Please help faster please

Answer:

Its D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.1894 = 18.94% probability that there will be fewer than 69 broken pretzels in a run.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

A pretzel company calculated that there is a mean of 73.5 broken pretzels in each production run with a standard deviation of 5.1.

This means that [tex]\mu = 73.5, \sigma = 5.1[/tex]

Find the probability that there will be fewer than 69 broken pretzels in a run.

This is the p-value of Z when X = 69.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{69 - 73.5}{5.1}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.88[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.88[/tex] has a p-value of 0.1894

0.1894 = 18.94% probability that there will be fewer than 69 broken pretzels in a run.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. E

2. G

3. I

4. J

5. H

6. F

7. A

8. D

9. B

10. C

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B. (0.87, 0.48)

Step-by-step explanation:

I calculated it logically

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First,

7 times 8 = 7 × 8 = 56

Then,

The product divided by 2 = 56 ÷ 2 = 28

Hence,

The required answer is 28

Answer:

≈ 0.52

Step-by-step explanation:

P( head ) = 2/3 , P( tail ) = 1/3

when a head is tossed ; Gambler A wins $1

when a tail is tossed : Gambler B wins $1

Determine the P( Gambler A wins the game ) if he starts with I dollars

Assuming I = $1

n = 5

p ( head ) = P( winning ) = 0.66

p( losing ) = 0.33

applying the conditional probability in Markov which is ;

Pₓ = pPₓ₊₁ + (1 - p) Pₓ₋₁

P( 1) = 0.66P₂ + 0.33P₀

resolving the above using with Markov probability

P( 1 ) = 0.51613

hence the probability of Gambler A winning the game if he starts with $1

≈ 0.52

Answer: 64units³

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a cube will be gotten by multiplying the value of its side thrice. This means that for example if the cube has a side of xcm, the volume will be:

= x × x × x

= x³

In this case, since the cube has a side of 4 units, the volume will be:

Volume of cube = 4³

Volume of cube = 4 × 4 × 4 = 64unit³

Answer:

The graph has a domain of {x|0 < x < infinite} and approaches 0 as x decreases

The graph has a domain of {y| -infinite < y < infinite} and decreases as x approaches 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

I was confused at first because I was like "There is 2 answers" and I reread the question again and found my mistake.

And sorry for the wait because "I am in class"

Answer:

84

Step-by-step explanation:

f(1)=4^1 - 1 = 3

f(4) = 4^4 - 1 = 255

rate of change = [tex]\frac{f(x_2)-f(x_1)}{x_2-x_1}[/tex]

(255 - 3) / (4 - 1) = 252 / 3 = 84

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 of 16 is the same as 16 divided by 4. 16 divided by four is 4.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the answer, translate each point and then use the process of elimination.

For the first point, the coordinates are (-4, -2). The -4 is x and the -2 is y. Translations up and down relate to the y value, while translations left and right relate to x. To translate up 4 units, add 4 to the y value of the coordinate. -2 + 4 is 2, so the y coordinate of the first point will be 2. That eliminated A and D.

For the second point, translate up 4 units (-5 + 4) and you get -1. So the y value of the second point will be -1. In option C, it is positive 1. So that leaves only B.

Answer:

0.30 you divided the total by the number of units which is 4

Answer:

£ 0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that , a pack of 4 chocolates costs £1.20. We need to find cost of one chocolate .

=> 4 chocolates costs £1.20 .

=> 1 chocolate will cost £1.20/4 = £ 0.3

The equivalent value of the function is f ( a ) = ( 1/6 ) , when a > 3

Given data ,

Let the function be represented as f ( x )

Now , the value of f ( x ) is

f ( x ) = 1 / ( x + 2 )

Now , the value of x > 3

So , the value of f ( x ) = f ( a )

And , when x > 3

f ( 4 ) = 1 / ( 4 + 2 )

f ( 4 ) = 1 / 6

Hence , the function is f ( 4 ) = 1 / 6

To learn more about function rule click :

https://brainly.com/question/3760195

#SPJ1

Answer:

3 tenths

Step-by-step explanation: