omg please help for brainlist !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answer:

angle = 72°

complement = 18°

Step-by-step explanation:

x = (90-x) / 4

cross-multiply to get:

4x = 90 - x

5x = 90

x = 18

If she used a coupon of 45%, the price markdown would be 116.55. You must subtract the markdown from the original cost to discover the amount she had to spend.

259.00 - 116.55 = 142.45

So, Ms Rowlen had to spend 142.45 on the TV.

Answer:

  j = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Eliminate parentheses:

  -24 -3j = -16 +5j

Add 3j+16

  -8 = 8j

Divide by the coefficient of j.

  -1 = j

[tex]\rm⇢ \: \: - 3(8 + j) = - 16 + 5j[/tex]

[tex]\rm⇢ \: \: - 24 - 3j = - 16 + 5j[/tex]

[tex]\rm⇢ \: \: 5j + 3j = - 24 + 16[/tex]

[tex]\rm⇢ \: \: 8j = - 8[/tex]

[tex]\rm⇢ \: \: j = - 1[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

−2x^2−8x−6

Expand (−2x-2)(x+3) using the FOIL Method.−2x⋅x−2x⋅3−2x−2⋅3

Answer:

the first one, it's linier (even)

The first graph is the one that represents an even function. See why below.

An even function is a mathematical function where f(x) = f(-x) for all x in the function's domain. It exhibits symmetry with respect to the y-axis.

The graph of an even function is symmetric with respect to the y-axis. If you fold the graph along the y-axis, the two halves will overlap perfectly.

Understanding even functions is relevant because they possess specific symmetry properties, which can help in analyzing and solving mathematical problems involving symmetry and function transformations.

Learn more about even function at:

https://brainly.com/question/23934926

#SPJ2

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

cool

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(b). ( x , 0 )

Zero where the graph crosses the X-axis: 1

Zero where the graph touches, but does not cross the X-axis: ( - 1 )

(c). ( 0, y )

- ( 0 + 1 )²( 0 - 1 ) = 1

Answer:

14%

Step-by-step explanation:

So if we have 4 Year 11 pupils out of a total of 29 pupils at a football club, the fraction for that would be 4/29, if we convert 4/29 into a decimal number we get 0.13793103448, so we round this number up to the nearest 1 decimal place, and that would be 0.14 which equals 14%. Hope this helps.

Answer:

Therefore, |x-1|>0

=> (x-1)>0 or - (x-1)>0

=> x > 1 or x < 1

=> (- infinity, 1) U (1, infinity)

Amount of increase = 95-80 = 15

Percent increase = (15/80) x 100

Percent increase = 18.75%

Answer is 15√2/2. I think.

Answer:

x is 15.0

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use pythagorus theorum to find the missing side of the triangle.

a² = b² + c²

a² is the longest side of the triangle, so a= 8.

b² (or you can even take c²) is one of the two sides, so b= 3

We have to find  c². So make c² the subject of the equation.

c² = a² - b²

c² = 8² - 3²

c² = 64 - 8

c² = 56

∴ c = [tex]\sqrt{56}[/tex] = 7.48 (in 2 decimal place / 3 significant figures)

Now we can assume that c is half of x.

So x = 7.48 + 7.48 = 14.96

∴ x = 15.0 (to the nearest tenth).

Answer:

  £3.50

Step-by-step explanation:

The total number of cans Mae bought was ...

  (12 cans/box)×(7 boxes) = 84 cans

The revenue from sales is ...

  (3/4)(84)(70p) +(1/4)(84)(40p) = 84(3/4×70p +1/4×40p) = 84(52.5p +10p)

  = £52.50

The cost of the drinks was ...

  (£7/box)×(7 boxes) = £49.00

Mae's profit is the difference between her sales revenue and her cost:

  profit = revenue - cost

  profit = £52.50 -49.00 = £3.50

Answer:

x = (-b ± √b² - 4ac)/2a

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

24x - 19 = 16x + 13

24x = 16x + 32

8x = 32

x = 4

no clue

Step-by-step explanation:

...................

Answer:

First of all its 25 points. Second of all the answer is B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2.5 ×  [tex]10^{-5}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!!

Answer:

The probability of winning directly is, as you calculated, 8/36, and the probability of losing directly is (1+2+1)/36=4/36.

For the remaining cases, you need to sum over all remaining rolls. Let p be the probability of rolling your initial roll, and q=6/36=1/6 the probability of rolling a 7. Then the probability of rolling your initial roll before rolling a 7 is p/(p+q), and the probability of rolling a 7 before rolling your initial roll is q/(p+q). Thus, taking into account the probability of initially rolling that roll, each roll that doesn't win or lose directly yields a contribution p2/(p+q) to your winning probability.

For p=5/36, that's

(536)25+636=2511⋅36,

and likewise 16/(10⋅36) and 9/(9⋅36) for p=4/36 and p=3/36, respectively. Each of those cases occurs twice (once above 7 and once below), so your overall winning probability is

836+236(2511+1610+99)=244495=12−7990≈12−0.007.

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose you throw a 4 and let p(4) your winning probability. At your next roll you have a probability 3/36 of winning (you throw a 4), a probability 6/36 of losing (you throw a 7) and a probability 27/36 of repeating the whole process anew (you throw any other number). Then:

p(4)=336+2736p(4),so thatp(4)=13.

Repeat this reasoning for the other outcomes and then compute the total probability of winning as:

ptot=836+336p(4)+436p(5)+…

Answer:

1-0.89=0.11

0.11*100=11%

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

I'll provide an example to help you. Let's say we were solving [tex]x^2+5x-7=0[/tex] and we wanted to factor the quadratic on the left side. We can't do that because the factors of -7 don't add up to 5. So we'd have to use the quadratic formula. The quadratic formula is essentially the last resort that will solve all quadratic equations, so it could be seen as a preferred method. But, unless you can factor the quadratic, it's much easier to solve.

Now let's do another one. [tex]x^2+5x+6=0[/tex] for example can be written as [tex](x+2)(x+3)=0[/tex] and we can easily get [tex]x=-2[/tex] and [tex]x=-3[/tex] as solutions since plugging them into the factors would produce 0 (from the Zero Product Property). If we used the quadratic formula, it would take more time to plug in the variables and solve when we can just simply factor.

Hopefully, this explanation helps you to think of your discussion post!

Answer:

36.1 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

1:19 , 1.9in.

1.9 * 19

which equals 36.1 in.

(HOpe This hElps:)

If correct plz give brainliest ; )

Answer:

Q6. 49π or about 153.94

Q7. 42

Q8. 17.5

Step-by-step explanation:

6. the formula for the area of a circle is πr², and you have that r, or the radius, is 7. then, you just plug that in, which would be π·7² = π·49 = 49π.

7. the formula for the area of a parallelogram is base times height, and you have base = 6 cm and height = 7 cm. this means the area is 6 · 7 = 42.

8. The formula for the area of a triangle is base times height divided by 2, and you have base = 5 and height = 7. this means the area is 5 · 7 ÷ 2 = 35÷2 = 17.5

Answer:

277.825327

Step-by-step explanation:

Thx!