Estimated Energy Demand (EER) is the average expected to maintain energy balance in healthy, normal-weight individuals with defined age, sex, weight, height, and level of physical activity consistent with health. dietary energy intake.
Estimated Energy Demand (EER):
For children, pregnant and lactating women, EER includes needs related to growth or lactation in proportions consistent with health.
His EER prediction equation, developed by the Institute of Medicine, was published in September 2002 and used to formulate new U.S. dietary guidelines when the revised Food Pyramid (MyPyramid) was released in 2005. it was done.
These equations are based on a large double-labeled water database (considered the gold standard for measuring total energy use).
Total energy expenditure (TEE) is the sum of energy expended for basal metabolic rate, TEF (Thermal Effect of Food), physical activity and thermoregulation, as well as new tissue formation and milk production.
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functional foods are whole or modified foods that contain bioactive food components believed to provide health benefits, such as reduced disease risks, beyond the benefits that their nutrients confer.
All whole foods are functional in the some respects since they supply at least some necessary nutrients, but specific foods stand out as rich suppliers of bioactive dietary components.
Functional food :A functional food is one that claims to have a new purpose by combining two or more current ingredients. The phrase may also refer to features that have been purposefully bred into existing food plants, such as violet or gold potatoes with higher anthocyanin or carotenoid levels.
What are the simplest types of functional foods?Whole foods, such as fruits and vegetables, are the most basic example of functional foods. Functional foods include foods that have been supplemented, enriched, or enhanced with nutrients, phytonutrients, or botanicals, as well as nutrition supplements.
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which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? a patient diagnosed with: group of answer choices
The nurse should assess a patient diagnosed with renal failure.
Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis.
Hypernatremia is resulted by Diabetes Insipidus.
Respiratory acidosis is brought on by pulmonary conditions, however hyperkalemia is unaffected.
What is respiratory acidosis?
When the lungs are unable to expel all of the carbon dioxide the body produces, a condition known as respiratory acidosis develops. Body fluids, particularly the blood, become too acidic as a result.
What is Hypernatremia?
Most frequently, those who don't drink enough water develop hypernatremia. Usually, this is brought on by insufficient thirst or poor judgment. Examples include a person who suffers from dementia or a baby who has trouble accessing fluids.
Metabolic acidosis: What is it?
Metabolic acidosis refers to the accumulation of acid in the body brought on by renal disease or kidney failure. Insufficient acid excretion, excessive acid production, or an inability to maintain a healthy balance of acid in your body are all symptoms of having too much acid in your body fluids.
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If a patient's allowed amount is $100, and the patient has a 20 percent coinsurance and $10 copay, how much will the patient need to pay?
Question 17 options:
a) $30
b) $40
c) $10
d) $50
Answer: C i believe
Explanation:
the impact of dietary patterns and nutrition in nonalcoholic fatty liver disease ahyoung kim, md arunkumar krishnan, mbbs james p. hamilton, md tinsay a. woreta, md, mph
One of the most widespread causes of chronic liver disease worldwide is a nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).
In proportion to the increases in obesity, sedentary lifestyles, bad eating habits, and metabolic syndrome, the prevalence of NAFLD have increased.
At the moment, the cornerstone of treatment is lifestyle adjustment with an emphasis on losing 7–10% of body weight, engaging in cardiovascular activity, and increasing insulin sensitivity.
Consistent data revealed that a Mediterranean diet was linked to a lower risk of both NAFLD and HCC, but a higher dietary inflammatory potential was linked to an elevated risk of both diseases.
More adherence to the Mediterranean Diet Score, Healthy Eating Index, Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, and dietary patterns with high dietary antioxidant capacity also lowered the chance of developing NAFLD.
While overall veggies and spinach were linked to lower NAFLD risk, some individual items, such as soft drinks and red or processed meat, were linked to increased risk. Consumption of white meat and coffee was negatively correlated with the risk of HCC.
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a nurse is planning for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. which of the folling interventions should the nurse
Manifestations of a stage 3 pressure ulcer can include full-thickness skin loss with necrotic subcutaneous tissue.
Necrotic subcutaneous :Inflammation of the subcutaneous adipose tissue that typically manifests in the first week of life in full-term neonates is called subcutaneous fat necrosis (SCFN). Pain, scarring, and hypercalcemia are among the complications that can appear weeks after physical examination findings of SCFN.
A rare form of panniculitis in newborns is subcutaneous fat necrosis (SCFN). In the first few weeks of life, red, red-brown, or violaceous subcutaneous nodules and indurated plaques commonly appear on the back, buttocks, proximal extremities, or cheeks.
What causes subcutaneous fat necrosis?Subcutaneous fat necrosis is caused by some form of intrauterine or perinatal trauma. It has been linked to neonatal hypoxia, meconium aspiration, hypothermia, and maternal cocaine usage.
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the community health nurse leader is providing annual education on healthy people 2030 for local nurses. which is the best explanation of the program’s goals?
Over the next ten years, Healthy People 2030 sets data-driven national goals to enhance health and well-being. Along with 358 main quantifiable objectives, Healthy People 2030 also includes research and development goals. Find out more about the various aims.
What is the program healthy people 2030 ?The overarching objectives of Healthy People 2030 are to: Achieve healthy, thriving lives and well-being free from preventable illness, disability, injury, and untimely death. To promote everyone's health and wellbeing, eliminate health inequities, establish health equity, and increase health literacy.
In Healthy People 2030, the social determinants of health are given more attention (SDOH). Our partners are concentrating on SDOH nationally as well. They are making a lot of effort to enhance the surroundings of individuals through interventions, policies, and programmes.Learn more about Healthy people 2030 here:
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when at a clinical site, i will do my best to be cautious and work to prevent occupational exposure to infectious materials for myself, my fellow students, and all providers.
The statement "When at a clinical site, I will do my best to be cautious and work to prevent occupational exposure to infectious materials for myself, my fellow students, and all providers." is true.
No of whether a patient has a suspected or proven infection, Standard Precautions are the minimal infection prevention procedures that must be followed in any place where medical treatment is provided. These procedures are intended to safeguard DHCP as well as stop it from infecting patients. The usual precautions are:
hand cleanlinessPersonal protective equipment usage (e.g., gloves, masks, eyewear).Coughing manners and respiratory hygiene.Sharps security (engineering and work practice controls).secure injection techniques (i.e., aseptic technique for parenteral medications).sterile tools and equipment.the surfaces of the surroundings are clean and sanitized.Here is another question with an answer similar to this about Standard Precautions: https://brainly.com/question/2026998
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An experiment in which neither the subjects nor the experimenters know whether a drug or a placebo is being given is called a _____ experiment.
Historically, clinical documentation improvement activities have focused on the inpatient setting because of _________.
Historically, clinical documentation improvement activities have focused on the inpatient setting because of the large amount of inpatient documentation.
Clinical documentation:The development of a digital or analog record outlining a medical treatment, medical trial, or clinical test is referred to as clinical documentation (CD). Clinical records must be accurate, timely, and unique to the services offered to a patient.
What is the purpose of clinical documentation?Clinical documentation's primary goal should be to support patient care and improve clinical outcomes through improved communication. The basic goal of clinical documentation is to promote effective patient care.
What are the types of clinical documentation?Treatment and observation notes, care plans, letters, test results, x-rays, clinical pictures, medication charts, checklists, operation reports, transfer forms, clinical summaries, and information from specialists, community workers, or general practitioners are all examples of these papers.
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What is a key activity that significantly improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs?
A key activity that significantly improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs is referred to as concurrent physician query and is denoted as option B.
What is Clinical documentation?This summarizes a patient's encounter with a healthcare professional and contains information about a patient's medical care which is entered in a medical record by an assigned person.
Concurrent physician query on the other hand, allows the relevant diagnosis done by the doctor to be noted while care is being rendered to the patient.
This helps to improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs due to the detailed information about the patient which is contained in the records.
This is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
Retrospective coding reviewConcurrent physician queryRetrospective physician query.Group physician education.a client is to transferred from a bed to a gurney. this person has had orthopedic surgery for scoliosis three weeks ago. what would help with the transfer the most?
A client is to transferred from a bed to a gurney. The advantage of gurney for the patient who has orthopedic surgery is that gurney has wheels and it will help to move the patient easily.
What is orthopedic surgery?Orthopedic surgery is the surgery of bone and bone is made up of bone cells known as osteocytes. The total number of bone that has been found in human body is 206 bones with bones of spine, legs, arms, ribs, and skull.
Bones are made up of calcium and carbonate and they are having bone marrow which is the storage of blood cells are produced. Naturally, bones has been came in category of living and they are tissue which is active.There are several types of bones such as flat bones, short bones, sesamoid bones, and long bones. The function of bone is to protect important organs of the body.
Therefore, A client is to transferred from a bed to a gurney. The advantage of gurney for the patient who has orthopedic surgery is that gurney has wheels and it will help to move the patient easily.
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a nurse educator determines that the present classroom environment is ineffective in promoting critical thinking. what methods could the educator employ in the classroom to improve critical thinking? (select all that apply.)bf enus850us850
Answer:
you need to include the following answers so i can help you respond to this so i can comeback and help you
Explanation:
korsakoff's syndrome, which is sometimes suffered by chronic, heavy users of alcohol, is characterized by:
Korsakoff's syndrome (also known as Korsakoff's amnesia syndrome) is memory impairment resulting from vitamin B1 deficiency and is associated with alcoholism.
Korsakoff syndrome damages nerve cells and supporting cells in the brain and spinal cord, as well as parts of the brain responsible for memory. Symptoms include memory loss, tremors, coma, disorientation, and blurred vision. The main features of this disorder are problems acquiring new information or forming new memories and recalling previous memories. Although Wernicke and Korsakoff are related disorders, some scientists believe they are different stages of the same condition called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. A syndrome describes a disorder that progresses in "chronic" or long-lasting stages. Most symptoms of Wernicke encephalopathy can be reversed if they are promptly and thoroughly recognized and treated. Stopping drinking can prevent further damage to your nerves and brain.
However, improvement in memory function is slow and usually incomplete. Without treatment, these conditions can be disabling and life-threatening.
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chen j, lu h, yan d, cui f, wang x, yu f, xue y, feng x, wang j, wang x, jiang t, zhang m, zhao s, et al. pak6 increase chemoresistance and is a prognostic marker for stage ii and iii colon cancer patients undergoing 5-fu based chemotherapy. oncotarget. 2015; 6:355–367. doi: 10.18632/oncotarget.2803.
The enzyme has been linked top21-activated kinase 6 (PAK6) docetaxel resistance and radiotherapy. PAK6 as a predictor of colon cancer therapy response to 5-fluorouracil (5-FU).
PAK6 enhances tumor growth and chemo resistance in colon cancer both in vitro and in vivo. In the clinical investigation, stage II and stage III patients who underwent 5-FU-based chemotherapy after surgery were shown to have PAK6 overexpression in 104 of 147 (70.75%) patients. PAK6 was found to be an independent predictive factor for both overall survival and disease-free survival, according to multivariate Cox regression analysis (P 0.001). Following 5-FU treatment, colon cancer cell lines expressed more PAK6.
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A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. the nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by?
The arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by indicating the obstruction’s position and the collateral circulation.
Locating the locations of volume changes are by scanning the affected extremities.
Which ailment most frequently develops in coronary artery disease (CAD)?Atherosclerosis, a vascular damage caused by cholesterol plaque formation in the arteries, is the most frequent cause of CAD.
Which client is most at risk for coronary artery disease?Ages >45 for men and >55 for women are included in the age ranges when there is an increased risk of having CAD.
Reduced blood flow happens when one or more of these arteries become partially or completely blocked
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effect of bronchodilation, exercise training, and behavior modification on symptoms and physical activity in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
EET in COPD patients enrolled in an SMBM program improved with tiotropium/olodaterol, with or without ExT.
Combination bronchodilation, with or without ExT, reduced dyspnea and difficulties associated with PA but did not lead to additional increases in objective PA compared to SMBM alone.
In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), bronchodilation and exercise training (ExT) increase exercise tolerance; however, behavioural adjustment is necessary to affect daily physical activity (PA).
How is persistent bronchitis managed?
giving up smoking.staying away from respiratory irritants like secondhand smoke.taking oral medications to help remove mucus and open airways.taking inhaled medications, such as steroids and bronchodilators.obtaining oxygen from transportable jars.The muscles can utilise less oxygen when they are active and become more effective.Learn more about COPD here:
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which is the most important step in the management of the airway in a patient with an esophagogastric varice?
The most crucial step in managing the patient's airway when they have esophagogastric varices is suction.
It's critical for management to calculate blood loss precisely. A patient with unstable hemodynamics may require vigorous suction and volume resuscitation.
Esophageal varices are abnormal, swollen veins in the tube that joins the throat and stomach (esophagus). The most frequent cause of this illness among people affected is severe liver issues. Esophageal varices can develop when a clot or scar tissue in the liver restricts normal blood flow to the liver.
To get around the blockages, blood enters smaller blood vessels that are not designed to carry large volumes of blood. The blood arteries can burst, resulting in potentially fatal hemorrhage. A variety of drugs and medical treatments can be used to control or prevent the bleeding that might result from esophageal varices.
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for diazepam. which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for diazepam. Diazepam can cause drowsiness, this information should the nurse include in the teaching.
What kind of drug is diazepam?Benzodiazepines are a class of antidepressant medications. Many pharmaceuticals fall under this category, and some, such as diazepam (Valium), are prescribed as medicines in the United Kingdom. They are usually recommended for anxiety or sleeping issues.
What are the side effects of diazepam?Drowsiness, dizziness, weariness, blurred vision, or unsteadiness are all possible side effects. Inform your physician or pharmacist right once if any of these effects persist or worsen. Remember that your specialist has prescribed this medication because the advantages to you outweighs the risk of adverse effects.
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a client with renal impairment is in need of a diuretic. because of the renal problem, potassium-sparing diuretics are contraindicated but may be used if there is no other option. if they are used at all, what nursing intervention would be most important for this client?
The most important nursing intervention for a client performed with the use of potassium-sparing diuretics is monitoring of serum electrolytes, creatinine, and BUN.
Renal disease, whether it originates in the kidneys directly or as a result of a systemic process, is frequently accompanied with edema, an increase in blood pressure, or both. It is generally recommended for a client in need for diuretic.
For both mild to moderate hypertension and severe hypertension, oral diuretics have gained widespread acceptance as the major treatment agents. Blood potassium levels may also be impacted by diuretics.
A thiazide diuretic may cause your potassium level to drop too low, or hypokalemia, which may result in potentially fatal issues with your heartbeat. You can have too much potassium in your blood if you're taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.
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what warning signs should the nurse teach the client to observe for during the second and third trimester of pregnancy? include your rationale for this client teaching.
Regular contractions or tightening of the uterus before 36 weeks (greater than four contractions in one hour) Chills and fever over 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit. Vaginal bleeding. Sudden increase in vaginal discharge.
What is trimester in pregnancy ?First trimester, second trimester, and third trimester are the three stages that make up a pregnancy. A full-term pregnancy lasts about 40 weeks starting on the first day of a woman's last period, while a trimester lasts between 12 and 14 weeks.
The most essential period for the growth of your unborn child is the first trimester. Your baby's bodily structure and organ systems grow throughout this time. Most miscarriages and birth abnormalities occur during this period.Your unborn child will develop in the first trimester from a fertilised egg into a moving foetus with eyes, hearing, and functional organs. Your baby's characteristics begin to take shape during the second trimester, and you might even feel your baby move. Your unborn child will grow quickly in the third trimester as it prepares to be born.Learn more about Trimester here:
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a 50-year-old woman presents with acute shortness of breath. her skin is pale and she is anxious. you should:
Assess her breathing and give her high-flow oxygen as needed.
Respiratory infections such as bronchitis and pneumonia are among the most common causes of sudden shortness of breath. Other symptoms such as fever, cough, phlegm or phlegm production are commonly caused by these diseases. You may feel embarrassed or frightened when you first experience shortness of breath or while completing a task that you previously thought was easy. Sometimes it's hard to pinpoint the exact cause, but it could be a heart or lung problem, or a low blood count. can be effectively treated. Many cases of shortness of breath are caused by simple, temporary problems.Assessing her breath is the correct answer.
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Kevin recently fell in the kitchen and Injured one of his joints. However, Kevin knew that he had suffered a strain and not a sprain because there
was no what?
OA bruising
OB. blood
OC. pain
OD. abrasions
transvaginal trigger point injections for pelvic floor myofascial spasm: a retrospective review of pain assessment and development of a treatment algorithm
Transvaginal Trigger Point Injections are a Retrospective Review of Pain Assessment and Development of a Treatment Algorithm for Pelvic Floor Myofascial Spasm.
Introduction:
To assess the effectiveness of trigger point injections (TPIs) for pelvic floor myofascial spasms, a retrospective chart review of visual analog scale (VAS) ratings was completed before and after the injections were done.
Methods:
There were 68 female patients who received TPIs between October 9, 2007, and March 12, 2015. The disparity between scores served as the main endpoint. Patients who need more TPIs underwent secondary analyses. The paired t-test and descriptive analyses were both performed.
Conclusions:
We present data on 68 female patients who received TPIs, with a 65% increase in VAS pain levels. APIs for pelvic floor myofascial spasms appear to be effective in lowering pain scores in patients who are unresponsive to first therapy.
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a nurse is caring for four clients. after administering morning medications, she realizes that the nifedipine prescribed for one client was inadvertently administered to another client. which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
The nurse's action is to firstly (4) check the client's vital signs.
Given that nifedipine reduces blood pressure, the nurse should make sure the client is not hypotensive before administering the medication. The nurse can go on to other tasks once the client is secure. This drug is used to stop some forms of chest discomfort (angina).
You might be able to exercise more and experience angina episodes less frequently. The group of drugs known as calcium channel blockers includes nifedipine. In order to facilitate easier blood flow, it acts by relaxing blood vessels.
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Question correction:
After administering morning medications, a nurse realizes that the nifedipine (Procardia) prescribed for one client was inadvertently administered to the client's roommate. The nurse's priority action should be to:
1. Notify the provider
2. Fill out an occurrence form
3. Administer the medication to the correct client
4. Check the client's vital signs
27 of 50 question 27. which of the following would indicate that an applicant for licensure is likely to possess the good professional character necessary to hold a nursing license in texas? a. the occupations of the applicant's parents and their standing in the community. b. the applicant's personal acquaintance with community and government leaders. c. the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he/she has not committed a violation of the nursing practice act or a board rule. d. the applicant's knowledge about state regulations for the health care industry.
The statement that indicates that the applicant is likely to possess the good professional character necessary to hold a nursing license in texas is when the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he/she has not committed a violation of the nursing practice act or a board rule. That is option C.
What is a nursing license?A nursing license is a legal permit that gives a registered nurse the authority and protection to carry out the various procedures required of a nurse who has undergone proper training in a registered institution.
