the ndc for nexium 40 mg is 0186-5040-31. the number ""0186"" identifies:
The first segment of the National Drug Code (NDC) identifies the labeler or the manufacturer of the drug. In this case, the number "0186" in the NDC 0186-5040-31 for Nexium 40 mg identifies the manufacturer of the drug, which is AstraZeneca Pharmaceuticals LP.
What is National Drug Code ?The national drug code is described as a unique product identifier used in the United States for drugs intended for human use
Every manufacturer or labeler is assigned a unique 5-digit number by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to identify them in the drug labeling process.
The NDC number is necessary to healthcare because it provides complete transparency regarding the drug name, manufacturer, strength, dosage, and package size.
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The number "0186" in the NDC for Nexium 40 mg (0186-5040-31) identifies the manufacturer or labeler of the medication. In this case, the manufacturer or labeler is AstraZeneca Pharmaceuticals LP.
The number "0186" in the National Drug Code (NDC) for Nexium 40 mg identifies the labeler or the manufacturer of the medication. In this case, the labeler code "0186" corresponds to AstraZeneca Pharmaceuticals LP. The labeler code is the first five digits of the NDC and uniquely identifies the company that markets the drug. The remaining digits of the NDC identify the specific product, package size, and package type.
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Olfactory receptors generally display adaptation.
True
False
select the correct answer. which of the following is a characteristic of pnf stretching? a. holding a stretch at the point of discomfort b. using a bouncing motion while stretching c. having a partner help you stretch by flexing and relaxing the muscle d. stretching by holding a position for 10-30 seconds
The correct answer is c. having a partner help you stretch by flexing and relaxing the muscle.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching involves a partner-assisted stretching technique that involves both active and passive movements. The partner helps the individual to stretch a specific muscle group by applying resistance while the individual contracts the muscle. After the contraction, the partner then assists in stretching the muscle further than the individual could achieve alone. This process is repeated several times to achieve a greater range of motion.
PNF stretching is considered an effective stretching method as it targets both the muscle and the nervous system. It is useful for increasing flexibility, improving range of motion, and reducing muscle tension. PNF stretching can be used for both pre-exercise warm-up and post-exercise recovery.
Option a (holding a stretch at the point of discomfort) and option d (stretching by holding a position for 10-30 seconds) describe static stretching techniques, while option b (using a bouncing motion while stretching) describes ballistic stretching, which is not recommended due to the increased risk of injury.
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the nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension. when assessing the reflexes in the ankle, the nurse observes rhythmic contractions of the muscle when dorsiflexing the foot. what would the nurse document this finding as?
The nurse should document this finding as Clonus, which indicates the presence of rhythmic contractions of the muscle when dorsiflexing the foot. It may suggest an increased risk for preeclampsia or eclampsia.
When assessing a pregnant patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension, the nurse is observing the reflexes in the ankle. During the examination, rhythmic contractions of the muscle are noticed when the foot is dorsiflexed. This finding should be documented as clonus. Clonus is a series of involuntary, rhythmic muscle contractions that can occur in various muscles, including those in the ankle. It may indicate hyperreflexia, a heightened responsiveness to stimuli, which is often seen in patients with pregnancy-induced hypertension.
The presence of clonus in a pregnant patient with hypertension is important to note, as it may suggest a potential risk for developing more severe conditions, such as preeclampsia or eclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, while eclampsia involves seizures in addition to preeclampsia symptoms. Proper documentation and reporting of clonus are crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and timely interventions for the patient's safety.
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A 50 year-old patient has a mass removed from his chest. The surgeon sends it to pathology. The pathology report indicates the mass is a benign tumor.
What ICD-10-CM code is reported?
A) D36.7
B) D49.2
C) C79.89
D) C49.3
The correct ICD-10-CM code to report is: D36.7 - Benign neoplasm of other specified sites. The correct option (A).
To determine the correct ICD-10-CM code for a 50-year-old patient who had a benign tumor removed from his chest, let's consider the options provided:
A) D36.7 - Benign neoplasm of other specified sites
B) D49.2 - Neoplasm of unspecified behavior of bone, soft tissue, and skin
C) C79.89 - Secondary malignant neoplasm of other specified sites
D) C49.3 - Malignant neoplasm of connective and soft tissue of thorax
Since the pathology report indicates the mass is a benign tumor, we can eliminate options C and D, as they are malignant neoplasms. Between options A and B, option A (D36.7) is the most appropriate, as it specifically addresses benign neoplasms in other specified sites, which in this case, is the chest.
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what is the recommended daily caloric deficit from basal metabolic rate (bmr) required to lose one pound of bodyweight per week?
