Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist medication used to treat peptic ulcer disease. Its mechanism of action is to inhibit gastric acid secretion.
Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist used to treat stomach and duodenal ulcers. It works by blocking the production of acid in the stomach and decreasing inflammation. It can also be used to treat GERD, and in some cases, to prevent heartburn. Neutralizing gastric acidity, increasing gastric motility, and facilitating histamine release are not actions of famotidine.
Common side effects include nausea, constipation, and headache. In serious cases, it can cause kidney failure. The recommended dosage of famotidine is typically 20 mg per day.
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the health care provider orders the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube. when gathering the equipment for the insertion, what will the nurse select?
The nurse should select the following equipment when gathering for the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube: Single lumen nasogastric tube is a flexible tube that is passed through the nose or mouth, down the esophagus and into the stomach.
It is commonly used to feed and medicate patients who are unable to swallow or to remove substances from the stomach. The nurse should select the following equipment when gathering for the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube: Sterile gloves Lubricating jelly Sterile container or package containing the nasogastric tube Syringe and stethoscope.
Water-soluble lubricant Tissue Paper tape to secure the tube Measure to verify the length of insertion A syringe should also be available to inject air into the tube to confirm the proper placement of the tube in the stomach. The following terms are used in the answer: lumen nasogastric tube.
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which action would the nurse take for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is paranoid, delusional, withdrawn, and negativistic?
For a patient with schizophrenia, paranoid type, the nurse would take action to ensure the client's safety, provide support and respect, maintain an open dialogue, and provide clear instructions. Do activities that require limited interpersonal contact and don't do an authoritarian approach.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by abnormal social behavior and difficulty in perceiving reality. Common symptoms include disorganized speech, delusions, hallucinations, and changes in behavior. It can be disabling and can lead to withdrawal from society. Treatment includes medications and psychosocial interventions such as individual and family therapy.
Some of the main symptoms of schizophrenia include changes in behavior, difficulty thinking and speaking, difficulty with concentration and memory, and difficulty with emotion.
Schizophrenia is a long-term disorder that usually requires lifelong treatment. Treatment usually includes antipsychotic medications, psychosocial interventions, and supportive therapies. It is important to note that with treatment, many people with schizophrenia are able to lead productive lives.
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after the birth of a neonate, a quick assessment is completed. the neonate is found to be apneic. after quickly drying and positioning the neonate, what should the nurse do next?
After the birth of a neonate, a quick assessment is completed. The neonate is found to be apneic. After quickly drying and positioning the neonate, the next thing the nurse should do is to stimulate the neonate.
This can be achieved by gently rubbing or tapping the soles of the neonate’s feet or by flicking the soles of the feet or gently slapping the back of the neonate's thighs to stimulate breathing. A neonate who is not breathing normally or who is apneic should be stimulated immediately. Stimulation causes the neonate to breathe by activating the respiratory center in the medulla oblongata, which signals the neonate to breathe.
In addition to being life-saving, stimulation is a non-invasive, cost-effective, and simple technique that can be performed by any caregiver or clinician. However, the stimulation technique must be modified based on the neonate's gestational age, underlying medical condition, and other factors if the neonate does not respond to the initial stimulation.
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a client who is legally blind must undergo a colonoscopy. the nurse is helping the healthcare provider obtain informed consent. when obtaining informed consent from a client who is visually impaired, the nurse should take which step?
When obtaining informed consent from a client who is visually impaired, the nurse should take which step: The nurse must read the informed consent form, explain the procedure in easy-to-understand terms, and answer any questions the patient may have to ensure that they understand the information provided.
Informed consent is a legal and ethical necessity that must be obtained before any medical treatment is provided to the patient. It's a way for medical professionals to get permission from a patient before providing them with treatment, medications, or surgical procedures.
Informed consent is crucial since it ensures that patients understand the risks, benefits, and alternatives available to them when receiving treatment.
Some of the considerations to make when obtaining informed consent from a visually impaired patient include: Utilizing sensory aids such as audio tapes or Braille-reading materials.
Explain the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.
Making eye contact and employing proper body language to convey empathy. Talk in a calm and clear tone. Ask the patient if they have any questions and provide additional information if necessary.
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if a nurse quits his job telling his supervisor that he will not be back at work the fillowing morning. The supervisor tells he has to complete the entire month or it will he patient abandonment. Is this true or false?
which intervention would be a priority for the nurse to implement topromote client safety directly after esophagogastroduodenoscopy (egd)? select all that
The priority of care to promote client safety directly after esophagogastroduodenoscopy is "preventing aspiration" (1), which should be the primary concern due to the risk of residual sedation and irritation of the throat.
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) is an invasive procedure that involves inserting a flexible endoscope through the mouth into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. After the procedure, the client is at risk of aspiration due to residual sedation and throat irritation.
Therefore, the primary priority of care is preventing aspiration, which can be achieved by keeping the client in a semi-upright position, monitoring their respiratory status, and withholding oral intake until the gag reflex returns. Reminding the client not to drive and teaching them about hoarseness of voice are important, but they are not immediate concerns for client safety after EGD.
Monitoring for signs of perforation is also important but is a secondary priority. Advising the client to use throat lozenges may even be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration.
This question should be provided as:
What is the priority of care to promote client safety directly after esophagogastroduodenoscopy? Select all that apply.
1. preventing aspiration2. reminding the client not to drive3. monitoring for signs of perforation4. advising the client to use throat lozenges5. teaching the client about hoarseness of voiceLearn more about esophagogastroduodenoscopy https://brainly.com/question/19403119
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which ntervention would help the nurse communicate with patient swith varying degress of hearing losss
Answer: The different interventions to help the nurse communicate with patients with varying degrees of hearing loss are alternative communication methods, patient-centered communication and face-to-face communication.
There are different interventions to help the nurse communicate with patients with varying degrees of hearing loss.
One of the interventions is through the use of alternative communication methods.
Alterative communication methods include writing or typing down the message, using sign language, or using assistive devices such as text messaging, communication boards or picture cards. The use of technology can also help nurses to communicate with patients with hearing loss.
Some of these technologies include cochlear implants, hearing aids and captioned phones. The nurse can also use some techniques to enhance communication.
One such technique is face-to-face communication.
In this approach, the nurse speaks directly to the patient in a well-lit area and facing the patient directly. This technique also involves using clear and concise sentences that are easy to understand. The nurse can also use visual cues such as facial expressions, body language and gestures to enhance communication.
The use of interpreters can also help nurses to communicate with patients with hearing loss. Interpreters can be family members, friends or professional interpreters. They help to relay the message from the nurse to the patient and vice versa.
The nurse can also use patient-centered communication to enhance communication with patients with hearing loss. In this approach, the nurse listens carefully to the patient, acknowledges their feelings and concerns and then responds appropriately. This approach helps to build trust and respect between the nurse and the patient.
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an elderly client who is hypotensive has been admitted to the nursing unit for fluid replacement therapy. what intravenous solution would the nurse expect to administer?
The nurse would expect to administer a 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) intravenous solution to the hypotensive elderly client for fluid replacement therapy.
what is normal saline?Normal saline is the most commonly used intravenous fluid for hypotension, as it helps restore normal fluid balance and correct electrolyte imbalances. Normal saline is an isotonic solution that is composed of sodium chloride and water, and has a near-neutral pH. It is a safe, effective and inexpensive solution for fluid replacement therapy and is readily available in most healthcare facilities.
Normal saline works by restoring fluid volume and improving cardiac output and blood pressure. This action is achieved by increasing circulating blood volume and decreasing cardiac afterload. It also helps correct electrolyte imbalances, such as sodium and potassium levels, and assists in restoring acid-base balance. Moreover, it helps increase organ perfusion and tissue oxygenation, thus improving overall patient health.
