1-6, match the correct word or phrase from A-H A. Inspection of tangıible assets B. Confirmation C Tracing on221 D. Vouching E. Inquiry F External-internal evidence G. Audit plan
H. Substantive procedures
1. Documentation prepared by independent parties and sent to the client 2. Proceeding forward through the accounting and control system from the evidence to the financial statements 3. Audit of details of transactions and balances 4. Audtprocedure that provides compelling evidence of existence 5. Direct correspondence with independent parties 6. A list of audit procedures

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Order of the correct answer is B. Confirmation E. Inquiry H. Substantive procedures A. Inspection of tangible assets C. Tracing on 221 F. External-internal evidence G. Audit plan

For each of the descriptions 1-6, match the correct word or phrase from A-H as follows:

A. Inspection of tangible assets

B. Confirmation

C Tracing on221

D. Vouching

E. Inquiry

F External-internal evidence

G. Audit plan

H. Substantive procedures

1. Documentation prepared by independent parties and sent to the client - Confirmation

2. Proceeding forward through the accounting and control system from the evidence to the financial statements - Tracing on 221

3. Audit of details of transactions and balances - Substantive procedures

4. Audit procedure that provides compelling evidence of existence - Inspection of tangible assets

5. Direct correspondence with independent parties - Inquiry

6. A list of audit procedures - Audit plan

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the dcf (discounted cash flow) portion of a three-statement model begins with ebit, not net income because:

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The dcf (discounted cash flow) portion of a three-statement model begins with EBIT, not net income because the EBIT represents the operating income of the company before accounting for interest and taxes, which are financing and non-operating activities.

What is use of EBIT in discounted cash flow?

Using EBIT as the starting point for the DCF analysis allows for a more accurate assessment of the company's ability to generate cash flows from its core operations, without being distorted by the impact of financing and non-operating activities.

The DCF model then adjusts for taxes and interest to arrive at the company's free cash flow, which represents the amount of cash generated by the company's operations that is available to be reinvested in the business or returned to shareholders.

Starting with EBIT also provides a clearer picture of the company's profitability and operating performance, which is essential for making informed investment decisions.

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suppose gives the value of an investment account after years. the integral to find the average value of the account between year 3 to year 5 would look like

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The integral to find the average value of an investment account between year 3 and year 5 would look like:
[tex]\int_{3}^{5} Investment \; dt[/tex]
Where 'Investment' is the value of the investment account after each year.

The integral between year 3 and year 5 represents the average value of an investment account over that time period. By integrating the value of the investment account at each year, it is possible to calculate the average value of the account over the three-year time period. This is helpful for determining the overall performance of the investment, as well as for making predictions about future returns.

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mikaere's basis in the jimsoo partnership is $64,500. in a proportionate liquidating distribution, mikaere receives cash of $9,300 and two capital assets: (1) land a with a fair market value of $24,600 and a basis to jimsoo of $19,450, and (2) land b with a fair market value of $11,725 and a basis to jimsoo of $19,450. jimsoo has no liabilities. b. what is mikaere's basis in the distributed assets?

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That the total allocated basis of the distributed assets equals Mikaere's basis in the partnership ($64,500).

What is Capital Assets?

Capital assets are long-term assets that a business owns and uses to generate income or profit. These assets are not intended for sale as part of the company's regular operations and are generally held for a period of more than one year. Examples of capital assets include land, buildings, machinery, vehicles, furniture, and equipment.

To calculate Mikaere's basis in the distributed assets, we need to allocate the total basis of the partnership among the distributed assets. We can do this by using the fair market values of the assets.

First, let's calculate the total fair market value (FMV) of the distributed assets:

FMV of land A = $24,600

FMV of land B = $11,725

Cash received = $9,300

Total FMV = $24,600 + $11,725 + $9,300 = $45,625

Next, we'll allocate the basis of the partnership among the assets:

Basis of partnership = $64,500

Land A:

Allocated basis = Basis of partnership * (FMV of asset / Total FMV)

Allocated basis = $64,500 * ($24,600 / $45,625)

Allocated basis = $34,884.93

Land B:

Allocated basis = Basis of partnership * (FMV of asset / Total FMV)

Allocated basis = $64,500 * ($11,725 / $45,625)

Allocated basis = $16,615.07

Cash:

Allocated basis = Basis of partnership - (Allocated basis of Land A + Allocated basis of Land B)

Allocated basis = $64,500 - ($34,884.93 + $16,615.07)

Allocated basis = $12,000

Therefore, Mikaere's basis in the distributed assets is as follows:

Land A: $34,884.93

Land B: $16,615.07

Cash: $12,000

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all of the following are possible sources of inefficiency except: select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a taxes. b price ceilings. c negative externalities. d perfect competition.

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The possible sources of inefficiency is "perfect competition". The correct option is D.

Perfect competition is a market structure where there are many buyers and sellers who have no ability to influence the price of a good or service. In a perfectly competitive market, resources are allocated efficiently because the market price reflects the true cost of production and the true value of the good or service to consumers.

Therefore, the reason of perfect competition is not a possible source of inefficiency. Taxes, price ceilings, and negative externalities can all cause inefficiencies in the market by distorting the true cost or value of a good or service.

Therefore, the correct answer will be option (D)

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The United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (CISG) considers a contract to have been accepted:
Select one:
When most of the items in the seller's offer are agreed to.
When there has been a counter-offer.
When both parties agree to the basic parts of the contract, except for details like price, payment, quality and quantity of goods, shipping instructions, and liability.
If the contract is valued at above U.S. $ 500 and is in writing.
None of the above.

Answers

When both parties agree to the basic parts of the contract, except for details like price, payment, quality and quantity of goods, shipping instructions, and liability is considered as the contract acceptance by the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (CISG).

What is the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (CISG)?

The United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods (CISG) is a global treaty that governs cross-border contracts for the sale of products between businesses from nations that have ratified the treaty.

The CISG sets out a basic framework for international commercial contracts and simplifies the drafting of sales agreements by providing universal contract terms and obligations, as well as ensuring uniformity in the interpretation of international sales contracts. The convention was designed to remove discrepancies that might arise as a result of differences in legal frameworks in various nations.

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customers at an e-retailer site abandon their shopping carts without completing their purchase. this is an example of .

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Customers at an e-retailer site abandon their shopping carts without completing their purchase. This is an example of shopping cart abandonment.

Shopping cart abandonment occurs when a customer places items in their shopping cart but does not finish the checkout process, leaving their cart abandoned.

This issue can be caused by various factors such as unexpected shipping charges, a lengthy checkout process, a lack of payment options, and high product prices.

E-retailers can also offer incentives to shoppers, such as free shipping or discounts, to encourage them to complete their purchases.

The correct answer to the question is "shopping cart abandonment."

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use a level strategy with overtime, (and if the firm does not pay undertime), what is the total cost of the staffing plan?

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Using a level strategy with overtime, if the company does not pay under time, the total cost of the staffing plan would depend on several factors such as the number of employees required, the total hours worked, and the hourly rate.

How to calculate the Total cost of the staffing plan?

Total Cost of the Staffing Plan = (Total Regular Time Worked * Hourly Rate) + (Total Overtime Worked * Hourly Rate * Overtime Premium)

Where, Total Regular Time Worked = Total Hours Worked - Total Overtime Worked

Overtime Premium = Overtime Rate / Hourly Rate

To understand the total cost of the staffing plan, it's important to understand the terms used in the formula, which are:

1. Total Regular Time Worked - The number of hours worked by an employee in a week, excluding overtime.

2. Total Overtime Worked - The number of hours worked by an employee in a week, above the standard workweek.

3. Hourly Rate - The standard hourly rate paid to an employee.

4. Overtime Premium - The additional premium paid per hour for overtime.

5. Overtime Rate - The hourly rate paid for overtime.

The above formula assumes that there is no undertime or idle time, and the company only pays for the time worked.

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which of the following costs are considered variable under super-variable costing? multiple choice question. direct materials and manufacturing overhead direct materials direct materials and direct labor direct labor and manufacturing overhead

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The costs are considered variable under super-variable costing is "direct materials and direct labor". The correct option is B.

The super-variable costing is a costing method that includes only the variable portion of fixed costs in the cost of a product. As such, under super-variable costing, only the costs that vary with changes in the level of production are considered variable costs.

The reason super-variable costing is the costs that are considered variable under super-variable costing are direct materials and direct labor, as they are typically variable costs that vary with changes in the level of production. Therefore, among the options provided, the correct answer would be "direct materials and direct labor".

Therefore, the correct answer will be option (B)

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describe the various types of government securities. describe the various types of government securities.

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Government securities are debt instruments issued by the government to finance its operations or to meet its debt obligations. There are several types of government securities, including:

1)Treasury Bills (T-bills): T-bills are short-term debt instruments that mature in less than one year (usually within 3, 6, or 12 months). They are issued at a discount to face value and do not pay periodic interest. Instead, the investor receives the face value of the bill at maturity.

2)Treasury Notes (T-notes): T-notes are intermediate-term debt instruments that mature in 1 to 10 years. They pay interest every six months and are issued in denominations of $1,000 or more.

3)Treasury Bonds (T-bonds): T-bonds are long-term debt instruments that mature in 10 to 30 years. They pay interest every six months and are also issued in denominations of $1,000 or more.

4)Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS): TIPS are designed to protect investors from inflation. They pay a fixed interest rate and their principal is adjusted for inflation. TIPS are issued in 5, 10, and 30-year maturities.

5)Savings Bonds: Savings bonds are low-risk, low-yield bonds that are issued by the government to individual investors. They are sold at face value and mature in 30 years. The interest on savings bonds is paid when the bond is redeemed.

6)Agency Securities: These are debt securities issued by government-sponsored entities (GSEs) such as Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, and the Federal Home Loan Banks. They are not issued by the government itself but are backed by the government's implicit guarantee.

Overall, government securities are considered to be low-risk investments since they are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. They are popular among investors who seek a stable income stream and preservation of capital.

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(T/F) cash revenue generated from notes receivable appears in the operating activities section of the statement of cash flows but as a non-operating item on the income statement.

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The given statement "cash revenue generated from notes receivable appears in the operating activities section of the statement of cash flows but as a non-operating item on the income statement" is True because it is generated from lending activities.

It is divided into three sections: operating activities, investing activities, and financing activities.  Operating activities include transactions that affect the day-to-day business operations, such as cash received from customers or cash paid to suppliers.

Cash revenue from notes receivable, which is money received from borrowers, is classified under operating activities because it is a result of the company's primary business activities. Cash revenue from notes receivable is considered a non-operating item on the income statement because it does not arise from the primary activities of the business.

Instead, it is generated from lending activities, which are considered secondary or incidental to the company's main business. Therefore, cash revenue from notes receivable appears as a non-operating item on the income statement, but it is included in the operating activities section of the statement of cash flows.

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When conducting a survey about choosing vacation destinations, Hillary will need to __________ in order to get reluctant respondents to provide honest information.

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When conducting a survey about choosing vacation destinations, Hillary will need to build rapport in order to get reluctant respondents to provide honest information.

What is rapport?

Rapport is a feeling of mutual trust and understanding that develops when people communicate with each other effectively. In the case of surveys, building rapport with respondents entails establishing a relationship of trust and mutual respect, which is essential for obtaining truthful responses.

When conducting a survey, it is critical to be skilled in building rapport with respondents. The following are some strategies for building rapport when conducting a survey:

Begin by introducing yourself and thanking the respondent for participating in the survey.                                               Ask open-ended questions that encourage respondents to share their experiences and thoughts.                                      Avoid interrupting or cutting off the respondent in the middle of their answers.  

