high-bypass ratio (separate exhaust) turbofan engine powers a commercial transport. at the cruise condition, the flight and engine operating conditions are:

Answers

Answer 1

In the cruise situation, the flight and engine working situations are equal to the weight, and the thrust is equal to the drag.

In a cruise situation for the aircraft in satisfactory situation technique, the forces performing on an aircraft in flight can be in equilibrium and produce no internet outside force. In this situation, the increase is equal to the weight, and the thrust is equal to the drag.

Cruise flight can be described because of the phase of flight that falls between climb and descent. the maximum crucial probabilities of enjoy time and enjoy gas are fed on normally in this phase of flight.

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Related Questions

technician a says that the higher the gear selected the more torque is available. technician b says that a transaxle contains gears that increase or decrease torque. who is correct?

Answers

Technician A is correct. Technician B is wrong because a gear's transmission is used to increase or decrease torque.

The relation torque is relying on multiplying the circumferential detail with the resource of the usage of the radius; massive gears experience a greater amount of torque, at the same time as smaller gears experience a great deal much less torque. Similarly, the torque ratio is equal to the ratio of the gears' radii. A gear's transmission torque modifications as it will boom or decreases speed. Commonly, with the resource of the usage of lowering the speed, a small torque on the doorway issue is transferred as a massive torque at the output issue. The calculation of torque is quantified with the resource of the usage of an extensive form of teeth.

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n air conditioning system operating on the reversed carnot cycle is required to transfer heat from a house at a rate of 750 kj/min to maintain its temperature at 24 c. if the outdoor air temperature is 35 c, determine the power required to operate this air conditioning system. answer: 0.463 kw. additional: if the heat rejected to the outside air is used to provide hot water, at what volume rate could hot water at 30 c be produced for domestic use? assume the initial temperature of the water is 20 c.

Answers

The power needed to run this air conditioning system is 0.466 KW. an ideal closed thermodynamic cycle that is reversible in which the working substance undergoes four isothermal expansion processes in succession.

Step 1: Information is provided

The house's heat transfer rate is 755 kJ/min (Ql).

Temperature inside the home = Th = 24°C = 24 +273 = 297 Kelvin

Temperature outside is 35 °C, which is equivalent to 35 + 273 Kelvin.

Step 2: Determine the performance coefficient of a reversed carnot air conditioner operating within the given temperature ranges.

COPr,c = ((To/Th) - 1) / 1)

COPr,c = 1 /((308/297) - 1)

COPr,c = 1/ 0.037

COPr,c = 27

Step 3: The power input can be provided as described below:

Ql / COPr,max = Wnet,in

= 755 / 27 Wnet, in

Wnet,in equals 27,963 kJ/min

Win is equal to 27.963 * 1 KW/60 kJ/min, or 0.466 KW.

The power needed to run this air conditioning system is 0.466 KW.

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What can your employer do to protect you from overhead power lines

Answers

Answer: maintain a safe distance from lines when working.

Explanation:

Have the power company de-energize and ground the power lines.

wearing ppe is the only way to prevent being electrocuted.

have the power company install insulated sleeves (also known as “eels”) over power lines.

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Vehicle C is about to begin backing into the parking stall.
How much distance should there be between vehicle C and
the vehicle on its right?

Answers

3 feet should be there between vehicle C and the vehicle on its right.

What is a vehicle?

A vehicle is a machine used to transport people or goods. Wagons, bicycles, motor vehicles (motorcycles, cars, trucks, buses, disabled mobility scooters), railed vehicles (trains, trams), watercraft (ships, boats, underwater vehicles), amphibious vehicles (screw-propelled vehicles, hovercraft), aircraft (aeroplanes, helicopters, aerostats), and spacecraft are examples of vehicles. Land vehicles are broadly classified based on how they apply steering and drive forces to the ground: wheeled, tracked, railed, or skied. ISO 3833-1977 is the standard for road vehicle types, terms, and definitions, which is also used in international legislation. Over one billion bicycles are in use worldwide. There were an estimated 590 million cars and 205 million motorcycles in service worldwide in 2002.

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technician a says that a defective solenoid can cause a starter whine. technician b says that a defective starter drive can cause a starter whining noise. which technician is correct?

Answers

Answer:

technician A

Explanation:

your starter drive isnt being pushed out, so that means the drive is spinning but isnt interacting with the fly wheel.