Normal saline is administered intravenously and is slowly infused to avoid overhydration or fluid overload. The usual adult dose is 250 to 500 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride over 30 to 60 minutes. The nurse should also monitor the patient’s vital signs and fluid balance during and after the infusion, as well as watch for signs of fluid overload.
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he nurse and a family member of an older adult client who is sedentary are discussing strategies for preventing malnutrition in the client. what recommendation should the nurse make?
For a client that needs to prevent malnutrition, The nurse should recommend increasing the client's dietary intake with high-calorie, nutrient-dense foods like avocados, nuts, seeds, and whole grains. Additionally, the nurse should recommend increasing physical activity and diversifying the client's diet by introducing a variety of fruits, vegetables, and proteins.
Malnutrition is a condition caused by not having enough nutrients, including proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, and minerals. It can be caused by inadequate intake of food, as well as diseases that prevent the body from absorbing nutrients. Malnutrition can lead to a weakened immune system, increased risk of infections, developmental delays, and increased risk of mortality.
The most common type of malnutrition is protein-energy malnutrition, which can occur when someone does not have access to enough food or is eating foods that are low in nutrition. Other forms of malnutrition include micronutrient deficiencies, such as iron deficiency anemia, and overnutrition, which is the intake of too much food.
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the nurse is reviewing the medical records of several clients. which client has a condition that is an autoimmune disorder?
which client activity warrants the highest priority for education about health promotion to prevent head and neck cancer? select all that apply. one, some, or
Tobacco use, including smoking and smokeless tobacco, is the client behavior that requires the highest priority for education regarding health promotion to prevent head and neck cancer.
Tobacco use is the most significant risk factor for head and neck cancer. Smoking and smokeless tobacco increase the risk of developing cancer in the mouth, throat, larynx, and pharynx. Educating clients on the harmful effects of tobacco and providing resources for smoking cessation can significantly reduce the risk of head and neck cancer.
Additionally, promoting healthy lifestyle habits, such as a balanced diet, regular exercise, and limiting alcohol consumption, can further reduce the risk of cancer. However, given the significant impact of tobacco on head and neck cancer, education on tobacco use should be the highest priority for prevention.
The answer is general as no options are provided.
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which complication would the nurse anticipate finding during the assessment of a client admitted with a diagnosis of severe procidentia
The nurse would anticipate finding complications such as ulcerations when assessing a client with a diagnosis of severe procidentia.
Procidentia, or uterine prolapse, occurs when the uterus slips out of its normal position in the pelvic cavity and descends towards or into the vaginal canal. It can happen to women of any age but is most common in postmenopausal women and those who have had multiple pregnancies. Symptoms may include feeling a heaviness in the pelvic area, pain in the lower back, or discomfort with intercourse. If the prolapse is severe enough, the uterus may be visible outside of the vagina.
If it is mild, pelvic floor exercises may be enough to strengthen the muscles and ligaments around the uterus, while more severe cases may require surgery. It is important to seek medical advice if you have any symptoms of uterine prolapse. If left untreated, uterine prolapse can lead to more serious problems such as urinary or fecal incontinence, urinary tract infections, and bleeding.
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your medical patient seen today needs long term hemodialysis services. you telephone for authorization to get verbal approval. four important items to obtain are?
It is important to obtain verbal authorization when a medical patient needs long-term hemodialysis services. The four important items to obtain during this process are:
Name of the patientMedical diagnosisProcedures and services requestedName of the person giving authorizationThe name of the patient is needed in order to verify their identity and to ensure that the correct patient is receiving the correct services. The medical diagnosis is necessary to explain why the patient needs hemodialysis services and to ensure that the services being provided are appropriate and necessary for their condition. The procedures and services requested should be outlined in detail to provide the authorizing person with a clear understanding of what is being requested. Lastly, the name of the authorized person should be obtained to ensure that the authorization is valid.