To lose one pound of body weight per week, a caloric deficit of 3,500 calories per week (or 500 calories per day) is recommended. This means that a person would need to consume 500 fewer calories per day than their basal metabolic rate (BMR), which is the number of calories the body burns at rest.
For example, if a person's BMR is 1,500 calories per day, they would need to consume no more than 1,000 calories per day to achieve a 500-calorie-per-day deficit. Alternatively, they could consume 1,200-1,300 calories per day and increase their physical activity to burn the additional 200-300 calories needed to reach the 500-calorie deficit goal.
It's important to note that sustainable and healthy weight loss goals typically involve gradual weight loss, and it's recommended to aim for a caloric deficit of no more than 500-750 calories per day to promote long-term success and avoid negative health consequences associated with rapid weight loss.
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which source of gastroenteritis is the likely cause for a patient who has travelled ouside the country
When a patient has traveled outside of the country and is presenting with gastroenteritis, the likely cause may be a food or waterborne illness that is common in the region visited.
Common sources of gastroenteritis in developing countries include contaminated water, raw or undercooked food, and poor sanitation practices. Examples of foodborne illnesses that can cause gastroenteritis in travelers include bacterial infections from Salmonella, Campylobacter, and E. coli, as well as parasitic infections from Giardia and Cryptosporidium.
The specific cause can be determined through a thorough medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests.
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which term best reflects the federal government's opinion on the value of a particular over-the-counter (otc) medication?
The term "FDA Approval" best reflects the federal government's opinion on the value of a particular over-the-counter medication, as it signifies that the product has met rigorous safety and effectiveness standards set by the Food and Drug Administration.
The term that best reflects the federal government's opinion on the value of a particular over-the-counter (OTC) medication is the "FDA Approval." The FDA, or Food and Drug Administration, is the federal agency responsible for ensuring the safety, effectiveness, and proper labeling of OTC medications, as well as prescription drugs and other regulated products. When a medication is considered for OTC status, the FDA reviews its active ingredients, dosage, formulation, labeling, and potential for misuse or abuse. If the medication meets the FDA's standards for safety and effectiveness, it receives approval and can be sold as an OTC product. The FDA Approval is a critical factor in determining the value of an OTC medication because it ensures that consumers are getting a product that has been thoroughly reviewed and deemed safe and effective for its intended use. The approval also provides assurance that the medication's labeling accurately reflects its proper dosage, warnings, and directions for use.
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The term that best reflects the federal government's opinion on the value of a particular over-the-counter (OTC) medication is "efficacy."
Efficacy refers to how well a medication works in treating a specific condition, as determined by scientific studies and clinical trials. The federal government, through the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), evaluates and approves OTC medications based on their efficacy and safety.
The FDA reviews data from clinical trials and other research to determine whether a medication is safe and effective for its intended use. If the medication is found to be effective, the FDA will approve it for sale as an OTC medication.
Therefore, the efficacy of a particular OTC medication is a crucial factor in determining the federal government's opinion on its value. Ultimately, the federal government's aim is to ensure that OTC medications are safe and effective for consumers, and efficacy is a key factor in achieving that goal.
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which of the following statements is most true about amalgam (silver and mercury) fillings placed during pregnancy? amalgam fillings are the most appropriate filling type for pregnant women they should be avoided because there are risks associated with placement of all types of fillings, not just amalgam fillings amalgam fillings are safe in pregnancy, but contraindicated in women who are breastfeeding white resin composites are preferred as they are believed to be safe during pregnancy and breastfeeding
Amalgam fillings should be avoided during pregnancy due to the presence of mercury, and white resin composite fillings are preferred as they are believed to be safer for both pregnant and breastfeeding women.
The most true statement about amalgam (silver and mercury) fillings placed during pregnancy is that they are safe in pregnancy, but there are risks associated with placement of all types of fillings, not just amalgam fillings. It is important for pregnant women to discuss with their dentist about the risks and benefits of any dental treatment, including fillings, and to consider alternatives such as white resin composites if desired.
There is no evidence to suggest that amalgam fillings should be avoided during pregnancy, but some dentists may prefer to use white resin composites as an alternative, which are believed to be safe during pregnancy and breastfeeding. The decision of which type of filling material to use should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the individual patient's dental needs, medical history, and preferences.
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The most true statement about amalgam fillings placed during pregnancy is that they are safe. This is because there is no conclusive evidence that exposure to mercury from amalgam fillings poses a significant risk to either the mother or the fetus.
There is currently no evidence to suggest that amalgam fillings are unsafe during pregnancy. However, it is recommended that elective dental procedures be postponed until after the first trimester. It is also important to note that all types of fillings carry some level of risk and should be discussed with a dentist. Some women may prefer white resin composites, which are believed to be safe during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Ultimately, the decision of which filling type to use should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the individual's medical history and preferences.To learn more about amalgam fillings during pregnancy please visit:
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T/F cementum helps to anchor teeth in their sockets.
Cementum is a specialized calcified tissue that covers the root of the tooth, forming a thin layer over the dentin,the correct answer is True.
Its primary function is to anchor the tooth to the jawbone by attaching the periodontal ligament fibers to the tooth's root surface.
Without cementum, teeth would be unable to remain firmly attached to the socket and would eventually loosen or fall out.
Cementum also serves as a protective layer for the root surface, providing a barrier against external stimuli and bacterial invasion.
It is a unique tissue in that it is formed throughout life, unlike dentin and enamel, which are formed only during tooth development.
Cementum contains various cell types and organic and inorganic components that play a crucial role in tooth support and maintenance.
In summary, cementum is essential in anchoring teeth in their sockets and providing protection to the root surface. Its formation and maintenance are critical to maintaining healthy and functional teeth throughout life.
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True, cementum is a specialized calcified substance that covers the roots of teeth and helps to anchor them in their sockets by attaching to the periodontal ligament fibers.
which is a network of fibers that attach the tooth to its surrounding bone. Cementum also serves to protect the root of the tooth by providing a barrier against bacteria and other harmful agents.Cementum also plays a role in providing a lubricating surface to help reduce friction during chewing and other activities. In addition, cementum helps to protect the root of the tooth, which can be vulnerable to abrasion and erosion. It is composed of collagen and other organic molecules, and its main function is to help anchor teeth to the alveolar bone in the jaw.
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the sternoclavicular joint is the only bone-to-bone joint that holds the shoulder complex onto the thorax. question 11 options: true false
The sternoclavicular joint is the only bone-to-bone joint that holds the shoulder complex onto the thorax. False.
What is sternoclavicular joint?The sternoclavicular joint is not the only bone-to-bone joint that holds the shoulder complex onto the thorax. There are other joints that are also involved in connecting the shoulder girdle to the thorax, including the acromioclavicular joint, which is located between the clavicle and the acromion process of the scapula, and the scapulothoracic joint, which is not a true joint but rather a functional articulation between the scapula and the thorax. Together, these joints work in concert to provide stability and mobility to the shoulder complex as a whole.
So, while the sternoclavicular joint is an important joint in the shoulder complex, it is not the only joint that connects the shoulder girdle to the thorax. The AC joint and the scapulothoracic joint also play crucial roles in maintaining the stability and mobility of the shoulder complex as a whole.
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in a research study, one set of subjects received a treatment and another set of subjects received a placebo. this research study is an example of a(n
This research study is an example of a(n experimental study.
Experimental studies involve manipulating an independent variable (in this case, the treatment) to observe its effect on a dependent variable (the outcome being measured). In this study, the treatment group received the treatment, while the control group received a placebo, which is a substance with no therapeutic effect. By comparing the outcomes between the two groups, researchers can determine whether the treatment had a significant effect.
Experimental studies are considered the gold standard for testing causal relationships between variables, as they allow researchers to control for extraneous variables that could potentially affect the results. However, they also have some limitations, such as ethical considerations, practical limitations, and the difficulty of replicating real-world conditions in a laboratory setting.
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the nurse is providing an education program to reduce the incidence of infection currently on the rise in the community. what areas should the nurse focus on when presenting this program? (select all that apply.)
The nurse should focus on educating the community on basic hygiene practices, food handling and storage, vaccination, environmental sanitation, personal protective equipment, and social distancing to reduce the incidence of infection currently on the rise in the community.
To reduce the incidence of infection, the nurse should focus on the following areas during the education program:
1. Basic hygiene practices: The nurse should educate the community on the importance of basic hygiene practices, such as regular hand washing with soap and water, covering their mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and avoiding touching their face.
2. Proper food handling and storage: The nurse should educate the community on proper food handling and storage techniques to prevent contamination and spoilage.
3. Vaccination: The nurse should educate the community about the importance of getting vaccinated against infectious diseases that are prevalent in the community.
4. Environmental sanitation: The nurse should educate the community on the importance of keeping their environment clean and free from breeding sites of disease-causing organisms.
5. Personal protective equipment (PPE): The nurse should educate the community on the proper use of PPE, such as masks, gloves, and gowns, to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.
6. Social distancing: The nurse should educate the community on the importance of social distancing to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.
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