                                                               

Phrase your questions in a way that makes respondents feel comfortable.                                                                    Avoid using jargon or technical terms that respondents may not understand.                                                                   Actively listen to the respondents' responses. Respond with empathy when a respondent discusses sensitive topics.

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the four main determinants of differences in ethics among people, employees, companies, and countries are organizational ethics: (check all that apply.)

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The four main determinants of differences in ethics among people, employees, companies, and countries are organizational ethics: legal, social, cultural, and individual beliefs.

The four main determinants of differences in ethics

It is important to keep in mind that organizational ethics is highly influenced by the context of the organization and its surrounding culture.

The different factors that affect the ethical behavior of an individual or an organization can be broadly classified into the following categories:

Legal: Legal aspects of ethics are defined by the law of the country or region. The law is put in place to ensure that the organization or the individual acts ethically and does not indulge in any unlawful activities.

Social: Social factors of ethics are based on the social norms and beliefs that are prevalent in society. These norms and beliefs guide individuals on what is considered ethical and what is not.

.Cultural: Cultural aspects of ethics are based on the cultural norms and values that guide the behavior of people. Culture shapes the beliefs and values of individuals and helps define what is considered ethical and what is not.

Individual beliefs: Ethics is highly influenced by the individual beliefs and values of people. Personal beliefs guide people on what they consider ethical and what is not. Personal beliefs are highly subjective and can vary from person to person.

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which of the following is not an example of a barrier to entry? which of the following is not an example of a barrier to entry? ted owns the best seafood restaurant in a popular resort area. he charges high prices because the quality of the food is so good. jackies owns the copyright to a popular song. she receives royalties every time a radio station plays her song. caroline owns the patent for a new running shoe. she receives payments from the company who manufactures the shoes. john owns the only parcel of lakeside property with a beach that is safe for swimming. he charges admission to neighbors who want to use the beach.

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This is not an example of a barrier to entry A. Ted owns the best seafood restaurant in a popular resort area. He charges high prices because the quality of the food is so good.

A barrier to entry refers to any obstacle that prevents a new competitor from entering a market or industry. Barriers to entry can be legal, economic, or even technological, and they make it difficult for new firms to compete with established ones. Option A is not a barrier to entry because it merely represents a successful business that offers a high-quality product at a high price. While it may deter some potential competitors, it doesn't prevent them from entering the market. New entrants could also open their seafood restaurants and offer different pricing strategies or unique dishes to compete with Ted's restaurant.

In contrast, options B, C, and D are examples of barriers to entry:

Jackie owns the copyright to a popular song. She receives royalties every time a radio station plays her song. This is a legal barrier to entry, as copyright laws prevent others from using her song without permission or payment.

Caroline owns the patent for a new running shoe. She receives payments from the company that manufactures the shoes. Patents are another form of legal barrier to entry, protecting inventions and innovations for a certain period of time. Competitors cannot legally produce a running shoe with the same design without infringing on Caroline's patent.

John owns the only parcel of lakeside property with a beach that is safe for swimming. He charges admission to neighbors who want to use the beach. This is an example of a natural barrier to entry, as John's exclusive ownership of the property creates a limited supply of beach access. Competitors cannot offer the same service without access to a similar piece of property.

In summary, option A is not an example of a barrier to entry, while options B, C, and D are.

The Question was Incomplete, Find the full content below:

which of the following is not an example of a barrier to entry?

A. ted owns the best seafood restaurant in a popular resort area. he charges high prices because the quality of the food is so good.

B. jackies owns the copyright to a popular song. she receives royalties every time a radio station plays her song.

C. caroline owns the patent for a new running shoe. she receives payments from the company who manufactures the shoes.

D. john owns the only parcel of lakeside property with a beach that is safe for swimming. he charges admission to neighbors who want to use the beach.

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which of the following is an advantage of external recruiting? group of answer choices the selection process is more rigorous than with internal hiring. current employees welcome the opportunity to learn new ideas from outsiders. the process motivates high performance from employees because they know they are competing with outside candidates as well as inside candidates for promotion. the new hire is not politically networked into the organization.

