please show your work.[tex]Simplify: −2x + (9x − 4)[/tex]

Answer:

the angle measures are 60 and 30

Answer:

n=-20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

n = -20

Step-by-step explanation:

n/-4 = 5

n/-4 (-4) = 5(-4)

n = -20

-20/-4 = 5

Answer:

2/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Because there are a total of 7 keys and he has 2 for his car so 2/7.

:DDDDD

Answer:

Solution given:

centre(h,k)=(-2,3)

radius(r)=6 units

we have

equation of a circle is:

(x-h)²+(y-k)²=r²

(x+2)²+(y-3)²=6²

(x+2)²+(y-3)²=36 is required equation of a circle.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if incorrect

Answer:

The answer is A. Texas has one of the strongest and most diverse economies in the country.

Step-by-step explanation:

Texas is a densely populated state with numerous successful industries and businesses. It has many different cultures and ways of life. Texas has grown and adapted in order to succeed and not only remain stable and functioning, but also climb the ladder of achievement and keep its position (there). (Modern) Texas has a diverse economy that continues to thrive.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of games, the friends have to play is an illustration of combination.

They have to play 28 games to ensure that they all play

Given

[tex]n = 8[/tex] --- number of friends

[tex]r = 2[/tex] --- only two friends can play at a time

For everyone else to play, we will make use of the following combination formula;

[tex]^nC_r = \frac{n!}{(n - r)!r!}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]^8C_2 = \frac{8!}{(8 - 2)!2!}[/tex]

[tex]^8C_2 = \frac{8!}{6!2!}[/tex]

Expand

[tex]^8C_2 = \frac{8 \times 7 \times 6!}{6! \times 2 \times 1}[/tex]

[tex]^8C_2 = \frac{8 \times 7}{2 \times 1}[/tex]

[tex]^8C_2 = 4 \times 7[/tex]

[tex]^8C_2 = 28[/tex]

Hence, the 8 friends have to play 28 games to ensure that everyone else plays

Read more about combinations at:

https://brainly.com/question/8018593

Answer:

6 days

Step-by-step explanation:

The can relatively small... I would just say common sense.

hopefully this helps luv <3

Answer:

12.0%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The total distance traveled by the toy car is 14 m

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

initial velocity of the car, u = 0

final velocity of the car, v = 4 m/s

time of motion, t₁ = 3 s

constant deceleration of the car, -a = 0.5 m/s²

time of motion, t₂ = 4 s

The total distance traveled by the car, is the area of triangle ABC (check the image uploaded).

[tex]Total \ distance = Area = \frac{1}{2} |BC| \times H\\\\Total \ distance = \frac{1}{2} \times 4\times 7\\\\Total \ distance = 14 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is 28.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Right triangle: 4.5

Top triangle: 6

Rectangle: 18

Your welcome :)

Answer:

0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert the walking to percent

[tex]\frac{1}{2} \times 100 = 50[/tex]

Add both skateboarding and walking

[tex]30\% + 50\%\\\\= 30 + 50\\\\= 80[/tex]

Now, subtract that from a whole percent

[tex]100 - 80 = 20\\\\20\%[/tex]

Convert it to a decimal

[tex]20\% = \frac{20}{100} \\\\=20 \div 100\\\\= 0.2[/tex]

Therefore, in decimal, 0.2 is the number that shows the portion of the distance Sandy skips.

Answer:Amount of white  paint used by Sarah =1.82 pints

Step-by-step explanation:

Amount of  blue paint and white paint to paint her bedroom walls.=9.1 pints

Amount of  blue paint used =4/5 x 9.1=7.28 pints

Amount of white  paint used=Amount of  blue paint and white paint to paint her bedroom walls -Amount of  blue paint used

=9.1-7.28=1.82 pints

Answer:

= 0.315

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps :)

Answer:

The answer is 1.2 or 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B,D,E

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2.5 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

4 - 1.5 = 2.5

You must subtract 1.5 from the amount of hours he plays piano, which is 4. This is because he spends 1.5 hours less playing drums than he does playing piano.

Answer:

1.5 pounds. it's simply 3/8 times 4

Answer:

1.5 pounds of chocolate

Step-by-step explanation:

A single batch of ice cream takes [tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex] of a pound of chocolate. For every added batch, we add another [tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex] pound, or multiply [tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex] by the number of batches.

In this case, we are making 4 batches, so we need to multiply [tex]\frac{3}{8}[/tex] by 4.

[tex]4\cdot \frac{3}{8}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4}{1}\cdot \frac{3}{8} =\frac{3}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{3}{2}=1.5[/tex]

We need 1.5 pounds of  chocolate to make 4 batches of ice cream.

Good luck ^^

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pythagorean's Theorem states that a^2 + b^2 = c^2, so 81 + 144 = 225, and 225 square rooted is 15.

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

So, to find the hypotenuse you must use the pythagreons theorm:

A^2+B^2=C^2

Now, we knowt hat A and B is the side lengths.(9 and 12)

The hyoptenuse is C.

So, lets plug in our values for A and B, and find C:

A^2+B^2=C^2

=

9^2+12^2=C^2

Now lets square each number except for C, since its a unknown value:

81+144=C^2

Now combine the 144 and 81:

225=C^2

Finally, square root both sides so C^2 becomes C:

15=C

So the answer for the hyotenuse is 15!

Hope this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

a_n=5n²+1

➜a_1=5(1)²+1

➜5×1+1

➜5+1

➜a_3=5(3)²+1

➜5×9+1

➜45+1

Answer:

Believe its D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(-6,-12) let me know if wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

Mark me brainliest plz

There are no remaining rolls, and the average approaching 3.5 is simply the current average of 3.51.

It is the average value of the set given.

It is calculated as:

Mean = Sum of all the values of the set given / Number of values in the set

We have,

To find the average approaching 3.5, we need to use the concept of the mean or expected value.

The expected value of a random variable is the long-run average value that we would expect to get if we repeat an experiment many times.

In this case, we can consider each roll of a die as an experiment, and the value of the die as the random variable.

Assuming that the die is fair and has six equally likely outcomes, each with a value between 1 and 6, the expected value of the die is:

E(X) = (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6)/6 = 3.5

Therefore, if we roll the die many times, we would expect the long-run average value to be 3.5.

Now, if we have rolled the die 3200 times and the average so far is 3.51, we can calculate the sum of all the values rolled so far as:

Sum = (Average so far) x (Number of rolls) = 3.51 x 3200 = 11232

To find the average approaching 3.5, we need to calculate the average of the remaining rolls. Let's call the number of remaining rolls "n". Then we have:

Average approaching 3.5 = (Sum of remaining rolls) / n

We know that the total number of rolls is 3200, so the number of remaining rolls is:

n = 3200 - (number of rolls already rolled)

n = 3200 - 3200 = 0

Therefore,

There are no remaining rolls, and the average approaching 3.5 is simply the current average of 3.51.

Learn more about mean here:

https://brainly.com/question/23263573

#SPJ2

Answer: go

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

What i got was 3000 please mark wrong if it not right

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

25 dollars/hour

Step-by-step explanation:

The rate of change is 25 dollars/hour

Answers:

1a) y=-10/3x+90

1b) 20

1c) -18

2a) 2.8

2b) How much the heights of five basketball players vary from the average height.

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Explanations:

1a) The trend line is linear, so we just need to find the slope and y-intercept to find an equation for it. Our y-intercept is (0,90), or 90, and our slope is -10/3. Our equation is now y=-10/3x+90.

1b) To find when x=21, we plug 21 into our equation where the x is. Now we do the math.

y=-10/3(21)+90 (plug in)

y=-70+90 (simplify by multiplying -10/3 by 21)

y=20 (simplify by adding -70 to 90)

Therefore, we can predict that when x is 21, y is 20.

1c) To find when y=150, we plug 150 into our equation where the y is. Now we do some more math.

150=-10/3x+90 (plug in)

60=-10/3x (subtract 90 from both sides

-18=x (divide both sides by -10/3)

Therefore, we can predict that when y is 150, x is -18.

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2a) The mean absolute deviation (or MAD for short) of a data set is calculated as such:

Step 1) Find the mean (average) by finding the sum of the data values, then dividing the sum of the data values by the number of data values. In this case, we have the numbers 65, 58, 64, 61, and 67, which add up to 315. The data set has 5 numbers, so we divide our sum of 315 by 5 to get 63. Therefore, our mean is 63.

Step 2) Find the absolute value of the distance between each data value and the mean. In this case, we find out how far away each data value is from 63, our mean.  To do this, we subtract 63 from each number.

65-63=2

58-63=-5

64-63=1

61-63=-2

67-63=4

Some of these values are negative, but we're using absolute value so they all become positive. We now have a new set of values: 2, 5, 1, 2, and 4.

Step 3) Finally, we calculate the mean of our new set of values. In this case, we will add up 2, 5, 1, 2, and 4 to get 14 and divide by 5 to get our MAD of 2.8. Therefore, the MAD (and the answer to problem 2a) is 2.8.

2b) Now we just find out what the MAD means in this context. The MAD always is a measure of variance in a data set. In this context, it's describing how much the heights (in inches) of five people on a basketball team vary from the average height.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

x = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

(6x - 10) and (3x + 50) are vertical angles and are congruent, then

6x - 10 = 3x + 50 ( subtract 3x from both sides )

3x - 10 = 50 ( add 10 to both sides )

3x = 60 ( divide both sides by 3 )

x = 20

Answer:

450

Step-by-step explanation:

you divide 90 by 20 and times in by 100

Answer:

Should Be 19 students

Step-by-step explanation: