How do you find the capacitance in this?

Answer:

the plot is about a crocodile who lives in a river.....

Explanation:

It is about a crocodile who lives in a river. He becomes friends with a monkey that lives on a tree on the river bank. Consequently, the monkey shares the fruits of the tree with his friend, the crocodile. Further, the crocodile takes a share for his wife.

Answer:

the answer is a....,.......

Answer:

F = 0 N

Explanation:

The problem does not talk about any acceleration. We can just assume it always moves at a constant speed so the resultant force will be 0 newtons. Of course you could say that it accelerates for a certain amount of time, as the wind blows, but the problem doesn't tell us when to calculate the resultant force (if during the acceleration or after) + we don't have the mass of the jet.

Mass the air mattress support before sinking will be M = 97.2 kg

Given that

mass of mattress m=2.8 kg

Length = 2.00 m  

width =0.5 m  

The mattress can support a total weight that is equal to the weight of water that the air mattress displaces.

The volume of the air mattress will be equal to

[tex]V= (2\times 0.5\times 0.1)[/tex]

[tex]V= 0.1 m^{3}[/tex]

This volume is equal to the maximum amount of water that the mattress can displace in the water before it begins sinking.

We know the density of water is 1000 kg / m²

We can calculate the weight of the maximum amount of water that mattress will displace

[tex]V\times density of water\times g=0.1\times 1000\times 9.81=981N[/tex]

Let M represent the mass that the mattress is supporting.

The total weight of the mattress and the supported mass is:

[tex](2.8+M)\times9.81[/tex]

Setting this weight equal to the weight of the water displaced gives:

[tex](2.8+M)\times9.81=981[/tex]

[tex]2.8+M=100[/tex]

m = 97.2 kg

Hence Mass the air mattress support before sinking will be M = 97.2 kg

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Answer:

hertz (Hz)

The number of periods or cycles per second is called frequency. The SI unit for frequency is the hertz (Hz).

Answer: the answer is hertz! if you’re on plato it’s option C. have a nice day! :)

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

To calculate an effect size, called Cohen's d , for the one-sample t-test you need to divide the mean difference by the standard deviation of the difference, as shown below. Note that, here: sd(x-mu) = sd(x) . μ is the theoretical mean against which the mean of our sample is compared (default value is mu = 0).

Answer:

[tex]\boxed {\boxed {\sf 36 \ meters}}[/tex]

Explanation:

We are asked to find the distance a body covers. We know the initial velocity, acceleration, and time, so we will use the following kinematic equation.

[tex]d= v_i t+ \frac {1}{2} \ at^2[/tex]

The body starts at rest with an initial velocity of 0 meters per second. The acceleration is 8 meters per second squared. The time is 3.0 seconds.

Substitute the values into the formula.

[tex]d= (0 \ m/s)(3 \ s) + \frac{1}{2} (8 \ m/s^2)(3 \ s)^2[/tex]

Multiply the first set of parentheses.

[tex]d= ( 0 \ m/s * 3 \ s) + \frac{1}{2} ( 8 \ m/s^2)(3 \ s)^2[/tex]

[tex]d=0 \ m + \frac{1}{2} ( 8 \ m/s^2)(3 \ s)^2[/tex]

Solve the exponent.

[tex]d= 0 \ m + \frac{1}{2}( 8 \ m/s^2)(9 \ s^2)[/tex]

Multiply again.

[tex]d= 0 \ m + \frac{1}{2} ( 72 \ m)[/tex]

[tex]d= 36 \ m[/tex]

The body will cover a distance of 36 meters.

Answer:

Explanation:

Q1) d) A is not correct; R is correct (sort of) but is not the reason for A.

A vector may be resolved into an infinite number of components.

Breaking a projectile motion into the vertical and horizontal components is the EASIEST way to solve it because acceleration can be assumed to be constant in both directions. Zero for horizontal and g(ravity) in the vertical. However it is not the ONLY way to do it. Other ways are much more complex.

Q2) a) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation of A  (sort of)

A is correct. Speed is constant in uniform circular motion.

R is correct if you call CENTRIPETAL acceleration constant. It is only constant in magnitude. The direction is always changing as the vector always points toward the center of rotation.

Answer:

mid-ocean oceanic ridges

Explanation:

Answer:

mid-ocean oceanic ridges

Explanation:

Divergent boundaries are most likely to be found at mid-oceean oceanic ridges.

Answer:

Explanation:

Terminal speed is

2 m/s²(3 s) = 6 m/s

30 m / 6 m/s = 5 s

total sink time is

3 + 5 = 8 s

The total time taken by the rock to sink would be 8 seconds

The total displacement covered by any object per unit of time is known as velocity. It depends on the magnitude as well as the direction of the moving object.

The acceleration of the rock for the first three seconds = 2 meters/second²

The time taken to reach the terminal velocity = 3 seconds

terminal velocity = 2 ×3

                           = 6 meters/second²

The time for which the rock sink at terminal velocity = 30 /6

                                                                                       = 5 seconds

total time is taken by the rock to sink = 3 + 5

                                                           =8 seconds

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it is D for sure im good with history

Answer: D

Explanation: Its just s that guy ca get brainlist :D

Explanation:

This question is not feasible. There is no way to calculate the energy needed because the question is missing the final temperature

A force of 50 N was applied to an object with a mass of 5 kg, then the acceleration of the object will be 10 m/s².

The rate of change in an object's velocity with respect to time is known as acceleration in mechanics. The vector quantity of accelerations. The direction of the net force that is acting on an object determines its acceleration.

Since acceleration has both a magnitude and a direction, it is a vector quantity. Velocity is a vector quantity as well. The definition of acceleration is the change in velocity vector over a time interval divided by the time interval.

There are several types of acceleration :

According to the question, the given values are :

Force, F = 50 N

Mass, m = 5 kg

Force = m × a

a = 50 / 5

a = 10 m/s².

Hence, the acceleration of the object will be 10 m/s².

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Answer:

The altitude of the satellite above the surface of the Earth is 1,528.48 km.

F=rmv2=R2GmMrv2=R2GMr=GMv2R2r=(6.67259×10−11)×(5.98×1024)(6900)2×(6,370,000)2r=4,841,516.6 mr=4,841.52 km

A solvent is any substance which is able to interact with a solute and dissolve it.

A solute is any substance that is able to interact with a solvent and dissolve in it. Usually, the solute must posses similar intermolecular forces as the solvent.

For this reason, polar solutes dissolve in polar solvents while nonpolar solutes dissolve in nonpolar solvents. In polar solutes, the ions or dipoles of the solute are able to interact with the dipoles of the solvent thereby pulling the solute particles apart in order to have solvent - solute interaction.

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Answer:

I think it's a chemical change.

Answer:

900N, charges repel

Explanation:

F = KQq/d²

K = 9 × 10^9Nm²/C²

Q= 10mC = 10 × 10^-3C

q = 1mc = 1 × 10^-3C

d = 10m

F = ?

Force = (9 × 10^9 × 10 × 10^-3 × 1 × 10^-3)/10²

= 9 × 10²

= 900N

It will be an electrostatic force of repulsion since like charges(two positive charges) repel

The magnitude and the direction of the electrostatic force between the charges will be 900N and the charges will repel each other.

Coulomb's law states that whenever the two charged particles are separated by a particular distance then there will be a force of attraction or repulsion acts between the charge.

The formula of coulomb's force will be given by

[tex]F=k\dfrac{q_1q_2}{d^2}[/tex]

[tex]K=9\times 10^9\ \frac{Nm^2}{C^2}[/tex]

[tex]q_1= 10\times 10^{-3}\ C[/tex]

[tex]q_2=1\times 10^{-3}\ C[/tex]

[tex]\rm Distance \ d=10 \ m[/tex]

Now the force will be calculated as

[tex]F=(9\times 10^9)\dfrac{(10\times 10^{-3})\times (1\times 10^{-3})}{10}[/tex]

[tex]F= 900\ N[/tex]

The charges are positive in nature so they will repel each other

Hence the magnitude and the direction of the electrostatic force between the charges will be 900N and the charges will repel each other.

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Answer:

Explanation:

Itz Deepika Here to help ~ .

Note:- If you have more questions then let me know !!

Answer:

Speed of light =m/s

wavelength = m

frequency = ?

we have

Speed = frequency × wavelength

[tex]3* 10^8[/tex] = frequency × [tex]5 * 10^{-7}[/tex]

 Frequency = [tex]\frac{3*10^8}{5*10^{-7}}=6*10^{14}[/tex]hz

Taking into account the definition of wavelength, frecuency and propagation speed, the frequency of light waves with wavelength of 5×10⁻⁷ m is 6×10¹⁴ Hz.

First of all, wavelength is the minimum distance between two successive points on the wave that are in the same state of vibration. It is expressed in units of length (m).

On the other side, frequency is the number of vibrations that occur in a unit of time. Its unit is s⁻¹ or hertz (Hz).

Finally, the propagation speed is the speed with which the wave propagates in the medium, that is, it is the magnitude that measures the speed at which the wave disturbance propagates along its displacement.

The propagation speed relate the wavelength (λ) and the frequency (f) inversely proportional using the following equation:

v = f× λ

All electromagnetic waves propagate in a vacuum at a constant speed of 3×10⁸ m/s, the speed of light.

In this case, you know:

Replacing in the definition of propagation speed:

3×10⁸ m/s = f× 5×10⁻⁷ m

Solving:

3×10⁸ m/s ÷ 5×10⁻⁷ m= f

f= 6×10¹⁴ Hz

In summary, the frequency of light waves with wavelength of 5×10⁻⁷ m is 6×10¹⁴ Hz.

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Answer:

A closed organ pipe is λ/4  (node-antinode) long.

λ = speed / frequency = 331.5 / 259.6 = 1.28 m

λ/4 = .319 m     length of closed pipe

An open pipe has a fundamental wavelength of A-N-A or λ/2

The second harmonic would be A-N-A-N-A   or   λ = 1.28 m for the second harmonic   331.5 / 259.6 = 1.28  (the fundamental would be 331.5 / .628

Answer: It is identified with color, texture, boiling point, melting point and freezing point

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Ignoring friction, the initial kinetic energy will convert to maximum potential energy at its highest point.

PE = KE

mgh = ½mv²

    h = v²/2g

    h = 36.4²/ (2(9.81))

    h = 67.53109...

    h = 67.53 m

Answer:

An electron tube from which all air has been removed. The vacuum ensures transparency inside the tube for electric fields and moving electrons. Most electron tubes are vacuum tubes; cathode-ray tubes, which include television picture tubes and other video display tubes, are the most widely used vacuum tubes

Explanation:

hope it help

Answer: part a is e

part b a  

Explanation:

I HOPE THIS HELPS

Answer:

[tex]0.2\; {\rm T}[/tex], assuming that the speed of the electron stays the same.

Explanation:

Let [tex]v[/tex] denote the speed of this electron. Let [tex]q[/tex] denote the electric charge on this electron. Let [tex]m[/tex] denote the mass of this electron.

Since the path of this electron is a circle (not a helix,) this path would be in a plane normal to the magnetic field.

Let [tex]B[/tex] denote the strength of this magnetic field. The size of the magnetic force on this electron would be:

[tex]F = q\, v\, B[/tex].

Assuming that there is no other force on this electron. The net force on this electron would be [tex]F = q\, v\, B[/tex]. By Newton's Second Law of motion, the acceleration of this electron would be:

[tex]\begin{aligned}a &= \frac{F}{m} \\ &= \frac{q\, v\, B}{m}\end{aligned}[/tex].

On the other hand, since this electron is in a circular motion with a constant speed:

[tex]\begin{aligned} a = \frac{v^{2}}{r} \end{aligned}[/tex].

Combine the two equations to obtain a relationship between [tex]r[/tex] (radius of the path of the electron) and [tex]B[/tex] (strength of the magnetic field:)

[tex]\begin{aligned}\frac{q\, v\, B}{m} = \frac{v^{2}}{r}\end{aligned}[/tex].

Simplify to obtain:

[tex]\begin{aligned}r &= \frac{m\, v^{2}}{q\, v\, B} \\ &= \frac{m\, v}{q\, B} \\ &= \left(\frac{m\, v}{q}\right)\, \frac{1}{B}\end{aligned}[/tex].

In other words, if the speed [tex]v[/tex] of this electron stays the same, the radius [tex]r[/tex] of the path of this electron would be inversely proportional to the strength [tex]B[/tex] of the magnetic field. Doubling the radius of this path would require halving the strength of the magnetic field (to [tex]0.2\; {\rm T}[/tex].)

42.9°

Explanation:

Let's assume that the x-axis is aligned with the incline and the positive direction is up the incline. We can then apply Newton's 2nd law as follows:

[tex]x:\;\;\;\;F - mg\sin{\theta} = 0\;\;\;\;[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow mg\sin{\theta} = F[/tex]

Note that the net force is zero because the block is moving with a constant speed when the angle of the incline is set at [tex]\theta.[/tex] Solving for the angle, we get

[tex]\sin{\theta} = \dfrac{F}{mg}[/tex]

or

[tex]\theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{F}{mg}\right)[/tex]

[tex]\;\;\;= \sin^{-1}\left[\dfrac{34\:\text{N}}{(5.1\:\text{kg})(9.8\:\text{m/s}^2)}\right][/tex]

[tex]\;\;\;=42.9°[/tex]

Answer:

A. gravitational force always true.

B, C and D could be true under the correct conditions

Question

what is the force exerted on a selectively permeable membrane beacuse water has moved from an area of higher concentration to an area of Lower concentration of water?

Answer

OSMOSIS

Explanation

Osmosis: This is the hydrostatic force acting to equalize the concentration of water on both sides of the membrane that is impermeable to substances dissolved in that water. Water will move along its concentration gradient.

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The final position of the object after 2 s is 11 m.

Motion: This can be defined as the change in position of a body.

⇒ Formula:

⇒ Where:

From the question,

⇒ Given:

⇒ Substitute these values into equation 1

Hence, The final position of the object after 2 s is 11 m

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The amount of work done by the hairdryer is equal to 450 Kilojoules.

Given the following data:

To determine the amount of work done by the hairdryer:

Mathematically, the work done by an object with respect to power and time is given by the formula:

[tex]Work\;done = power \times time[/tex]

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]Work\;done = 750 \times 600[/tex]

Work done = 450,000 Joules

Note: 1000 Joules = 1 Kilojoules.

Work done = 450 Kilojoules.

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