A defective starter drive can produce a starter whining noise. So, only technician B is correct.

A defective starter sound can be of multiple types. Mostly, it is a whining noise. A bad starter produces whining sounds because of a fault in the kicker solenoid. If one drives with a faulty starter, it produces a starter whining noise. Therefore, it is technician B only who states correctly that driving with a defective starter can generate a starter whining noise.

However, technician A who says that a defective solenoid can produce a starter whine is not correct because, with a defective starter solenoid, the engine is not able to crank as a result of the solenoid failing to supply power to the starter motor. Because of this, no starter whine produces.

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when reinstalling a repaired engine, tech a says all components and fasteners should be installed starting at the bottom and working up. tech b says the exhaust pipes must be aligned with the manifolds or headers as the engine is lowered into place on some models. who is correct

Answers

Technician b is correct who says that exhaust pipes need to be aligned with the header or manifolds since the engine is lowered into place on some models.

Exhaust manifolds are used to collect exhaust gases from the ports in the cylinder heads of engines, and then route the exhaust gases to the remaining areas of the exhaust system. The exhaust manifolds act as a connection point for the exhaust pipes. In order to make the engines work efficiently and properly, exhaust pipes need to be aligned with exhaust manifolds. It is because when the engine is lower than the exhaust system, it becomes a cause exiting a low amount of exhaust gases.

Thus, it is concluded that only technician b is correct that exhaust pipes and exhaust manifolds must be properly aligned with each other. Whereas technician a is not correct it is because components and fasteners can be installed in any way that seems suitable.

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in large compressors, the gas is often cooled while being compressed to reduce the power consumed by the compressor. explain how cooling the gas during a compression process reduces the power consumption.

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The way cooling the gas during a compression process reduces power consumption can be done by steady flow devices.

Cooling the compressor coils lower the bloodless sink temperature of the thermodynamic cycle that the gadget operates on. This complements performance with the aid of using improving the distinction between the temperature of the warmth supply and that of the bloodless sink. Since compression generates heat, the compressed gas desires to be cooled among stages, making the compression much less adiabatic and more isothermal. When intermediate cooling is determined out of the gas at some stage in compression then it decreases gas-unique quantity as a result electricity intake of the compressor is lower.

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technician a says that a poor engine ground connection can cause electricity to flow through wheel bearings, causing damage. technician b says that overloading may result in premature bearing failure. which technician is correct?

Answers

Technician a is correct.

Poor grounding causes serious damages. If the grounding is not done properly the current will find a path and will start flowing where the resistance will be low and thus it can create damage.

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technician a says that burning of fossil fuels has increased the greenhouse gas co2 in the atmosphere. technician b says that increased lumber operations have removed trees, increasing the levels of co2 in the atmosphere. which technician is correct?

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According to the question of fossil fuels, technician A is correct.

What is fossil fuel?

A fossil fuel is a hydrocarbon-containing material that occurs naturally in the Earth's crust as from remains of deceased plants and animals and is gathered and utilised as a fuel. Coal, crude oil, and natural gas are the primary fossil fuels. Fossil fuels can be burned to generate direct heat, power engines, or generate electricity.  

Burning of fossil fuels has increased greenhouse gas CO2 levels in the atmosphere. When fossil fuels are burned, significant volumes of carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, are released into the atmosphere. Greenhouse gases trap heat in our atmosphere, which contributes to global warming. Already, the average global temperature has risen by 1 degree Celsius.

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a sinusoidal voltage source of v(t) 170 cos (2 60t) v is applied to a nonlinear load, resulting in a nonsinusoidal current that is expressed in fourier series form as i(t) 10 cos (2 60t 30 ) 6 cos (4 60t 45 ) 3 cos (8 60t 20 ) a. determine (a) the power absorbed by the load, (b) the power factor of the load, (c) the distortion factor, and (d) the total harmonic distortion of the load current.

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The power factor in a circuit or distribution system is the ratio of actual power to apparent power. Real, reactive, harmonic, and apparent (total) power all exist in an AC circuit.

True power is the amount of energy, measured in W or kW, that motors, lights, and other appliances use to create useful work. Reactive power is the power that inductors and capacitors store and release, measured in VAR or kVAR. A phase difference between the waveforms of the current and voltage indicates the presence of reactive power. Harmonic power, measured in VA or kVA, is the power lost due to harmonic distortion. The vector sum of real power, reactive power, and harmonic power is known as apparent power, and it is measured in VA or kVA. Evident power is a vector summation rather than a straightforward addition.

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the analog telephone line has maximum frequency 4 khz. analog telephone signal converted to digital. which sampling frequency analog - to- digital pcm converter must have ?

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The analog telephone signal must be sampled at a minimum of 8 kHz to be converted to digital using PCM.

What is PCM?
In order to represent sampled analogue signals digitally, one technique is pulse-code modulation (PCM). It serves as the industry standard for digital audio in applications such as digital telephony, compact discs, and computers. In a PCM stream, overall amplitude of the analogue signal is quantized to a nearest value inside a range of digital steps for each regular, uniformly spaced sample. A particular variant of PCM called linear pulse-code modulation (LPCM) has linearly uniform quantization levels. In contrast, PCM encodings (such as those using the A-law or -law algorithms) have quantization levels that are dependent on amplitude. PCM is a more broad term, but it's frequently used to refer to data that has been encoded using LPCM.

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technician a says that when a charged battery's electrolyte is low it should be topped up with distilled water. technician b says that the battery should be topped up with a mixture of acid and water. who is correct?

Answers

According to the question of electrolytes, technician A is correct.

What is an electrolyte?

An electrolyte is a material containing ions that conducts electricity through the movement of those ions but does not conduct electrons. Most soluble salts, acids, and bases dissolved in a polar solvent, such as water, fall into this category. When the substance dissolves, it splits into cations and anions, which spread uniformly throughout the solvent. The term electrolyte refers to the substance that is dissolved in medicine and sometimes in chemistry. Such a solution is electrically neutral. When an electric potential is introduced to such a solution, the cations are pulled to the electrode with the most electrons, while the anions are drawn to the electrode with the least electrons.

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steel wire, 3.2 m long, has a diameter of 1.2 mm. the wire stretches 1.6 mm when it bears a load. young's modulus for steel is . the mass of the load is closest to:

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The young's modulus for steel is 2.83k x 10⁶ Pa.

We need to know about Hooke's Law to solve this problem. Hooke's Law describes the force applied to spring (elastic materials) will proportional to the spring constant and displacement under the elastic condition. It can be described as

F = k . ΔL

where F is force, k is spring constant and ΔL is displacement.

As we know that the modulus of young can represent the elasticity of the material. The young modulus can be written as

Y = σ / ε

where Y is young's modulus, σ is stress and ε is strain.

From the question above, we know that

L = 3.2 m

d = 1.2 mm

r = 0.0006 m

ΔL = 1.6 mm = 0.0016 m

Find the surface area

A = π . r²

A = π . 0.0006²

A = 3.6π x 10¯⁷ m²

Find the young's modulus

Y = σ / ε

Y = (F/A) / (ΔL/L)

Y = (k.ΔL / A) / (ΔL/L)

Y = ( k . 0.0016 / 3.6π x 10¯⁷ ) / ( 0.0016 / 3.2 )

Y = 2.83k x 10⁶ Pa

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Give the procedures on conducting technical drafting

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The procedure for technical drafting is summarized below:

Proper Sheet Preparation; This entails choosing the drawing sheet. Drawing paper is used for the short term and polyester film for the long term. Secure the Drawing Sheet to the Board by first aligning it with the T-square blade.Execute Sheet Layout: This involves the process of inserting the border and the title block on the drawing sheet.Create reference Zone: These can be found the in the margins and are useful for finding key information about the drawing.
What is technical drafting?

Technical drawing, often known as drafting or drawing, is the act and practice of creating drawings that graphically convey how something works or is built. In industry and engineering, technical sketching is critical for expressing ideas.

A technical drawing, also known as an engineering drawing, is a thorough, accurate diagram or blueprint that provides information about how an object works or is built. These drawings are used as guidelines by engineers, electricians, and contractors while constructing or repairing things and buildings.

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technician a says to bleed the conventional brake system before bleeding the abs modulator. technician b says a scan tool may be required to bleed the abs modulator. which technician is correct?

Answers

Answer:

technician B

Explanation:

your abs modulator is next to your resivor

Technician b is correct. This is right that a scan tool may be required to bleed the abs modulator.