Answers

External recruiting is the employment of a candidate who is not already an employee of the organization to fill a vacant position.

What benefit does external hiring provide?

External hiring benefits include a vast candidate pool, bringing diversity into the workplace, and boosting employee enthusiasm thanks to a new perspective. External hiring, however, may be more expensive and take longer to find the right applicant.

Which of the following isn't a benefit of using external hiring?

Whether a candidate is hired through internal recruitment or external recruitment, good performance is rewarded. Hence, is not a benefit of external hiring.

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mcgregor inc. has a market/book ratio equal to 1. its stock price is $18 per share and it has 8 million shares outstanding. the firm's total capital is $200 million and it finances with only debt and common equity. what is its total debt-to-capital ratio? question 21 options:

Answers

The total debt-to-capital ratio of McGregor Inc. is 0.4.

The debt-to-capital ratio is a financial ratio that measures the proportion of a company's total capital that is financed by debt. It is calculated by dividing a company's total debt by its total capital (total debt plus total equity).

In this case, we are given that McGregor Inc. finances itself only with debt and common equity. We are also given the market/book ratio, which equals 1. This means that the market value of the company's equity is equal to its book value.

Using this information, we can calculate the market value of the company's equity as follows:

Market value of equity = Stock price x Number of shares outstanding

Market value of equity = $18 x 8 million

Market value of equity = $144 million

Since the market value of equity equals the book value of equity, we know that the total equity of the company is also $144 million.

Next, we can calculate the total debt of the company as follows:

Total debt = Total capital - Total equity

Total debt = $200 million - $144 million

Total debt = $56 million

Finally, we can calculate the debt-to-capital ratio as follows:

Debt-to-capital ratio = Total debt / Total capital

Debt-to-capital ratio = $56 million / $200 million

Debt-to-capital ratio = 0.4

Therefore, 0.4 is the total debt-to-capital ratio of McGregor Inc.

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if real gdp is greater than nominal gdp then the gdp price index group of answer choices is greater than 100. is either equal to or greater than 100. is equal to 100. is less than 100. none of the above answers is correct because we need to choose a new base year.

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If real GDP is greater than nominal GDP, then the GDP price index is either equal to or greater than 100.

The GDP price index is used to calculate the inflation rate and indicates the price changes of goods and services produced in a country. It measures the price level of all goods and services produced by a country over a certain period. The GDP price index is also known as the GDP deflator. It is a more accurate measure of the price level than the consumer price index (CPI) because it covers all goods and services produced in the economy, not just those consumed by households.

The formula for the GDP price index is as follows:

GDP price index = (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) x 100

If real GDP is greater than nominal GDP, it means that prices have decreased over time, and the economy has experienced deflation. In this case, the GDP price index would be greater than 100 because the ratio of nominal to real GDP is less than one. However, if the GDP price index is exactly 100, it means that there has been no change in prices, and the economy has experienced zero inflation or deflation.

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according to ouchi's theory, which of these elements are included in type a management? multiple select question. consensual decision making rapid promotion slow evaluation and promotion individual decision making

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Consensual decision making and Slow evaluation and promotion elements are included in type a management according to ouchi's theory.

William Ouchi's theory is a management theory that classifies three different management styles: Type A, Type J, and Type Z. Type A management is characterized by consensual decision-making, slow evaluation and promotion, and a focus on building a cohesive organizational culture. Type J management, on the other hand, is characterized by individual decision-making, rapid evaluation and promotion, and a focus on hiring employees with high technical skills. Finally, Type Z management is characterized by long-term employment, holistic concern for employees, and a focus on developing employee skills. Ouchi's theory provides a framework for understanding different management styles and their impact on organizational performance. The theory also recognizes the importance of culture commodity and values in management and highlights the need to align management style with the organization's culture and values.

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if your local coffee shop raised its coffee prices by the same amount (50 percent), would sales decline by more, less, or the same amount as calculated in part a?

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If the local coffee shop raised its coffee prices by 50%, then the sales would decline by more than the previously calculated amount in part a. Let's see why.

The price elasticity of demand refers to the extent to which the quantity demanded of a good changes when there is a change in its price. The demand for coffee is price elastic because a small change in price causes a larger change in the quantity demanded.

The magnitude of the change in quantity demanded depends on the extent of price elasticity. When the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded decreases.

The formula for price elasticity of demand is as follows: PED = % Change in Quantity Demanded / % Change in Price. Since the percentage change in price and quantity demanded is the same for a unitary elastic demand, price and quantity demanded will change by the same proportion.

For example, if the price of coffee increases by 50%, then the quantity demanded will also decrease by 50%.

This is not the case with price elastic demand, where the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price. If the price of coffee increases by 50%, the quantity demanded will decrease by more than 50%.

Therefore, the sales will decline by more than the previously calculated amount in part a. Therefore, the answer is LESS.

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a term indicating that a security is tradable and all of the requirements of the contract to sell the security have been met and the security is ready to be transferred is

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A term indicating that a security is tradable and all of the requirements of the contract to sell the security have been met and the security is ready to be transferred is known as delivery-ready securities.

Delivery-ready securities are securities that have been traded and settled, and are now ready for delivery to their owners. Securities can be in the form of cash or stock, depending on the contract's terms. Securities that are delivery-ready can be traded and transferred from the seller to the buyer immediately after the transaction is completed.

According to the definition of delivery-ready securities, it is a term indicating that a security is tradable and all of the requirements of the contract to sell the security have been met and the security is ready to be transferred.

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Suppose the 100 people in society W all know the same 10 facts, while the 100 people in society X specialize, with each person knowing 8 unique facts as well as 2 facts also known by the other 99 members of the society. Suppose that the standard of living is roughly equivalent to the total number of societal facts known per person. As the populations of the two societies continue to grow at equal rates, the ratio of the standard of living in society X to the standard of living in society W will:Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.Answer choicesrise until it reaches 100.remain constant at 80.2.fall until it reaches 40.continue to rise forever.

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The ratio of the standard of living in society X to the standard of living in society W will remain constant at 80.2 as the populations of the two societies continue to grow at equal rates.

In society W, all the 100 people know the same 10 facts, so they have the same standard of living, which is 10 facts/person. On the other hand, in society X, each person knows 8 unique facts, as well as 2 facts also known by the other 99 members of the society. Therefore, each person in society X knows a total of 100 facts (8 unique + 2 shared), and society X as a whole knows 10,000 facts (100 persons × 100 facts/person).

The standard of living is roughly equivalent to the total number of societal facts known per person. Therefore, the standard of living in society W is 10 facts/person, while in society X, it's 100 facts/person. The ratio of the standard of living in society X to the standard of living in society W is, therefore,10 / 0 = 80.2 / 1, where 0 represents the standard of living in society W, and 80.2 represents the standard of living in society X. As the populations of the two societies continue to grow at equal rates, the ratio of the standard of living in society X to the standard of living in society W will remain constant at 80.2.

Therefore, the correct option is remain constant at 80.2.

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While all economies are mixed, the economy of North Korea leans toward the ___ model

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The economy of North Korea leans toward the command model. In this model, the government sets production goals and directs the allocation of resources.

While all economies are mixed, the economy of North Korea leans toward the command model. The term "command economy" refers to an economic system in which the government determines production, distribution, and pricing decisions. The command model, also known as the planned economy or socialist economy, is an economic model that emphasizes state ownership and control over the resources available in a society. In this type of economy, the state has complete control over production, pricing, and distribution, and the government makes all of the economic decisions.

In North Korea, the government controls most of the economic activities, and the market economy is still in its early stages of development. The government controls all of the country's resources and factories, and the central planning committee makes all of the country's economic decisions. The state regulates all imports and exports, and the government sets the prices for goods and services.

In a command economy, the government has the power to direct the economy in any direction it chooses. This may mean that the government decides to focus on military spending or to develop the country's infrastructure. It may also mean that the government chooses to invest in particular industries, such as agriculture or technology.

In conclusion, the economy of North Korea leans towards the command model, in which the government has complete control over production, pricing, and distribution, and the central planning committee makes all of the economic decisions.

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at the end of the summer, walgreens advertised blow-up pools for 66% off the regular price. jeff jones saw a pool with a regular price of $49.99. the dollar markdown is:

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Based on the illustration above, the markdown is: $33.33.

Calculate markdown

The dollar markdown for a blow-up pool with a regular price of $49.99 advertised by Walgreens at the end of the summer for 66% off the regular price is $33.33.

To calculate this, we can use the following formula: 

Markdown = Regular Price - (Regular Price x Discount Percentage)

 In this case, the markdown is:

 $49.99 - ($49.99 x 0.66) = $33.33.

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is a key activity performed by operations managers that involves deciding the best way to assign people to work tasks and responsibilities. a. forecasting b. process design c. job design

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Job design is a key activity performed by Operations Managers that involves deciding the best way to assign people to work tasks and responsibilities. The correct answer is c. Job Design.

Operations managers are responsible for job design, which is the process of assigning people to work tasks and responsibilities. Job design involves analyzing tasks, determining the best way to assign people to these tasks, and deciding the skills and qualifications that are necessary for the job. Forecasting is the process of predicting future events or outcomes, and process design is the process of developing and analyzing processes to increase efficiency.

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algoe expects to invest $1,000 annually for 40 years to yield an accumulated value of $154,762 on the date of the last investment. for this to occur, what rate of interest must algoe earn?

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Algoe expects to invest $1,000 annually for 40 years to yield an accumulated value of $154,762 on the date of the last investment. For this to occur, Algoe must earn an interest rate of 5% per annum.

Explanation:

Let us calculate the future value of annuity using the formula:

FV An = A[(1 + r)n - 1] / r

Where, A = Payment/r = Interest rate n = Number of periods

For 40 years and $1,000 annually, n = 40 and A = $1,000.FVAn = $1,000[(1 + r)40 - 1] / r

The accumulated value should be $154,762 at the end of 40 years.

Therefore, FV An = $154,762$154,762 = $1,000[(1 + r)40 - 1] / r

Multiplying both sides by r,$154,762r = $1,000[(1 + r)40 - 1]

Expanding (1 + r)40 and

simplifying,$154,762r = $1,000[18.1022r]154,762r = $18,102.2r

Dividing both sides by r,$154,762 = $18,102.2

Therefore, the required interest rate r = 154,762/18,102.2 ≈ 0.05 or 5% per annum.

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The dispute then ended up in the Supreme Court of the United States, with Chief Justice John Marshall presiding.Did Congress have the power to establish a national bank?McCulloch Argument:Congress debated the creation of the national bank a few years ago. Members of Congress believed they had the right to create the Second Bank of the United States, citing the Necessary and Proper Clause (Article I, Section 8, Clause 18). The members believed that the bank was a "necessary and proper" way for Congress to conduct the financial operations of the nation. Congress referred to these as "implied powers," stating that the Constitution only provides a framework and cannot specifically outline every detail of national operations.Maryland Argument:The Constitution does not directly grant the power to charter a national bank. It is also not an implied power. Therefore, Congress did not have the right to establish a national bank. The states should determine the right to establish a bank.Was the Maryland law that taxed nationally chartered banks unconstitutional, interfering with federal powers?McCulloch Argument:The Supremacy Clause (Article VI, Clause 2) states that federal law takes priority over state law. The bank is a federal function which no state may interfere. If Maryland can tax the national bank, it could interfere enough to cause the bank to close.Maryland:Maryland is a sovereign state; it has the right to tax individuals and businesses in its state borders.The JudgementThe Supreme Court unanimously (70) ruled in favor of McCulloch and the federal government. The case was important because it established a precedent for the relationships between the federal government and the state governments. It stated that the federal government had powers the Constitution did not list, known as implied powers. These implied powers granted Congress the constitutional right to establish a national bank. 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