f(x) = -2^x
Find the domain and range and explain.

If x is the only thing in the denominator, then,

[tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x}+2\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{3+h}+2\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{3+h}+2\left(\frac{3+h}{3+h}\right)\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1+2(3+h)}{3+h}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1+6+2h}{3+h}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{7+2h}{3+h}\\\\[/tex]

We replace every copy of x with 3+h, as shown in the second step. Afterwards, we can optionally simplify to form one big fraction.

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Or if the "x+2" is in the denominator, then we have these steps:

[tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x+2}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{3+h+2}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{h+5}\\\\[/tex]

Answer: $4

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have 2 Prego pasta sauces at $8 and you only want half of that (1), you divide 8 by 2 to get 4. 1 pasta sauce equals $4

Answer:

$4

Step-by-step explanation:

divide 8 by two

to find the price of one prego pasta divide the cost of your object  by the amount of objects

Factor 5x^10−80x^2

5x^10−80x^2

=5x^2(x^4+4)(x^2+2)(x^2−2)

Answer:

5x^2(x^4+4)(x^2+2)(x^2−2)

5x^2(x^4+4)(x^2+2)(x^2−2)

Factor 5x^10−80x^2

5x^10−80x^2

=5x^2(x^4+4)(x^2+2)(x^2−2)

Answer:Y=6/37

Step-by-step explanation:

Existe un mayor porcentaje de bonos convertibles sobrevalorados comparado con el porcentaje de bonos de ingresos sobrevalorados, con lo cual la afirmación de Danny es correcta.

Dado que Danny Whitman, un analista de valores de Your Bottom Dollar, Inc. siempre ha considerado que es más probable que los bonos convertibles se sobrevaloren más que los bonos de ingresos, y de 312 bonos convertibles del año anterior, Danny encontró que 202 estaban sobrevalorados, mientras que 102 de los 205 bonos de ingreso estaban sobrevalorados, para determinar si estos datos confirman la posición de Danny se debe realizar el siguiente cálculo:

Por lo tanto, existe un mayor porcentaje de bonos convertibles sobrevalorados comparado con el porcentaje de bonos de ingresos sobrevalorados, con lo cual la afirmación de Danny es correcta.

Aprende más en https://brainly.com/question/19296932

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{18}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

If there are six sides on a die then there are 36 different rolls

The factors of 15 are (3×5) and (5×3) so you would get 2/36

When you simplify that you get 1/18

I hope this helps!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]2.757*10x^{-4}[/tex]

Answer:

2 schedule

I I think you can go for Tuesday and Friday because Tuesday totally good and Friday is stress-free because the day after is Saturday

I also try to gather the chess team in figure out a way suitable for your practice, maybe some are going to be busy

Hello angeltomlin!

[tex]\mathfrak{\frac { \frac { 1 } { 16 } } { 3 }}\\ = \mathfrak{\frac{1}{16\times 3}} \\ = \boxed{\mathfrak{\frac{1}{48} \approx 0.0208}}[/tex]

Steps :

Refer to the attached picture if the steps are not clear.

____________

Lucazz

Answer:

the answer to the question is online if you

Answer:

-24 po

Step-by-step explanation:

thanks for the points

Explanation:

List list the multiples of each value

In each list, we see 6 show up. This is the smallest multiple that is in common; therefore, the LCM is 6

Side note: The LCM is useful to help add and subtract fractions.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

when dilating by a scale factor of 6, you are starting at the origin and just making it larger by a factor of 6, so you multiply the coordinates by 6 and get A

Answer:

4 * 13

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay, so we have to use the distributive property to solve this. We know 28 and 24 have a common factor of 4. If we factor a 4 out of 28 + 24, then we get 4 * (7 + 6). Adding 7 + 6, we get 13. Therefore, we get 4 * 13.

The answer is 2

first, we know that the answer will end up to be positive because the two negatives multiply together and cancel each other out to be a positive. Next, we know that 4 divided by 2 is 2, so the answer is 2.

Answer:

Answer:

X=10

Step-by-step explanation:

-1 + x2 = 4

Add 1 to each side

-1 +1+x/2 = 4+1

X/2 = 5

Multiply each side by 2

X/2 *2 = 5*2

x= 10

[tex]n = - 1[/tex]

Answer:

I think this diagram its 110° cause it's measure for ZJKL FOR (G6D)

I

Answer:

30% of 74.95 = .3 * 74.95 = 22.48

Net Cost = 74.95 - 22 48 = 52.47

Answer:  600

Step-by-step explanation:

 Let the mass as x.

So,

120% of x = 720

» 120 x/100 = 720

» 6 x / 5 = 720

x = 720×5 / 6

= 120 ×5 = 600 Ans.

helpfully...

brainliest.

Answer:

= 120 ×5 = 600 Ans.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

You do the opposite of whats states -54 divided by -6 because it says the number was multiplied which gives us 9 then since 15 was subtracted we instead add 15 which equals 24.

Answer:

the number is -5.7

Step-by-step explanation:

do everything in reverse operations,

-54 divided by -6= 9.3

9.3-15= -5.7

For proof you can do it yourself on a calculator.

Answer:

A) 23

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's divide the total number of cupcakes by the different option choices, and see what works and what doesn't:

A) 23/ 23 = 1

   This works, everyone will get one cupcake

B) 23 / 12 ≈ 1.91666667

   This doesn't work, we have a decimal / remainder, and you normally would not split 2/3s of a cupcake with someone at a party

C) 23 / 6 ≈ 3.8333334

   This doesn't work, we have a decimal / remainder, and you normally would not split 2/3s of a cupcake with someone at a party

D) 23 / 12 ≈ 5.75

   This doesn't work, we have a decimal / remainder, while this is a nicer remainder, it still is incorrect

Have a nice day!

     I hope this is what you are looking for, but if not - comment! I will edit and update my answer accordingly. (ノ^∇^)

- Heather

Answer:3

4

+

4

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y

3

)

.

3

4

+

4

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y

3

)

=

4

y

3

+

3

4

y

=

11

22

=

=

1

2

Step-by-step explanation: :)

Answer:

x ≤ 15

Step-by-step explanation:

the first step is to add 3 to each side to get:

x/5 ≤ 3

last step is to multiply each side by 5 to get:

x ≤ 15

equilateral triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

angle 1 = 73°

angle 2 = 107°

angle 3 = 73°

angle 4 = 107°

angle 5 = 73°.

hope this helps you.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Dodoodo

Step-by-step explanation:

x=30 and y=30. I have solve it. See the picture that I have attached.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:  The line GH has an arrow, so is designated as GH with an arrow over it.  The line EF has no direction (no arrow), so it is represented simply as EF with a line, with no arrow.  The point P is, well, just point P.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

volume= l ×b×h or l3

5×5×5 =125