Long-term hemodialysis services can be life-saving for some medical patients, and it is important to obtain verbal authorization in order to provide the necessary services. By obtaining the four important items mentioned above, medical professionals can ensure that the authorization is valid and that the patient will receive the necessary care.
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a patient is prescribed both a diuretic and a dobutamine in teh immediate post op period. what adverse druge reactions will the prescriber consider as possible?
The prescriber should consider potential adverse drug reactions when prescribing a diuretic and dobutamine in the immediate postoperative period. These may include hypotension, tachycardia, dysrhythmias, cardiac arrhythmias, electrolyte imbalances, pulmonary edema, nausea and vomiting.
Hypotension is a common adverse effect of diuretics, and is more likely when the patient has hypovolemia or is on concurrent antihypertensive therapy. Tachycardia, dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrhythmias can occur with both diuretics and dobutamine. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypernatremia can occur with diuretics, while dobutamine may cause hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypomagnesemia. Pulmonary edema is a potential adverse reaction to dobutamine. Nausea and vomiting are possible with both drugs.
Therefore, when prescribing a diuretic and dobutamine in the immediate postoperative period, the prescriber should consider these potential adverse drug reactions and take appropriate precautions. It is important to monitor the patient's vital signs, electrolytes, and renal function to ensure the safety and efficacy of the medications.
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which laboratory information will the nurse assess to detect if hit develops ina client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion
Answer:
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Explanation:
Platelet aggregation in HIT causes neutralization of heparin, so that the activated partial thromboplastin time will be shorter and more heparin will be needed to maintain therapeutic levels.
for ct of the foot, when the patient is positioned with knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in which plane?
For the CT Scan of the foot, when the patient is positioned with knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in the axial plane.
When the patient is positioned with knees bent, feet flat on the scan table, and the gantry is angled perpendicular to the subtalar joint, data are acquired directly in the coronal plane during CT of the foot. Computed tomography (CT) scans, also known as CAT (computed axial tomography) scans, are a kind of X-ray test that generates detailed cross-sectional images of the body. CT scans are used to investigate the internal structures of a body. CT scans can detect subtle differences in tissue densities in the body because they provide more detailed and detailed images than regular X-rays.
During a CT scan, you are positioned on a table that slides into a doughnut-shaped opening in the scanner. Inside the scanner, an X-ray tube rotates around you, capturing pictures of the area being studied from a range of different angles. A computer combines these images to create cross-sectional pictures of your body.
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a pharmacy technician is reviewing a checklist of steps to make sure that a prescription was filled correctly. this checklist describes a policy. a law. an organization. a procedure.
A pharmacy technician reviewing a checklist of steps to make sure that a prescription was filled correctly is a procedure
Is a pharmacy technician is reviewing a checklist of steps to make sure that a prescription was filled correctly a procedure?A procedure is a series of steps taken to achieve a particular end, and in this case, the end is to ensure that the prescription is filled correctly. The checklist serves as a guide for the pharmacy technician to follow to ensure that all the necessary steps are completed and that the prescription is accurate and safe for the patient to use.
By following this procedure, the pharmacy technician can help ensure that the patient receives the correct medication and dosage, which is an important part of ensuring patient safety and quality of care.
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what are the goals of the research that is behind the nursing outcomes classification (noc) system? select all that apply.
The goals of the research behind the NOC, or Nursing Outcomes Classification system, are:
"To identify, label, and validate nursing-sensitive client outcomes and indicators""To evaluate the validity and usefulness of the classification in clinical field testing""To define and test measurement procedures for the outcomes and indicators"The Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC) system is a standardized language used by nurses to describe the outcomes of their interventions. The research behind the NOC system aims to identify, validate and label nursing-sensitive client outcomes and indicators, evaluate the usefulness and validity of the classification in clinical field testing, and define and test measurement procedures for the outcomes and indicators.
The ultimate goal of the NOC system is to improve the quality of nursing care by enabling nurses to accurately describe the outcomes of their interventions, which can be used to guide clinical decision-making, facilitate communication with other healthcare professionals, and enhance patient outcomes.
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a public health nurse is educating a group of administrators about decreasing hospitalizations for burns. which population will the nurse note as the target population for burn injuries?
The nurse will note children under age five years old as the target population for burn injuries.
What are burn injuries?
Burn injuries are wounds that are created by the application of heat or fire to the skin. There are three types of burn injuries: first-degree burns, second-degree burns, and third-degree burns.
First-degree burns are the least serious of the three. They occur when the outer layer of the skin is damaged by a minor burn, such as a sunburn. The skin may be red and inflamed, but it will not blister.
Second-degree burns are more serious. They occur when the skin is burned more deeply than in a first-degree burn. The skin may blister, and it may be painful and swollen.
Third-degree burns are the most severe type of burn. They occur when the skin is burned all the way through. The skin may appear blackened, charred, or white, and it may be numb.
How can burn injuries be prevented?
Keep the stove and oven clean and free of grease or food residue.
Turn pot handles inward so they cannot be easily knocked over.
Keep hot liquids out of the reach of children.
Avoid smoking in bed or near flammable objects, such as curtains or furniture.
Keep fire extinguishers in the home and know how to use them.
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most researchers believe that the number-one candidate for an anti-alzheimer's strategy is: intellectual stimulation. a healthy diet. exercise. microdosing psychotropic medication.
Most researchers believe that a healthy diet, is the number-one candidate for an anti-Alzheimer's strategy. Therefore option A is correct.
Multiple studies and scientific evidence suggest that maintaining a nutritious diet, particularly one that is rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats, can have a positive impact on brain health and reduce the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.
A healthy diet, such as the Mediterranean or DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, has been associated with a lower incidence of cognitive decline and Alzheimer's disease.
These diets emphasize consuming antioxidant-rich foods, reducing inflammation, and promoting overall cardiovascular health, which are all factors that can support brain function and reduce the risk of cognitive decline.
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the nursing instructor has completed a presentation on normal immune function. which statement by a student would suggest a need for further education?
The statement that would suggest a need for further education is "Humoral immunity is generally functional at birth," .
This is because cellular immunity is generally functional at birth and humoral immunity develops over time as the infant is exposed to various substances.
Humoral immunity, which is mediated by antibodies secreted by B cells, takes time to develop and is not generally functional at birth. Cellular immunity, on the other hand, is generally functional at birth and provides immediate protection against infections. The statement indicates a misunderstanding of the development of the immune system and would require further education from the nursing instructor.
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the client has a traumatic complete spinal cord transection at the c5 level. based on this injury, the health care worker can expect the client to have control of which body function/part?
A complete spinal cord transection at the C5 level means that the spinal cord has been completely severed at the C5 vertebra. This injury will result in the loss of motor and sensory function below the level of injury.
The C5 level is located in the cervical region of the spinal cord and controls the innervation of the diaphragm and some of the muscles in the upper arms and shoulders. Therefore, the client with this injury will likely have no voluntary control over their breathing and will require mechanical ventilation.
It is also important to note that a complete spinal cord injury at any level can result in a loss of bowel and bladder control, as well as sexual function. The client may also experience changes in blood pressure and heart rate, as well as difficulty regulating body temperature.
In summary, a client with a traumatic complete spinal cord transection at the C5 level can be expected to have partial control of their diaphragm, shoulders, and upper arms, but will likely have no voluntary control over the rest of their body below the level of injury.
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which statement by the nursing student regarding how to educate clients based on their developmental capacity is applicable for older adults? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
"Using visual aids can be helpful for older adults who may have difficulty hearing or processing information."
When educating clients, it is important to consider their developmental capacity. Older adults, in particular, may have specific needs when it comes to education. Using visual aids can be helpful for older adults who may have difficulty hearing or processing information. This can include things like diagrams, videos, or other types of multimedia. Additionally, it may be helpful to provide information in smaller chunks, rather than overwhelming clients with too much information at once.
