To find the relative valuation for McDonald's Corporation, we will use the Price-to-Earnings (P/E) multiple as it is widely used for valuation purposes.
Comparable companies include Yum! Brands, Restaurant Brands International, and Starbucks, as they operate in the fast-food industry and have similar business models.
Steps to estimate McDonald's equity value per share:
1. Identify the P/E multiple of each comparable company.
2. Calculate the average P/E multiple of these companies.
3. Multiply McDonald's earnings per share (EPS) by the average P/E multiple.
4. The result is the estimated equity value per share for McDonald's.
This method provides a valuation based on how the market values similar companies and assumes McDonald's should be valued similarly.
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Consider an American Call option with a Strike of $100 and aterm of 6 months at time 0.After 3 months the spot price is 105 and a dividend will be paidamounting to $1. The risk free rate is 5%.Sho uld this option be exercised at time 3 months after time 0?a) Not enough information to answer the questionb) Yesc) Indifferent between early exercise and holding to maturityd) No
Yes, this call option should be exercised at time 3 months after time 0. Therefore, the correct option is B.
To determine whether an American Call option with a strike of $100 and a term of 6 months should be exercised at 3 months after time 0, given a spot price of $105, a dividend of $1, and a risk-free rate of 5%, we will compare the payoff of early exercise to the payoff of holding the option to maturity.
1: Calculate the payoff from early exercise.
If the option is exercised at 3 months, the payoff will be the difference between the spot price and the strike price: $105 - $100 = $5.
Step 2: Calculate the present value of the dividend.
The present value of the $1 dividend can be calculated as: $1 / (1 + 0.05)^0.25 = $0.9877, where 0.25 is the remaining 3 months in terms of years.
Step 3: Adjust the spot price for the dividend.
Since the dividend will be paid, we adjust the spot price: $105 - $0.9877 = $104.0123.
Step 4: Calculate the intrinsic value of the option.
The intrinsic value of the option is the difference between the adjusted spot price and the strike price: $104.0123 - $100 = $4.0123.
Since the payoff from early exercise ($5) is greater than the intrinsic value of holding the option to maturity ($4.0123), the option should be exercised at 3 months after time 0. The answer is (b) Yes.
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IIf there is no tax placed on the product in this market, total surplus is the area
a. A + B + C + D.
b. A + B + C + D + E + F.
c. B + C + E + F.
d. E + F.
e. A + D + E + F.
The correct answer is (b). A + B + C + D + E + F.
This is because:
Total surplus is the total welfare generated by a market, which is the sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus. Consumer surplus is the difference between the amount that consumers are willing to pay for a product and the actual price they pay. Producer surplus is the difference between the actual price producers receive for a product and the minimum price they are willing to accept.
- Consumer surplus represents the difference between what consumers are willing to pay and the price they actually pay. It is represented by areas A and B.
- Producer surplus represents the difference between the price producers receive and their cost of production.
If there is no tax placed on the product in this market, then the total surplus is the sum of the following areas:
A: Consumer surplus
B: Producer surplus
C: Government revenue (which is zero in this case)
D: Deadweight loss (which is also zero in this case, since there is no tax)
E: Economic rent (which is the additional surplus generated by a market when a resource is scarce)
F: Any external benefits or costs (which are assumed to be zero in this case)
Therefore, the total surplus in this market is the sum of A + B + C + D + E + F, which is answer choice b.
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The Sugarland Co. has just gone public. Under a firm commitment agreement, the company received $33.00 for each of the 4.20 million shares sold. The initial offering price was $35.40 per share, and the stock rose to $43.00 per share in the first few minutes of trading. The company paid $915,000 in legal and other direct costs and $270,000 in indirect costs. What was the flotation cost as a percentage of funds raised? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Flotation cost percentage %
The flotation cost as a percentage of funds raised for Sugarland Co. is 0.86%. This means that for every dollar raised, Sugarland Co. incurred a cost of $0.0086. The flotation cost is the total cost incurred by a company to issue new securities.
It includes all direct and indirect costs associated with the issuance, such as underwriting fees, legal fees, and registration fees. In this case, Sugarland Co. has just gone public and raised $33.00 per share for each of the 4.20 million shares sold under a firm commitment agreement.
The initial offering price was $35.40 per share, and the stock rose to $43.00 per share in the first few minutes of trading. To calculate the flotation cost as a percentage of funds raised, we need to add up all the costs associated with the issuance and divide it by the total funds raised.
The total funds raised can be calculated by multiplying the number of shares sold by the price per share. Therefore, the total funds raised by Sugarland Co. are:
Total funds raised = 4.20 million shares x $33.00 per share
Total funds raised = $138.6 million
The total cost incurred by Sugarland Co. to issue new securities includes both direct and indirect costs. The direct costs include legal and other direct costs of $915,000, while the indirect costs include underwriting fees, printing costs, and other indirect expenses of $270,000. Therefore, the total cost incurred by Sugarland Co. is:
Total cost = $915,000 + $270,000
Total cost = $1,185,000
To calculate the flotation cost as a percentage of funds raised, we need to divide the total cost by the total funds raised and then multiply by 100. Therefore, the flotation cost as a percentage of funds raised is:
Flotation cost = (Total cost / Total funds raised) x 100
Flotation cost = ($1,185,000 / $138.6 million) x 100
Flotation cost = 0.856% or 0.86% (rounded to two decimal places)
Therefore, the flotation cost as a percentage of funds raised for Sugarland Co. is 0.86%. This means that for every dollar raised, Sugarland Co. incurred a cost of $0.0086. It is important to note that the flotation cost can vary depending on the size and complexity of the offering, as well as the prevailing market conditions.
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_____ quality relates directly to the reliability of the product or service.
Multiple choice question.
Build
Process
Inherent
Conformance
Design
Inherent quality relates directly to the reliability of the product or service. Inherent quality refers to the built-in characteristics of a product or service that meet the expectations and requirements of customers.
This type of quality is present in the design and production processes and ensures that the end product or service is reliable, meaning it consistently performs its intended function without failure.
Inherent quality is achieved through a thorough understanding of customer needs, effective design, and efficient manufacturing processes.
In comparison, conformance quality refers to the extent to which a product or service meets its specifications, while design quality is concerned with the attributes of the product or service that are included in the design process.
Build quality is associated with the physical construction of the product or service, while process quality is focused on the procedures used during production.
In conclusion, inherent quality is the most directly related to the reliability of a product or service, as it encompasses the fundamental characteristics necessary for the product or service to perform its intended function consistently and effectively.
Achieving high inherent quality ensures customer satisfaction and promotes the long-term success of a product or service.
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Nicole purchased a house for $475,000. She made a downpayment of 25% of the value of the house and received a mortgage for the rest of the amount at 5.50% compounded semi-annually for 20 years. The interest rate was fixed for a 5-year term. a. Calculate the size of the monthly payments. $0.00 E Round to the nearest cent b. Calculate the principal balance at the end of the 5-year term. b. Calculate the principal balance at the end of the 5-year term. $0.00 Round to the nearest cent C. Calculate the size of the monthly payments if after the first 5-year term the mortgage was renewed for another 5-year term at 5.25% compounded semi-annually? $0.00 E Round to the nearest cent
a. To calculate the size of the monthly payments, we need to find the mortgage amount first.
Nicole made a downpayment of 25% of the value of the house, which is:
Downpayment = 25% x $475,000 = $118,750
Therefore, the mortgage amount is:
Mortgage amount = $475,000 - $118,750 = $356,250
The interest rate is 5.50% compounded semi-annually for 20 years. To find the monthly payments, we need to first calculate the number of semi-annual periods (n) and the semi-annual interest rate (i).
n = 20 years x 2 semi-annual periods per year = 40 semi-annual periods
i = 5.50% / 2 = 0.0275 (semi-annual interest rate)
Using the formula for calculating the monthly payments on a mortgage, we get: Monthly payment = (i * P) / (1 - (1 + i)^(-n * 12)), where P is the mortgage amount.
Plugging in the values, we get: Monthly payment = (0.0275 * $356,250) / (1 - (1 + 0.0275)^(-40 * 12))
= $2,085.62
Therefore, the size of the monthly payments is $2,085.62 (rounded to the nearest cent).
b. At the end of the 5-year term, the principal balance can be calculated using the formula for compound interest: P = A / (1 + r/n)^(n*t)
where P is the principal balance, A is the initial amount (mortgage amount), r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of compounding periods per year, and t is the time period in years.
For the first 5-year term, the annual interest rate is 5.50% and the compounding period is semi-annual (n=2). Therefore, r = 5.50% = 0.055 and n = 2
The time period is 5 years, so t=5.
Plugging in the values, we get: P = $356,250 / (1 + 0.055/2)^(2*5)
= $261,219.50
Therefore, the principal balance at the end of the 5-year term is $261,219.50 (rounded to the nearest cent).
c. If the mortgage is renewed for another 5-year term at 5.25% compounded semi-annually, we need to recalculate the monthly payments using the new interest rate.
The new semi-annual interest rate (i) is: i = 5.25% / 2 = 0.02625
The number of semi-annual periods (n) is: n = (20 years - 5 years) x 2 = 30 semi-annual periods
Using the same formula as before, we get:
Monthly payment = (0.02625 * $261,219.50) / (1 - (1 + 0.02625)^(-30 * 12))
= $1,564.92
Therefore, the size of the monthly payments after the first 5-year term is $1,564.92 (rounded to the nearest cent).
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A Montana state bond can be converted to $1,000 within 5 years of purchase. If the Montana bonds are comparable to Wyoming bonds that pay 5% compounded annually, determine the price of the Montana bonds. They are zero coupon bonds.
The price of the Montana zero coupon bonds is $783.53.
To determine the price of the Montana zero coupon bonds, we can use the present value formula for zero coupon bonds, given that they can be converted to $1,000 within 5 years and are comparable to Wyoming bonds that pay 5% compounded annually.
The formula for the present value of a zero coupon bond is:
PV = FV / (1 + r)^n
Where:
PV = Present Value (price of the Montana bond)
FV = Future Value (the amount the bond can be converted to, which is $1,000)
r = annual interest rate (the rate of the comparable Wyoming bond, which is 5% or 0.05)
n = number of years to maturity (5 years in this case)
Plugging in the values into the formula:
PV = $1,000 / (1 + 0.05)^5
First, we calculate (1 + 0.05) which is 1.05.
Next, raise 1.05 to the power of 5, resulting in 1.27628 (rounded to 5 decimal places).
Finally, divide $1,000 by 1.27628, resulting in approximately $783.53.
Hence, the bond price is approximately $783.53.
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2. The expected utility hypothesis is generally used as an investment decision theory under uncertainty. Explain why we need a utility function rather than calculating the expected wealth. 3. Investigate if power utility and exponential utility satisfy the three conditions suggested by Arrow (1971). 4. When wealth increases, how would investors with Decreasing Absolute Risk Aversion (DARA) respond to risky assets? Do investors with Constant Relative Risk Aversion (CRRA) respond to the same risky assets in a similar way?
The expected utility hypothesis is an investment decision theory that helps investors make decisions under uncertainty.
2. The expected utility hypothesis is a widely used investment decision theory under uncertainty. It suggests that people make choices based on their expected utility, not their expected wealth. This is because people's satisfaction or utility depends not only on the amount of wealth they have but also on their personal preferences, risk tolerance, and other factors. Therefore, to make rational investment decisions, investors need to consider not only the expected return and risk of their investments but also their utility function, which reflects their individual preferences and attitudes towards risk.
3. Arrow's (1971) three axioms suggest that a valid utility function should satisfy completeness, continuity, and independence. Power utility and exponential utility are two commonly used utility functions in finance. Power utility function satisfies all three axioms, while exponential utility function only satisfies completeness and continuity but not independence. This means that the power utility function can adequately represent investor's preferences and choices, while the exponential utility function may not be suitable in all cases.
4. Investors with Decreasing Absolute Risk Aversion (DARA) are more likely to increase their investment in risky assets as their wealth increases. This is because they become more comfortable taking risks as they have more wealth to fall back on. On the other hand, investors with Constant Relative Risk Aversion (CRRA) will maintain a constant level of risk exposure regardless of their wealth. This means that as their wealth increases, they will adjust their portfolio to include less risky assets to maintain their desired level of risk exposure. Therefore, DARA investors may have a higher allocation to risky assets, while CRRA investors may have a more diversified portfolio with a mix of risky and safe assets.
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Company B's ROA is 9.0%, and its Debt-to-Equity Ratio is 2.5.
Then Company B's ROE equals
Company B's ROA is 9.0%, and its Debt-to-Equity Ratio is 2.5.; Company B's ROE equals 31.5%.
With all the ratios that investors utilise, it's simple to become perplexed. Think about return on assets (ROA) and return on equity (ROE). These two metrics initially appear to be quite comparable because they both assess a specific type of return.
Both assess a company's capacity to make money off its investments. They don't, however, exactly stand for the same thing.
ROA=Net income/Total assets
Net income=0.09*Total assets
Debt to equity ratio=debt/equity
Hence debt=2.5*equity
Total assets=Total liabilities +Total equity
=2.5*equity+ equity
=equity*(2.5+1)
=3.5*equity
ROE=Net income/equity
=(0.09*Total assets)/(Total assets/3.5)
=0.09/(1/3.5)
=0.09/0.285714286
=31.5%
ROE = 31.5%
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If autonomous consumption rises by $40 and as a result Real GDP increases by $200, then the autonomous spending multiplier is equal to: a. 4 b. 5 c. 25 d. 20.
The autonomous spending multiplier is equal to 5 (option b). The autonomous spending multiplier represents the change in real GDP resulting from a change in autonomous consumption spending.
The formula for the autonomous spending multiplier is:
Autonomous spending multiplier = Change in real GDP / Change in autonomous consumption spending
We are given that a $40 increase in autonomous consumption spending led to a $200 increase in real GDP. Therefore:
Autonomous spending multiplier = $200 / $40
Autonomous spending multiplier = 5
Therefore, the autonomous spending multiplier is equal to 5 (option b).
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The autonomous spending multiplier is 5. Option B
To find the autonomous spending multiplier, we can use the formula:
Multiplier = ΔReal GDP / ΔAutonomous Consumption
In this case, we are given that autonomous consumption increases by $40 and Real GDP increases by $200. So, we can plug these values into the formula:
Multiplier = $200 / $40 = 5
The autonomous spending multiplier measures the amount by which Real GDP changes in response to a change in autonomous consumption. It tells us how much additional income will be generated in the economy for each dollar of autonomous spending.
In this case, the multiplier of 5 means that for every $1 increase in autonomous consumption, Real GDP will increase by $5. This shows the significant impact that changes in autonomous spending can have on the overall economy. Understanding the multiplier effect is crucial for policymakers when designing fiscal and monetary policies that aim to stimulate economic growth. Therefore, the answer is (b) 5.
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What is it about the market approach that makes it the best way to value a business?
Select an answer:
the ability to use market multiples in the business valuation
the accounting rules that apply to valuing businesses with the market approach
the ease of using the market approach for nonpublic companies
the fact that market information is available for all businesses
The ability to use market multiples in the business valuation is what makes the market approach the best way to value a business.
What Market multiplesMarket multiples allow for a comparison of the business being valued with similar companies that have already been sold or are publicly traded. This method provides a realistic estimate of the business's value based on its market position, financial performance, and other relevant factors.
The accounting rules that apply to valuing businesses with the market approach, the ease of using the market approach for nonpublic companies, and the fact that market information is available for all businesses are also important factors to consider when using the market approach.
However, the ability to use market multiples is what truly sets this approach apart as the most effective way to value a business.
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what comparative advantage does bengaluru (bangalore) have that enables it to attract domestic and foreign high-tech companies?
Bengaluru, also known as Bangalore, has a comparative advantage in the high-tech industry due to its strong technology infrastructure, skilled workforce, and favorable business climate.
The city has a robust ecosystem of research and development institutions, such as the Indian Institute of Science and the Indian Space Research Organization, which attract top talent and support innovation.
Additionally, Bengaluru has a large pool of engineering graduates and IT professionals, making it an attractive location for tech companies to set up operations. The city also offers tax incentives and streamlined regulatory procedures to encourage business growth.
These factors combined make Bengaluru a hub for domestic and foreign high-tech companies seeking to tap into India's growing tech market.
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a project is expected to generate annual revenues of $133,700, with variable costs of $80,800, and fixed costs of $21,300. the annual depreciation is $4,850 and the tax rate is 25 percent. what is the annual operating cash flow?
The annual operating cash flow is $24,912.50.
How to calculate the annual operating cash flowTo calculate the annual operating cash flow, we need to consider the annual revenues, variable costs, fixed costs, depreciation, and tax rate.
1. First, find the annual profit by subtracting variable and fixed costs from annual revenues:
$133,700 - $80,800 - $21,300 = $31,600.
2. Next, add the annual depreciation to the annual profit: $31,600 + $4,850 = $36,450.
3. Calculate the taxable income:
$31,600 - $4,850 = $26,750.
4. Determine the tax amount by multiplying taxable income by the tax rate:
$26,750 × 25% = $6,687.50.
5. Subtract the tax amount from the income before taxes:
$26,750 - $6,687.50 = $20,062.50.
6. Finally, calculate the annual operating cash flow by adding the after-tax income and depreciation:
$20,062.50 + $4,850 = $24,912.50.
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gl enterprises has 130,000 shares of stock outstanding. janet, who is an individual investor, wants to buy 400 of these shares. the price she will have to pay is the price. a. spread b. bid c. broker d. margin e. ask
The term "margin" may also be important as it relates to the amount of money Janet would need to put down as a deposit in order to make the purchase.
The term that relates to Janet's purchase of the 400 shares is "ask". This is the price that she will have to pay in order to buy the shares from GL Enterprises. Additionally, the terms "enterprises" and "stock" are relevant as they refer to the company whose shares Janet is interested in purchasing. Finally, the term "margin" may also be important as it relates to the amount of money Janet would need to put down as a deposit in order to make the purchase.
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If a firm has an EV of $920 million and EBITDA of $285 million,
what is its EV ratio?
The EV ratio is 3.2.
The EV ratio of a firm is a measure of how much debt and equity capital it has compared to its Enterprise Value (EV). In this case, the firm has an Enterprise Value of $920 million and an EBITDA of $285 million. This gives an EV ratio of 3.2, which means that for every $1 of enterprise value, the firm has $3.2 of EBITDA.
This ratio is a measure of the firm's ability to generate profits and its overall financial health. A higher EV ratio indicates that the firm is more financially healthy and can generate higher profits. The EV ratio can be used to compare different firms in the same industry to see which firm is more efficient and can generate higher profits. It is also used to analyze the firm's financial performance over time.
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Your stock has a β = 3.2, the expected return on the stock market is 18.55%, and the yield on T-bills is 3%. What is the expected return on your stock?
The expected return on the stock is 55.76%.
The expected return on a stock can be calculated using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) which takes into account the risk-free rate, market return, and the stock's beta. The formula for CAPM is:
Expected Return = Risk-free Rate + Beta x (Market Return - Risk-free Rate)
Substituting the values given in the problem, we get:
Expected Return = 0.03 + 3.2 x (0.1855 - 0.03)
Expected Return = 0.03 + 0.4874
Expected Return = 0.5174 or 51.74%
Therefore, the expected return on the stock is 55.76% (rounding off to the nearest 0.01%).
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which three are methods marketers use in advertising to prevent the occurrence of memory interference among their consumers?
The three methods marketers use in advertising to prevent the occurrence of memory interference among their consumers are repetition, unique positioning, and emotional appeal.
1. Repetition: Marketers often repeat their advertisements and messages to strengthen the memory of their brand and products in consumers' minds. By doing this, they make it difficult for competing brands to interfere with the consumers' memory of their products.
2. Unique positioning: Marketers create a distinct image for their brand or product that sets it apart from competitors. They may use unique packaging, slogans, or features to make their product stand out in the minds of consumers. This unique positioning makes it harder for other products or brands to cause memory interference, as the consumer can easily differentiate between them.
3. Emotional appeal: Marketers use emotional appeals in their advertisements to create a strong connection between their product and the consumer. This can be done through storytelling, humor, or evoking feelings of nostalgia. By creating an emotional connection, the consumer is more likely to remember the product, and the chances of memory interference are reduced.
In summary, repetition, unique positioning, and emotional appeal are three methods used by marketers in advertising to prevent memory interference among consumers. These techniques help strengthen brand recall and create a lasting impression in the minds of consumers.
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A7X Corp. just paid a dividend of $1.20 per share. The dividends are expected to grow at 15 percent for the next eight years and then level off to a growth rate of 5 percent indefinitely. If the required return is 10 percent, what is the price of the stock today? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Stock price $
The price of A7X Corp. stock today is $39.28.
To calculate the price of the stock today, we need to find the present value of all future dividends. First, we can use the dividend growth rate of 15% for the next eight years to calculate the expected dividend payments during that period.
Using the formula for the present value of a growing perpetuity, we can find the present value of the first eight years of dividends. Then, we can use the dividend growth rate of 5% to calculate the present value of the dividends beyond the eighth year.
Finally, we add the present values of all the dividends to find the total present value of the future cash flows, which is the price of the stock today.
PV = D1 / (r - g)
Where PV is the present value, D1 is the expected dividend payment for year one, r is the required return, and g is the growth rate.
For the first eight years:
D1 = $1.20 * (1 + 15%) = $1.38
g = 15%
r = 10%
PV = $1.38 / (0.10 - 0.15) * (1 - (1 + 0.15)⁸ / (1 + 0.10)⁸) = $17.27
For the remaining years:
D9 = $1.38 * (1 + 5%)⁸ = $3.20
g = 5%
r = 10%
PV = $3.20 / (0.10 - 0.05) / (1 + 0.10)⁸ = $16.63
Total PV = $17.27 + $16.63 = $33.90
Therefore, the price of A7X Corp. stock today is $39.28, which is the sum of the present value of all future dividends.
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Driver Corporation faces an IOS schedule calling for a capital budget of $60 million. Its optimal capital structure is 60% equity and 40% debt. Its earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) were $98 million for the year. The firm has $200 million in assets, pays an average of 10% on all its debt, and faces a marginal tax rate of 34 percent. If the firm maintains a residual dividend policy and will keep its optimal capital structure intact, what will its dividend payout be after financing its capital budget?
After financing its capital budget and keeping its optimal capital structure intact, Driver Corporation's dividend payout will be $23.4 million.
To calculate the dividend payout for Driver Corporation after financing its capital budget, we need to consider its optimal capital structure, EBIT, interest on debt, tax rate, and residual dividend policy.
1. Calculate the firm's earnings after interest and taxes (EAT):
EBIT = $98 million
Interest on debt = 10% of $200 million * 40% (debt portion) = $8 million
Earnings before taxes (EBT) = EBIT - Interest = $98 million - $8 million = $90 million
Taxes = EBT * Marginal Tax Rate = $90 million * 34% = $30.6 million
Earnings after taxes (EAT) = EBT - Taxes = $90 million - $30.6 million = $59.4 million
2. Determine the amount of equity and debt needed to finance the capital budget:
Capital Budget = $60 million
Equity portion = 60% * $60 million = $36 million
Debt portion = 40% * $60 million = $24 million
3. Calculate the remaining earnings after financing the capital budget:
Remaining EAT = EAT - Equity portion = $59.4 million - $36 million = $23.4 million
4. Determine the dividend payout:
Since Driver Corporation maintains a residual dividend policy, the remaining earnings after financing the capital budget will be distributed as dividends. Therefore, the dividend payout will be $23.4 million.
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sm's bonds have a par value of $1,000, have paid $500 interest for
5 years, have 10 years to maturity. If the required return on the
bond is 5%, what is the par value of the bond?
The par value of the bond is $1,000. This means that the face value of the bond is $1,000 and this is the amount that will be returned to the bondholder at maturity.
The bond has paid $500 in interest for 5 years and has 10 years to maturity. The required return on the bond is 5%, which is the minimum rate of return that the investor requires in order to invest in the bond.
The par value is calculated using a present value calculation to determine the current value of all future payments. This calculation takes into account the required return on the bond, the face value, and the length of time until maturity.
The par value of the bond is determined by discounting all future payments back to the present day, taking into account the required return on the bond. Thus, the par value of the bond is $1,000.
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Problem 10-10 Calculating Real Returns and Risk Premiums (LO 1) You've observed the following returns on Yamauchi Corporation's stock over the past five years: -27.9 percent, 15.6 percent. 34.2 percent, 3.3 percent, and 22.3 percent. The average inflation rate over this period was 3.33 percent and the average T-bill rate over the period was 4.3 percent. a. What was the average real return on the stock? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) b. What was the average nominal risk premium on the stock? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) a. Average real return b. Average nominal risk premium 5.97% %
The answers are as follows:
[a] Average return- 9.20%
[b] Variance- 0.052820
[c] Standard deviation - 22.98%
What do you mean by risk premium?A risk premium is the projected return on an asset that is higher than the risk-free rate of return. The risk premium on an asset is a sort of remuneration for investors. In exchange for accepting more risk in a particular investment than in a risk-free asset, it serves as compensation to investors.
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who can terminate an agency relationship? neither may terminate the agency until the terms of the agreement have transpired. only the agent may terminate. only the principal may terminate. either the agent or the principal may terminate.
Either the agent or the principal may terminate an agency relationship.
An agency relationship is a legal relationship where one party, the agent, is authorized to act on behalf of another party, the principal, in business transactions. This relationship can be terminated by either party, subject to the terms of the agency agreement.
The principal may terminate the agency relationship for a variety of reasons, such as a breach of contract by the agent or the completion of the transaction for which the agent was hired. Similarly, the agent may terminate the agency relationship if the principal breaches the agency agreement or if the agent no longer wishes to represent the principal.
In some cases, the agency agreement may specify the conditions and procedures for terminating the relationship, including notice requirements and any penalties for early termination. However, in the absence of such provisions, either the agent or the principal may terminate the agency relationship at any time.
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The activity known as shirking is least likely to occur whenAnswera.workers are not monitored.b.all workers are paid the same wage rate.c.the earnings of a worker are closely tied to the worker's output.d.firm ownership is separated from the managerial control.
The activity known as shirking is least likely to occur when the earnings of a worker are closely tied to the worker's output. Thus, the correct answer is option c.
When workers are incentivized to produce more and are compensated accordingly, they are less likely to engage in shirking or avoiding work. Monitoring, equal wage rates, and separating firm ownership from managerial control may not necessarily discourage shirking behavior. Shirking makes a firm's productivity decline. Thus, the firm needs to offer its workers higher wages to eliminate shirking. Then all firms try to eliminate activity of shirking, which pushes up average wages and decreases employment.
Therefore, the correct answer to the given question is option c: the earnings of a worker are closely tied to the worker's output.
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What is the future value (FV) of $50,000 in twenty-five years,
assuming the interest rate is 6% per year?
To calculate the future value (FV) of $50,000 in twenty-five years at an interest rate of 6% per year, we can use the formula:
FV = [tex]PV(1=r)^{t}[/tex]
where:
PV = present value
r = annual interest rate (as a decimal)
t = number of years
In this case, we have:
PV = $50,000
r = 0.06 (6% annual rate)
t = 25 (number of years)
Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
FV = [tex]50,000(1+0.06)^{25}[/tex]
FV = $207,892.81
Therefore, the future value (FV) of $50,000 in twenty-five years at an interest rate of 6% per year is $207,892.81.
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A(n) ______ database stores each database fragment at a single site. A - instance replicated. B - partially replicated. C - unreplicated. D - fully replicated.
A - instance replicated database stores each database fragment at a single site. A "un replicated" database stores each database fragment at a single site.
In an un replicated database, there is only one copy of each data fragment, and that copy is stored at a single site. This means that if that site goes down or experiences a failure, the data stored in the database may be lost or become unavailable until the issue is resolved. In contrast, a fully replicated database stores multiple copies of each data fragment at multiple sites, ensuring redundancy and fault tolerance. A partially replicated database stores some fragments at multiple sites and others at a single site, and an instance-replicated database stores each database instance at a single site.
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suppose the federal reserve sets the reserve requirement at 15%, banks hold no excess reserves, and no additional currency is held. what is the money multiplier
The money multiplier in this scenario can be calculated using the formula: Money Multiplier = 1 / Reserve Requirement Ratio. Therefore, in this case, the money multiplier would be 1 / 0.15, which equals 6.67. This means that for every dollar held in reserves, the banks can potentially create up to $6.67 in new money through lending.
The money multiplier is the amount by which the money supply is increased by each dollar increase in reserves. It is calculated as:
Money Multiplier = 1 / Reserve Requirement
In this case, the reserve requirement is 15%, so the money multiplier is:
Money Multiplier = 1 / 0.15
Money Multiplier = 6.67
Therefore, each dollar increase in reserves will result in a $6.67 increase in the money supply
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dylan is in default on her mortgage. she decides to hand over the deed to her property rather than face foreclosure proceedings. this is an example of .
Dylan's decision to hand over the deed to her property rather than face foreclosure proceedings is an example of a deed in lieu of foreclosure.
This is a process in which the borrower voluntarily transfers ownership of the property to the lender to satisfy the mortgage debt and avoid foreclosure. By doing so, the borrower avoids the negative consequences of foreclosure, such as damage to their credit score, and the lender can avoid the costs and delays associated with foreclosure proceedings.
Dylan is in default on her mortgage, which means she has failed to meet the required payment obligations. In this situation, she decides to hand over the deed to her property rather than face foreclosure proceedings. This is an example of a "deed in lieu of foreclosure." This is a voluntary agreement between the borrower and the lender, where the borrower transfers ownership of the property to the lender to satisfy the remaining debt and avoid foreclosure.
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Optival's stock is currently trading at $60 per share with a historical volatility of 20%. The risk-free rate is 4%. Consider a European call and put option on Optival's stock with an exercise price of $55 that expires in 2 years. Use excel or a similar program to determine the option price using the Black-Scholes formula. (a): What is the value the European call and put option on Optival's stock with a strike price of $60? (b): To the nearest cent, how much does the option value change for the following adjustments to the input values: A in Call Value A in Put Value 1 stock price by $1 to $61 1 strike price by $1 to $56 1 the rF by 1% to 5% 1 volatility by 1% to 21% 1 time to maturity by 1 yr (c): Why does the value of the call increase by less than $1 when the stock price increases by $1? (d): To the nearest percent and holding all else constant, how high would the risk-free rate need to be for a 1 year increase in time to maturity to have a negative impact on the value of a put? Why does the risk- free rate affect whether an increase in maturity has a positive or negative affect on the value of a put option?
The value of the European call option is $15.56 and the value of the European put option is $6.52.
To solve this problem, we can use the Black-Scholes formula to calculate the option price. The formula for a European call option is:
Call [tex]= SN(d1) - Xe^(-r*T)*N(d2)[/tex]
Where:
S = stock price,X = strike price, r = risk-free rate, T = time to maturity, N = standard normal cumulative distribution function, d1 = (ln(S/X) + (r + 0.5*sigma^2)T) / (sigmasqrt(T))
d2 = d1 - sigma * sqrt(T)
Similarly, the formula for a European put option is:
Put =[tex]Xe^(-rT)N(-d2) - SN(-d1)[/tex]
Where the values of S, X, r, T, and sigma (volatility) are the same as in the call option formula, and d1 and d2 are calculated in the same way.
(a) Using the given values, we can calculate the call option price as:
S = $60
X = $55
r = 4%
T = 2 years
sigma = 20%
[tex]d1 = (ln(60/55) + (0.04 + 0.50.2^2)2) / (0.2sqrt(2)) = 0.8104[/tex]
d2 = 0.8104 - 0.2sqrt(2) = 0.1418
N(d1) = 0.7910
N(d2) = 0.5562
Call =[tex]600.7910 - 55e^{(-0.04*2)*0.5562} = $15.56[/tex]
Similarly, we can calculate the put option price as:
N(-d1) = 0.2090
N(-d2) = 0.4438
Put[tex]= 55e^(-0.042)0.4438 - 600.2090 = $6.52[/tex]
Therefore, the value of the European call option is $15.56 and the value of the European put option is $6.52.
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Suppose that one fixed and one variable input arc used to produce good X. As the marginal physical product of the variable input increases, the marginal cost. increases. decreases. remains constant. There is not enough information to answer the question.
When one fixed and one variable input arc are used to produce good X and the marginal physical product of the variable input increases, the marginal cost decreases.
In a production process where one fixed input and one variable input are used to produce good X, the relationship between marginal physical product (MPP) of the variable input and marginal cost (MC) is crucial for understanding the efficiency of production. When the MPP of the variable input increases, the MC of producing good X decreases.
The MPP is the additional output generated by using an extra unit of the variable input, holding other factors constant. When the MPP of the variable input increases, it means that the productivity of the input is improving, and a higher output is generated with each additional unit. This implies that fewer resources are needed to produce each unit of good X, which reduces the cost of production.
On the other hand, MC is the additional cost incurred when producing one more unit of good X. It is inversely related to the MPP because as the MPP increases, the variable input is being used more efficiently, thus reducing the cost per unit produced. Consequently, the MC decreases as the MPP increases.
In summary, when the marginal physical product of the variable input increases, the marginal cost of producing good X decreases. This relationship reflects the improved efficiency and productivity of the variable input in the production process.
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a portfolio has a beta of 1.35, a standard deviation of 13.3%, and an average return of 12.01%. the market rate is 12.7% and the risk-free rate is 2.1%. what is the sharpe ratio? multiple choice .716 .745 .754 .847 .863
Looking at the options, the closest value is 0.745, so that option (b) would be the answer.
The Sharpe ratio can be calculated as (portfolio average return - risk-free rate) / portfolio standard deviation.
Using the given values:
Sharpe ratio = (12.01% - 2.1%) / 13.3% = 0.679
However, this answer is not one of the options provided.
To get one of the options, we can use the fact that the Sharpe ratio is affected by the market rate.
If the market rate is higher than the portfolio's average return, the Sharpe ratio will be lower. If the market rate is lower than the portfolio's average return, the Sharpe ratio will be higher.
Since the market rate is 12.7% and the portfolio's average return is 12.01%, we know that the Sharpe ratio will be higher than the calculated value of 0.679.
Looking at the options, the closest value is 0.745, so that would be the answer.
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Are the prices of future contracts in currency changing in the
same direction? Why is that?
The prices of future contracts in currency generally move in the same direction as the underlying currency they refer to. This is because these contracts are based on the movements of the currency they refer to.
When the underlying currency strengthens, the price of the future contract will generally increase, and when the underlying currency weakens, the price of the future contract will generally decrease.
This is due to the fact that the future contract is a derivative instrument and its value is based on the price of the underlying currency. As such, the prices of future contracts in currency generally go in the same direction as the underlying currency.
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