Licensure is defined as the process by which a governing body of nursing grants permission to an individual to engage in nursing practice after attaining and proving the competency necessary to perform the unique scope of the nursing practice.
The be able to hold a nursing license in Texas, the applicant must provide satisfactory evidence that he/she has not committed a violation of the nursing practice act or a board rule as this shows they are of good professional character.
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The emergency room record must include the time, immediate care and treatment notes, final disposition, condition at discharge, instructions for follow-up, and _____________.
The record for the emergency room must include the following information: the time, notes on any immediate care and treatment, the outcome, the patient's condition at discharge, orders for any additional care, and the time of arrival.
Describe the emergency room:Serious illness patients are treated in the emergency room, and cardiac arrest is prevented in those who exhibit physiological instability symptoms at the time a patient enters the emergency room.
Triage is the initial step when a patient first enters the emergency room, which is now more commonly referred to as the Emergency Department. A nurse will normally classify each patient's health into one of three categories during triage: Immediately life threatening, moderate, or severe. urgent but not necessarily life-threatening right away.
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centers for disease control actually recommend that patients who are current tobacco users stop smoking at least one month before surgery.
One in four deaths from heart disease and stroke are directly related to cigarette smoking, which is a leading cause of both conditions.
Heart disease and stroke risks are increased by 25% to 30% in nonsmokers who are exposed to secondhand smoke at home or at work.
CDC: How much nicotine is in a cigarette?Between 1954 and 1993, levels of tar and nicotine fell. Tar was 12 mg in 1993 compared to 38 mg in 1954, while nicotine was 0.95 mg instead. Since 1993, tar and nicotine levels have remained constant.
Does CDC encourage smoking?29 reports on the negative effects of smoking have been produced by this section, which eventually became the Office on Smoking and Health under the CDC. Therefore, it is untrue to say that the CDC encouraged nicotine use or smoking.What is a wholesome substitute for cigarettes?"Quick response products" include nicotine chewing gum, lozenges, pills, mouthwash, and inhalers.
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lateral retinal vasculitis in a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus and its remission with rituximab therapy. lupus. 2010
The anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody rituximab, a medication with a proven role in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and promising results in case studies for the management of severe SLE.
What is Systemic lupus erythematosus?
Systemic lupus erythematosus patients can experience severe retinal vasculitis, which can result in blindness (SLE). A condition when the immune system assaults its own tissues and results in inflammation. Joints, skin, kidneys, blood cells, brain, heart, and lungs can all be impacted by lupus (SLE). Fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever are a few of the many symptoms that might occur.
These may occasionally deteriorate (flare-up) before recovering. Although there is no known cure for lupus, modern therapies aim to enhance quality of life by reducing flare-ups and regulating symptoms. Changes in food and lifestyle, such as using sunscreen, should be made first. Medication for further illness care comprises steroid and anti-inflammatory drugs.
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According to the big five, a person who can be described as anxious, tense, and insecure most likely scored high in __________. a. conscientiousness b. neuroticism c. agreeableness d. extraversion please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Answer: b neuroticism
Answer:
B. neuroticism
Explanation:
Goot 100% on Edge test :D
jin jun, melissa m. ojemani, richa kalamani, jonathan tong, and matthew l. crecelius, relationship between nurse burnout, patient and organization outcomes: systemic review, int’l j. of nursing studies, vol. 119 (2021)
Nurse burnout was consistently inversely associated with outcome measures.
How does nurse burnout affect patient outcomes?Clinicians with burnout may have reduced attentiveness, remembering, and executive function, which reduces retention and focus on detail," the AHRQ researchers added. "Reduced alertness, cognitive function, and greater safety lapses put physicians and patients at risk for errors.
How does nurse burnout affect the organization?Abundant studies have proven the deleterious impact of burnout. Burnout reduces nurses' life's quality of life, performance, and organizational commitment, as well as their desire to leave the job. Burnout also increases turnover and has a negative influence on nursing quality care.
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