Other tips for educating older adults include using clear and simple language, speaking slowly and clearly, and providing plenty of opportunities for questions and clarification. It may also be helpful to involve family members or caregivers in the education process to ensure that clients have the support they need to understand and retain important information.
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an older adult is newly diagnosed with primary hypertension and has just been started on a beta-blocker. the nurses health education should include which of the following? a) increasing fluids to avoid extracellular volume depletion from the diuretic effect of the beta- blocker b) maintaining a diet high in dairy to increase protein necessary to prevent organ damage c) use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension d) limiting exercise to avoid injury that can be caused by increased intracranial pressure
An older adult is newly diagnosed with primary hypertension and has just been started on a beta-blocker. The nurse's health education should include (C) the use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension.
Hypertension is another term for high blood pressure. When the systolic blood pressure is greater than or equal to 140 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure is greater than or equal to 90 mm Hg on two or more blood pressure measurements taken on two or more occasions separated by at least 1 week, a diagnosis of hypertension is made.
The nurse's health education should include the use of strategies to prevent falls stemming from postural hypotension. Beta-blockers, which are used to treat hypertension, can cause postural hypotension in older adults, putting them at risk of falls.
This is because they prevent vasoconstriction and cause vasodilation in peripheral blood vessels, lowering blood pressure.
As a result, patients on beta-blockers may experience dizziness, light-headedness, or fainting when they stand up. The following are some strategies for preventing falls caused by postural hypotension: Make a slow and steady ascent from a seated or supine position, taking your time to rise.
Circulation should be maintained by frequently flexing the feet and legs while sitting or lying down. You should avoid crossing your legs and sitting in one location for an extended period of time.
Avoid hot temperatures, as they can cause vasodilation, which can exacerbate postural hypotension. Drink plenty of water to stay hydrated.
Avoid driving, operating heavy machinery, or engaging in other hazardous activities if you have recently started taking beta-blockers. Exercise in moderation, taking care not to exert yourself too much or too rapidly.
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which finding would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder who is unable to move the right arm?
The nurse would observe an inability to move the right arm in a client with conversion disorder. This type of disorder is characterized by physical symptoms, such as paralysis or numbness, in this case, the patient would be unable to move the right arm due to a psychological issue, rather than any physical ailment.
Conversion disorder is a type of psychiatric condition in which a person experiences physical symptoms, such as paralysis or numbness, due to psychological issues, rather than any underlying physical illness or injury. In this case, the patient would be unable to move the right arm due to a psychological issue, rather than any physical ailment. The nurse would observe an inability to move the right arm as an indication of conversion disorder.
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true/false. he brm gene suppressed at the post-transcriptional level in various human cell lines is inducible by transient hdac inhibitor treatment, which exhibits antioncogenic potentia
The given statement is True because the BRM gene suppressed at the post-transcriptional level in various human cell lines is inducible by transient HDAC inhibitor treatment, which exhibits anti-oncogenic potential.
HDAC inhibitors are drugs that target proteins called histone deacetylases (HDACs), and when they are used, they can inhibit or suppress the expression of certain genes. This is why the BRM gene can be suppressed after HDAC inhibitor treatment.
HDAC inhibitors are effective for a variety of conditions, including cancer. In particular, they have been found to have anti-oncogenic potential, which means they can inhibit the growth of tumor cells. This is why the BRM gene can be suppressed by HDAC inhibitor treatment, as the inhibitor is able to inhibit the gene's expression.
In terms of how the HDAC inhibitor works, it binds to the HDAC proteins, preventing them from modifying the histones, which are proteins that help control gene expression. This means that the HDAC inhibitor can stop the BRM gene from being expressed.
In terms of its effectiveness in suppressing the BRM gene, studies have shown that it is very effective. This means that the BRM gene can be suppressed in a very short period of time when an HDAC inhibitor is used. This is why it is often used in cancer treatments, as it can be used to quickly suppress the expression of tumor-promoting genes.
Overall, HDAC inhibitors are very effective in suppressing the expression of the BRM gene, which can have anti-oncogenic potential. This is why the BRM gene is often inducible by transient HDAC inhibitor treatment, which can help suppress the growth of tumor cells.
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a nurse is assessing a client's pain. the nurse notes which database finding that is indicative of acute pain?
The nurse assessing a client's pain should note the database findings that are indicative of acute pain. These findings can include an increased heart rate, respiration rate, blood pressure, pupil dilation, and sweating.
It is important to note that each individual may have different indicators of pain, so it is important for the nurse to be aware of any individual differences and to use their clinical judgment when assessing pain. The nurse should also take into account the duration and intensity of the pain when conducting the assessment.
The client may report a pain rating of 6 or higher on a pain scale, and may also have an increased need for pain medications. In addition, the client may have decreased mobility, a decreased appetite, and difficulty sleeping. All of these are potential indicators of acute pain and should be noted in the nurse's assessment. The nurse must be skilled in the effective management of pain to handle the situation.
In conclusion, the nurse should take into account the database findings such as an increased heart rate, respiration rate, blood pressure, pupil dilation, sweating, pain rating of 6 or higher, increased need for pain medications, decreased mobility, decreased appetite, and difficulty sleeping, when assessing for a client's acute pain.
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after surgery to create an ileal conduit, a client is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit. which clinical finding during the first hour of the postoperative period would the nurse report to the primary health care provider?
Answer: The mental health practitioner should help to involve the client's care to address anxiety related to changes in body image.
During an ileal conduit procedure, a surgeon creates a brand new tube from a part of the intestine that enables the kidneys to empty and urine to exit the body through a tiny low opening called a stoma.
After the surgery, urine will result in the kidneys, through the ureters and ileal conduit, and out of the stoma. One must wear a urostomy pouching (bag) system (appliance) over the stoma to catch and hold the urine.
This surgery usually takes about 3 to six hours. A change in body image is one of the main disadvantages of this surgery.
Explanation:
a new unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) is preparing to ambulate an obese client. the registered nurse (rn) is concerned about the ufos ability to safely ambulate the client. which would be the nurse's most appropriate action?
The nurse's most appropriate action when an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is preparing to ambulate an obese client and the RN is concerned about the UAP's ability to safely ambulate the client is to supervise and provide guidance while the UAP ambulates the client.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is an individual who is not licensed as a medical practitioner but is trained to assist licensed medical practitioners in the care of patients. They are commonly known as nursing assistants, nursing aides, or orderlies, and their roles vary depending on the location and the medical facility. They are generally supervised by a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
Ambulation is the process of walking, and when a UAP is preparing to ambulate an obese client, the RN is concerned about the UAP's ability to safely ambulate the client, they must supervise and provide guidance to ensure the patient's safety. In summary, when an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is preparing to ambulate an obese client, and the registered nurse (RN) is concerned about the UAP's ability to safely ambulate the client, the nurse's most appropriate action is to supervise and provide guidance while the UAP ambulates the client.
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refer to exhibit 12-3. if the proportion of patients that are cured is independent of whether the patient received medication then the expected frequency of those who received medication and were cured is . a. 48 b. 70 c. 28 d. 150
The expected frequency of those who received medication and were cured is 70, given that the proportion of patients that are cured is independent of whether the patient received medication.
A contingency table, often known as a cross-tabulation table, is a table that summarizes data from two or more categorical variables, generally in tabular form, allowing patterns to be detected. The table is used to provide an overview of the distribution of one variable in relation to the other variable.
It is used to help identify relationships between the variables, for hypothesis testing, and for statistical analyses. The table has rows and columns, where each row represents the categories of one variable, while each column represents the categories of the other variable. The intersection of each row and column gives the frequency or count of the number of times that each combination of categories occurs.
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