ABS is the acronym for (Anti-locking Braking System). You have the choice of using the steering wheel while braking or turning using this method. When you push the brake pedal, the brake rotor is covered by an unlocked brake pad, giving you complete control of the car in challenging situations.

In other words, this technology uses speed sensors on each wheel to detect when the wheels lock up. When this occurs, the brakes are quickly applied and released in pulses, allowing the wheel to spin freely and prevent spilling while directing the vehicle.

The first indication that your ABS module and the entire braking system need to be bled to get rid of the extra air in the brake system is if you noticed that the brake pedal is particularly spongy or mushy. The ABS system may experience certain issues as a result or become weaker.

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technician a says that the tinnerman nuts used to hold the brake drum on should be reinstalled when the drum is replaced. technician b says that a drum should be removed inside a sealed vacuum enclosure or washed with water or solvent to prevent possible asbestos dust from being released into the air. which technician is correct?

Answers

Answer:

technician a and b are correct

the installed transformer has burned out. it is found that the replacement transformer needs a higher va rating. how can you obtain a higher va rating?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

When a transformer burn out, It makes a great miss in the location, the team work has to work hard to return the power back to.

There are different factors that can cause a transformer to burn. Here we will discuss some common reasons responsible for transformer burning. But, What is meant by transformer burning? It means that the transformer actually burns out and can catch fire too, when its temperature rises to extreme level with out no cooling.

Oil Leakage

As we discussed the importance of oil in the transformer in our previous article, Similarly, oil leak is one of the main reasons that can cause transformer to burn. Oil main functions are insulation and cooling.

When the oil level falls from the standard level, the winding gets hot, and as a result the transformer temperature increases and causes burning. If the oil overheats it can also cause an explosion in the transformer.

Natural Aging

Like all other working equipment, aging is one of the failure factors. However, with a good maintenance program and well trained workers the age of the equipment can be extended. While the same equipment with no or poor maintenance makes its lifetime shorter. Transformers are not an exception, Natural aging is another reason of transformer burning. Transformer consist of Silicon coated paint having a small value of insulation resistance. Due to natural aging, the insulation resistance cannot withstand for a long time, and eddy current losses occur which causes damages to the transformer.

Also, with the factor of age, side by side to the environmental effects, the oil tank of the transformer is getting damaged due to corrosion. By this way the oil may leak and the transformer temperature rises and then, the transformer burn out.

How To Protect Transformer From Burn Out?

A good and regular maintenance program, side by side to the main protection installation from day one of transformer working are the key of protecting the transformer, Protection devices like Circuit breaker, fuses and advanced protection relays are the combination of protection system. These protection devices detect any fault before it become a serious problem and lead to burning the transformer.

We had a transformer of 2.5 MVA in the work which completely burnt out when the protection devices failed to discover and isolate the fault. The main reason was an external short circuit. The large current damaged the winding.

The following precautions need to be taken in order to protect transformer from burnout.

Regular check the transformer cooling system to make effective cooling. Check fans and oil pumps. Also check the radiator for any air blockage and make sure it is always clean.

Properly check the oil level in the transformer tank. For this purpose, monthly inspection needs to be carried out. This is why its important to have a preventive maintenance schedule.

Repair leaks, if any exist. Methods of leakage repair is i details in my other article here.

Use painting and other weather-resistive material to protect the transformer tank from aging and corrosion.

Install watchdog breakers to protect against power failure and overcurrent faults.

Make sure that protection devices and fuses are designed properly to protect this transformer.

Installing lightning arrestors can also protect transformers from burning and explosions. As it protects the transformer from lightning.

Avoiding insulation resistance, internal arcing, and reducing flashover current also help to protect transformers.

Using partial discharge devices to monitor the PD activity and detect it early before turning into an explosion.

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a 30-station transfer line has an ideal cycle time of 0.75 min, an average downtime of 6.0 min per line stop occurrence, and a station failure frequency of 0.01 for all stations. determine the current line efficiency and produc

Answers

The current line efficiency is 29.41% and production rate is 23.52pc/hr

What is efficiency?

Efficiency is the capacity to avoid wasting materials, energy, efforts, money, and time when performing something or getting a desired outcome. In a broader sense, it is the ability to execute things properly, successfully, and efficiently. According to Deborah Stone, efficiency is "therefore not a goal in and of itself." It is something we want not for its own sake, but because it allows us to obtain more of the things we value.

Given data is,

ideal cycle Time = 0.75 min

Failure frequency of 0.01 for all Stations.

Average downtime = 6min

a). Frequency of line stops is,

F=np (i)

Where,

n = Work Stations

P = frequency of Station breakdown

∴n=30, P=0.01

⇒ F = 30 (0.01) = 0.3

Finding coefficient of line efficiency (E):

Formula, E = Tc/Tp×100%

where, Tc= cycle time

            Tp=Average production time

∴ Tp= Tc+FTd

⇒Tp = 0.75+(0.3)(6)

        = 2.55min/pc

Line efficiency(E)= (0.75/2.55)×100%

                         E= 29.41%

Production rate(Rp):

Rp= 1/Tp

Rp= 1/2.55

   =0.392 (pc/min).(min/1hr)

   =0.392×60pc/hr

   = 23.52pc/hr

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define the terms grading and maximum aggregate size, as used in concrete technology. what considerations control the choice of the maximum aggregate size of aggregate in a concrete? discuss the reasons why grading limits are specified.

Answers

Grading is the process of separating coarse aggregate from fine aggregate. The maximum aggregate size is the largest particle size that can be used in concrete.

What is grading?

Grading is the job of assuring a level or sloped base for a building work such as a foundation, the base course for a road or railway, landscape and garden enhancements, or surface drainage in civil engineering and landscape architecture construction. The earthworks produced for this reason are commonly referred to as the sub-grade or final contouring.


The choice of maximum aggregate size is determined by the following considerations: 1. The maximum aggregate size should be small enough to prevent the formation of voids in the concrete. 2. The maximum aggregate size should be large enough to allow for proper compaction of the concrete. 3. The maximum aggregate size should be such that the concrete will have the desired workability.


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describe the result to the 24v secondary on a transformer with a 208/230v dual-rated primary when it is wired for 230v but installed on a 208v system.

Answers

The result to the 24v secondary on a transformer with a 208/230v dual-rated primary when it is wired for 230v but installed on a 208v system is 26.538V.

What is transformer?

A transformer is a passive component that transmits electrical energy from one circuit to another, or from many circuits. A changing current in any of the transformer's coils causes a changing magnetic flux in the core, which induces a changing electromotive force (EMF) across any additional coils coiled around the same core. Without a metallic (conductive) connection between the two circuits, electrical energy can be exchanged between separate coils.

given,

transformer rating = 208/230V       ∴208=secondary, 230= primary

given, primary rated voltage 230V but installed on 208V system

∴ Primary voltage ratings V₁=208V

Hence, Secondary voltage rating V₂ =(208×208)/230V

given, voltage on secondary = 24V

Voltage on primary = 24×V₁/V₂

=24×(208/(208×208)/230))

=24×(230/208)

=26.538V

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technician a says a voltage drop of 1.2 volts on a window switch means the switch is faulty. technician b says you could use a jumper wire to bypass the switch and determine if the window motor functions properly before just replacing the switch. who is correct?

Answers

Only technician b is correct who states that before replacing the window switch it is better to use a jumper wire to bypass the switch in order to determine if the window motor operates properly.

A jumper wire is simply an electrical wire with connector pins at each side. The jumper wire is used to bypass a switch that is suspected to be faulty so that problem can be diagnosed. Such as in the case of the scenario given in the question statement . A  jumper wire can be used to bypass the suspected switch in the window motor in order to find out if the switch is faulty or not.

Hence, technician b is correct who recommends the use of a jumper wire to bypass the switch before replacing the switch of the window motor so as to determine if the window motor resumes proper functioning.  However, technician a is not correct because for the window switch a voltage drop of up to 3% is acceptable.

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Describe the purpose of the SPST 12 volt DC master switch

Answers

The SPST 12-volt DC master switch is used to turn on and off the power to a device.

What is device?

A device is a physical piece of hardware or software that performs one or more computational functions within a computer system. It can either offer input to the computer or accept output from it. A device is any electronic element that has some computational capability and can install firmware or third-party software. A computer mouse, speakers, printer, and microphone are examples of common hardware. A device is sometimes known as an appliance, gadget, or electronic instrument.

The purpose of the SPST 12 volt DC master switch is to provide a way to turn on and off the power to a device. This switch is typically used to control the power to a lights or other electrical devices.

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Assembly Drawings: a set of working drawings used in ___________________ that depict complete details of all components.
1. production
2. engineering
3.concocting

Specifications: detailed description or assessment of ________________, dimensions, materials of a proposed product.
1. necessities
2.constraints
3. requirements

Ideate: the process of ____________________ an idea, a thought, or an image
1. forming
2. developing
3. producing

Quantitative: the process of ___________________ or describing by quantity
1. estimating
2. rating
3. appraising

Answers

1 is the first one

3 is the second one

2 is the third one

1 is the fourth one

a concrete mix with a 3-in. slump, w/c ratio of 0.50, and sand with a fineness modulus of 2.4 contains 1700 lb/yd3 of coarse aggregate. compute the required weight of coarse aggregate per cubic yard.

Answers

The weight of the coarse aggregate is 1247.63 kg/m³

How to calculate the weight?

Fineness modulus = 2.4

Bulk unit weight = 118 = 1890.63 kg/m3

Slump = 3inches = 76mm

Assume a 20mm maximum size of aggregate and non-air-entrained concrete, the approximate requirements for mixing water and air content for different workabilities and nominal maximum size of aggregate is illustrated.

The slump of 76mm, 20mm size of aggregate, water content  is 200 kg/m3³.

The required cement content arrow  = 200/0.5

= 400 kg/m³

Now, the dry bulk volume of coarse aggregate per unit volume of concrete. The value for 20mm aggregate, fineness modulus is 2.4, a bulk volume of dry rodded coarse aggregate is 0.66

Therefore, the weight of coarse aggregate will be:

= 0.66 x 1890.36

= 1247.63 kg/m³

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technician a says dotted lines between switch wipers indicate that all wipers will move together. technician b says dotted lines around a component indicates the it is part of the component. who is correct?

Answers

It is to be noted that where Technician A says dotted lines between switch wipers indicate that all wipers will move together and Technician B says dotted lines around a component indicate that it is part of the component,  the correct technician is Technician A.

What are Switch Wipers?

A wiper switch is a mechanism that controls the speed and operation of your windshield wipers. It makes it simple to clear your windshield, allowing you to maintain an unobstructed view of the road.

Switch Wiper is also known as a combo switch, a dip beam switch, or a directional/wiper switch. When adjusted up or down, the left-hand stalk indicates and cancels turn signs.

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two technicians are discussing drum brake shoes. technician a says that forward and rearward facing shoes are the same and can be installed in either position on any drum brake system. technician b says that the longer linings should always be placed toward the front of the vehicle which technician is correct?

Answers

Both technicians are wrong.

Drum Brakes :

                 Drum brakes generate consistent braking force whether the vehicle travels forward or backward. Drum brakes produce the same amount of braking force in both directions, which explains this. This kind is typically utilised for the passenger car's rear brakes. Drum brakes have brake drums that rotate with the wheels. A drum braking system includes brake shoes. The crescent-shaped brake shoes have a rough friction surface on one side. They are contained within a brake drum. The brake shoes are thrust outward when the brake pedal is depressed, pressing on the brake drum's interior and slowing the wheel.

          Although disc brakes are the more reliable and efficient option, they are not without drawbacks. Although they are not very practical, drum brakes are necessary for parking a car—unless, of course, you want to return to the days of wooden blocks on sticks. As a result, modern cars frequently still have drum brakes.

          A drum braking system includes brake shoes. The crescent-shaped brake shoes have a rough friction surface on one side. They are contained within a brake drum. The brake shoes are thrust outward when the brake pedal is depressed, pressing on the brake drum's interior and slowing the wheel. Drum brakes and brake shoes are vintage braking system components that are becoming less frequent on contemporary cars. However, because drum brakes are less expensive to manufacture, some car models will have them on the back wheels.

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Technician A is wrong and Technician B words that drum brake shoes need to be cleaned and reused when lining is stained with gear oil or grease is correct.

What is drum brake shoes?A drum braking system includes brake shoes. The crescent-shaped brake shoes have a rough friction surface on one side. They are contained within a brake drum. The brake shoes are thrust outward when the brake pedal is depressed, pressing on the brake drum's interior and slowing the wheel. Each drum contains brake shoes with brake linings (friction material). To provide braking force and enable the vehicle to slow down and stop, pistons (a pressure mechanism) press against the drums from the inside. With the right care and maintenance, drum brakes can typically be expected to last between 150,000 and 200,000 miles. They typically require new brake shoes every 30,000 to 40,000 miles.

Technician A is wrong and Technician B words that drum brake shoes need to be cleaned and reused when lining is stained with gear oil or grease is correct.

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on the i-35w bridge, fatigue cracks in the deck truss and in the approach span girders were observed in an inspection. what was the solution devised to deal with this cracking?

Answers

An assessment of the i-35w bridge revealed fatigue cracks in the deck truss and approach span girders. Fatigue crack arresting holes were drilled in the components to deal with this cracking.

What is fatigue?

Fatigue is defined in materials science as the beginning and propagation of cracks in a material caused by cyclic loading. Once a fatigue crack has begun, it expands a little amount with each loading cycle, resulting in striations on some portions of the fracture surface. The crack will continue to grow until it reaches a critical size, which occurs when the crack's stress intensity factor exceeds the material's fracture toughness, resulting in rapid propagation and, in most cases, total fracture of the structure.

An inspection in 2001 revealed fatigue cracks in the deck truss and approach bridge girders on the I-35 Bridge. Because of the fissures, the cross girders were also distorted. As a result, the problem was managed by cutting holes in the components and adding support struts to the cross girders for added stability.

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which is typically driven through a gear box and a clutch connected by a drive shaft to the front of the crankshaft? select one: a. midship pump b. front-mount pump c. power-take-off (pto) drive d. auxiliary engine driven pump

Answers

Auxiliary engine-driven pump is typically driven through a gearbox and a clutch connected by a drive shaft to the front of the crankshaft.

What is gearbox?

Gearboxes are basically a collection of gears and their casings, which are most typically found in automobiles. Because most motor vehicle engines have high operating and idling speeds, gearboxes allow machinery to run more effectively and even assist in slowing and shutting down machinery. Gearboxes are used in autos, turbines, and heavy machinery to transfer energy from one rotating power source to another. More information on how a plethora of internal components combine to enable safe movement in practically all types of equipment may be found in the Crankshaft and Piston definitions.

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single-stage centrifugal fire pumps use a single intake impeller and a simple casing to provide flow capacities up to: select one: a. 500 gpm (2 000 l/min). b. 1,000 gpm (4 000 l/min). c. 2,250 gpm (9 000 l/min). d. 3,500 gpm (14 000 l/min).

Answers

Single-stage centrifugal fire pumps use a single intake impeller and a simple casing to provide flow capacities up to 2,250 gpm (9 000 L/min).

What is fire pump?
When discussing fixed-place fire suppression systems like fire sprinklers, standpipes, or foam systems, a fire pump often refers to a pressure-increasing element of the water supply. Similar to fire hose operations, fire pumps are an essential component built into fire trucks & fire boats. They increase the water supply. Fire pumps are used to boost the pressure of water coming from a static supply or a municipal subterranean water supply piping network (e.g., tank, reservoir, lake). A centrifugal or positive displacement pump that has been certified and listed for use in the fire service by a third-party testing & listing organisation, such as UL or FM Global, is referred to as a fire pump.

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please hurry!!!! which of the statements below is true a 12 awg conductor with THHN insulation has a greater resistance per foot that a 12 awg conductor with thw insulation a 8 awg conductor has a greater resistance per foot than a 6 awg conductorthe resistance per foot of a 14 awg conductor is the same as that of a 10 awg conductor

Answers

Answer:

a 8 awg conductor has a higher resistance that a 6 awg conductor

Explanation:

when it comes to wires remeber the thinner the wire (higger gauge) the more resistance.

The statement which is true is as follows:

An 8 AWG conductor has a greater resistance per foot than a 6 AWG conductor.

Thus, the correct option for this question is C.

What is meant by Resistance?

In physics, resistance may be characterized as a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit. It is measured in ohms. The symbol of its representation is Ω.

According to the context of this question, it is a principle in physics that the thinner the wire, the more resistance. This is because it suffers more from environmental conditions like high temperatures, etc.

So, an 8 AWG wire is thinner than a 6 AWG wire. As a result of this, ut exhibit more resistance.

Therefore, an 8 AWG conductor has a greater resistance per foot than a 6 AWG conductor is the statement that is true. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.

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