Quasilinearization Method
Q9-) Define the maximal solutions and minimal solutions of the
first order IVP.

The angles are 11°, 42° and 35°.

Given are circles, we need to find the missing angles,

1) ∠1 = 1/2 [119° - (360° - (119°+174°)]

= 1/2 [119° - 97°]

∠1 = 11°

2) ∠1 = 1/2[360°-138°-138°]

∠1 = 1/2 x 84

∠1 = 42°

3) ∠1 = 1/2[111°-360°-(111°+104°+104°)]

∠1 = 1/2 x 70

∠1 = 35°

Hence the angles are 11°, 42° and 35°.

Learn more about circles, click;

https://brainly.com/question/29142813

#SPJ1

Answer:

First, we need to convert the mixed number −3 1/3 to a fraction. −3 1/3 = −(3 + 1/3) = −(10/3).

Now, we can divide the fraction by the decimal. −(10/3) ÷ (-2.4) = −(10/3) ÷ (-24/10) = −(10/3) x (10/-24) = 10/-7.2 = -1.388888889.

Therefore, the value of the expression is −1.388888889.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Convert the mixed number to a fraction.

```

-3 1/3 = -(3 + 1/3) = -(10/3)

```

2. Multiply the numerator and denominator of the fraction by -1.

```

-(10/3) = (-1)(10/3) = -10/3

```

3. Divide the numerator and denominator of the fraction by -24.

```

-10/3 = (-10/3) ÷ (-24/10) = 10/-7.2 = -1.388888889

```

Therefore, the value of the expression is −1.388888889.

Here is a visual representation of the steps:

```

-3 1/3 ÷ (-2.4)

= -(10/3) ÷ (-24/10)

= -(10/3) x (10/-24)

= 10/-7.2

= -1.388888889

```

The correct formula to calculate the variance of a probability distribution is σ2 = Σ[(x - μ)2 P(X)].

The formula is σ2 = Σ[(x - μ)2 P(X)],

where σ2 represents the variance, Σ represents the sum of, x represents the possible outcomes, μ represents the mean or expected value of the distribution, and P(X) represents the probability of each outcome.

The number of trials and the probability of success are not directly involved in this formula, but they may be used to calculate the probabilities of each outcome.

Learn more about "variance": https://brainly.com/question/9304306

#SPJ11

The hours and minutes elapsed from 8:00 a.m. to 2:30 p.m is 6 hours and 30 minutes.

The hours and minutes elapsed from 7:40 p.m. to 1:10 a.m. is 5 hours and 30 minutes.

The hours and minutes elapsed from 12:00 noon to 4:59 p.m is 4 hours and 59 minutes.

The hours and minutes that elapsed from 1:23 a.m. to 7:35 a.m is 6 hours and 12 minutes.

The hours and minutes that belapsed from 11:28 p.m. to 5:30 a.m is 6 hours and 2 minutes.

Learn more about time on

https://brainly.com/question/4931057

#SPJ1

We can conclude that the largest interval in which the solution is certain to exist is (1,π/2).

To determine the largest interval in which the solution is certain to exist, we need to check the coefficients and initial values for any discontinuities or singularities.

Notice that the coefficient of the second derivative term, (t-4)cos(ty''), becomes zero at t=4, which can cause a singularity in the solution. Moreover, the coefficient of the first derivative term, In(t-1), becomes negative for t<1, which can cause instability issues in the solution.

Since the initial value problem is given for t=2, the interval of certain existence must contain t=2. Therefore, we can eliminate option a (-5,4) and option b (π/2,4) since neither of them contain t=2.

For option c (1,[infinity]), the coefficient of the first derivative term becomes negative for t<1, which violates the condition for the existence of a solution. Therefore, option c can also be eliminated.

The only remaining option is d (1,π/2). This interval contains t=2 and does not cause any discontinuity or instability issues in the coefficients. Therefore, we can conclude that the largest interval in which the solution is certain to exist is (1,π/2).

To learn more about eliminated visit:

https://brainly.com/question/15104783

#SPJ11

The expected value of X is 8.

a) Here is a sketch of the density function p(x) with respect to the detection area:

            |    

            |    

            |    

            |    

            |    

            |    

            |    

            |    

            |      

_____________|_____________

  1      1.5   3    6    10

b) The formula for the expected value (or mean) of a continuous random variable X with density function p(x) is:

E(X) = ∫xp(x)dx

To find the expected value of X for the given density function, we need to split the integral into several parts based on the different intervals where p(x) takes different forms:

E(X) = ∫_(-∞)^1 xp(x)dx + ∫_1^2 xp(x)dx + ∫_2^3 xp(x)dx + ∫_3^6 xp(x)dx + ∫_6^10 xp(x)dx + ∫_10^∞ xp(x)dx

Note that the first and last integrals are both zero, since p(x) = 0 for x < 1 and x > 10. The other integrals can be evaluated as follows:

∫_1^2 xp(x)dx = ∫_1^2 (x-1)dx = [x^2/2 - x]_1^2 = 1/2

∫_2^3 xp(x)dx = ∫_2^3 (x-1)dx = [x^2/2 - x]_2^3 = 3/2

∫_3^6 xp(x)dx = ∫_3^6 (1/3)dx = 1

∫_6^10 xp(x)dx = ∫_6^10 (x/12)dx = [x^2/24]_6^10 = 5/2

Therefore, we have

E(X) = 0 + 1/2 + 3/2 + 1 + 5/2 + 0 = 8

So the expected value of X is 8.

To learn more about integrals visit:

https://brainly.com/question/18125359

#SPJ11

To find the volume of the right prism, we used the Pythagorean theorem to determine the height of the triangular base is 1.197 inches. We then used the formula V = Bh to calculate the volume, which was approximately 2.70 cubic inches.

To find the height of the prism, we need to use the information provided about the triangular base. Since the triangular base is equilateral with a dimension of 1.74 inches, the height of the triangle (and therefore, the height of the prism) can be found by using the Pythagorean theorem.

If we draw a line from the center of the base to the midpoint of one of the sides, we create a right triangle with hypotenuse 1.74 in (which is also the height of the triangle) and one leg equal to half the length of one of the sides of the triangle (since the base of the prism is a square with dimension 1.5 in).

Using the Pythagorean theorem, we can solve for the height of the triangle (and prism)

(1.74/2)² + (1.5/2)² = h²

0.8725 + 0.5625 = h²

h² = 1.435

h ≈ 1.197 inches

Now, we can use the formula V = Bh to find the volume of the prism

V = (1.5 x 1.5) x 1.197 ≈ 2.70 cubic inches

Therefore, the volume of the right prism is approximately 2.70 cubic inches.

To know more about Pythagorean theorem:

https://brainly.com/question/14930619

#SPJ1

Given that a ski set is being sold at 10% discount at $325, we need to find its original price,

Let the original price be x,

Therefore,

90% of x = 325

0.9x = 325

x = 361.11

Hence the original price of the ski set is $361.11.

Learn more about discount, click;

https://brainly.com/question/31430480

#SPJ1

Answer:

0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:no it doesn’t it makes a trapezoid which doesn’t have 90 degree angles or right angles

Step-by-step explanation:

The differential equation solution is y(x) = [tex]-9e^_{(-0.6x)[/tex] for the initial condition y(0) = -9.

The given differential condition is dy/dx = -0.6y. To address this condition, we can isolate the factors by partitioning the two sides by y and duplicating the two sides by dx:

dy/y = -0.6dx

Then, we can incorporate the two sides. On the left side, we get ln|y|, and on the right side, we get -0.6x+C, where C is an inconsistent steady of joining:

ln|y| = -0.6x+C

To find the specific arrangement that fulfills the underlying condition y(0) = -9, we can substitute x = 0 and y = -9 into the situation:

ln|-9| = -0.6(0)+C

Rearranging, we get:

C = ln(9)

In this manner, the specific arrangement that fulfills the underlying condition is:

y(x) = [tex]-9e^_{(-0.6x)[/tex]

This is the last response.

To learn more about differential equation, refer:

https://brainly.com/question/30811657

#SPJ4

The complete question is:

Solve the separable differential equation dy/dx = 0.9y, and find the particular solution satisfying the initial condition y(0) = -9. y(x) = e^((0.9/2)x^2-ln(9)).

Slope  of the lines that pass through points (5,-8) and (-3,-4) is -1/2

The slope of line passing through two points (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) is

m=y₂-y₁/x₂-x₁

We have to find slope  of the lines that pass through (5,-8) and (-3,-4)

Slope = -4-(-8)/-3-5

=-4+8/-8

=-4/8

=-1/2

Hence,  slope of the lines that pass through (5,-8) and (-3,-4) is -1/2

To learn more on slope of line click:

https://brainly.com/question/16180119

#SPJ1

The dimensions that minimize the cost subject to the volume constraint are [tex]L = 4 ft, W = 2 ft,[/tex] and [tex]H = 2 ft[/tex] using surface area.

Assuming that the cost of material is proportional to the surface area, we can write the cost function as:

[tex]C = k(2LW + 2LH + WH)[/tex]

where k is a constant of proportionality that depends on the cost of the material. We are given that the cost of the material for the top and bottom is twice the cost of the material for the sides, so we can take k = 3 for simplicity (since the cost of the material for the sides is then 1).

Using the volume constraint as before, we can eliminate one of the variables:

[tex]H = 16/LW[/tex]

When this is used as a cost function substitution,

[tex]C = 3(2LW + 2LH + WH) = 6LW + 96/L + 48/W[/tex]

To find the critical points of C, we need to find where the partial derivatives are zero:

[tex]dC/dL = 6W - 96/L^2 = 0[/tex]

[tex]dC/dW = 6L - 48/W^2 = 0[/tex]

When we simultaneously solve these equations, we obtain:

L = 4 ft

W = 2 ft

H = 2 ft

Therefore, the dimensions that minimize the cost subject to the volume constraint surface area are L = 4 ft, W = 2 ft, and H = 2 ft.

To learn more about surface area visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29101132

#SPJ4

The alternating series test can be used to show convergence of the alternating series I, II, and III given in the options and the correct answer to this question is Option A. I only.

The alternating series test is a method used to determine the convergence or divergence of alternating series. According to the alternating series test, an alternating series converges if the absolute value of its terms decreases monotonically to zero. In other words, if the absolute value of the terms in an alternating series eventually becomes smaller and smaller until it is less than or equal to a certain positive number, then the series converges.

In conclusion, the alternating series test can be used to show the convergence of series I and III, but not for series II. Therefore, the answer is (A) I only.

To learn more about the Alternating series, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/17011687

#SPJ11

The  probability that the person chosen belonged to Group Y is 69/164.

As, Out of 200 persons in the sample, those having at least one dream are 200− those who had no dream are

= 200−36

=164

Now, out of 164 people belonged to group Y

= 100−21

=79

So, the probability that the person chosen belonged to Group Y become

= 69/164

Learn more about Probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/30034780

#SPJ1

The child will always have the recessive trait in their phenotype.

If both parents are homozygous for a recessive trait, it means they both carry two copies of the recessive allele. Let's assume that the dominant allele is represented by 'A' and the recessive allele by 'a'. Since both parents are homozygous for the recessive trait, their genotype must be 'aa'.

When these parents have children, they will each contribute one 'a' allele, resulting in all of their children inheriting the recessive allele. The probability that their child will have the trait is therefore 100%. The probability of not inheriting the trait is 0%.

Therefore, the answer to the question is 0%. The child will always have the recessive trait in their phenotype.

To learn more about  visit:

https://brainly.com/question/20730322

#SPJ11

The calculated value of the probability P(head) is 0.5 i.e. one half

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

Sections = 2

Sections = head and tail

Using the above as a guide, we have the following:

Head = 1

When the head section is flipped, we have

P(head) = head/section

The required probability is

P(head) = 1/2

Evaluate

P(head) = 0.5

Hence, the value is 0.5

Read more probability at

https://brainly.com/question/24756209

#SPJ1

1.

a.

It will take 8 minutes to fill the bathtub.

b.

The relationship described is linear.

The equation is 20 = 2.5t + 0.

2.

a.

It will take approximately 4.807 hours to have at least 1,000,000 bacteria in the new colony.

b.

The relationship described is exponential,

The equation is Number of bacteria = initial number of bacteria x (reproduction factor)^(time/hour)

We have,

1.

a.

To fill the bathtub, we need 20 gallons of water.

The rate at which the water is being filled is 2.5 gallons per minute.

Using the formula:

time = amount/rate

we get:

time = 20/2.5 = 8 minutes

b.

The relationship described is linear.

The equation relating the variables can be written as:

amount of water = rate x time + initial amount

where the rate is 2.5 gallons per minute, the initial amount is 0 gallons, and the amount of water is 20 gallons.

So, the equation is:

20 = 2.5t + 0

where t is the time in minutes.

2.

a.

The relationship described is exponential.

The equation relating the variables can be written as:

number of bacteria = initial number of bacteria x (reproduction factor)^(time/hour)

where the initial number of bacteria is 1, the reproduction factor is 4, and we need to find the time it takes to reach 1,000,000 bacteria.

So, we have:

1,000,000 = 1 x 4^(time/hour)

Taking the logarithm of both sides, we get:

log(1,000,000) = log(4^(time/hour))

6 = (time/hour) x log(4)

time/hour = 6/log(4)

time = (6/log(4)) x hour

time ≈ 4.807 hours

b.

The relationship described is exponential, and the equation relating the variables is:

Number of bacteria = initial number of bacteria x (reproduction factor)^(time/hour)

where the initial number of bacteria is 1, the reproduction factor is 4, and t is the time in hours.

Thus,

1.

a.

It will take 8 minutes to fill the bathtub.

b.

The relationship described is linear.

The equation is 20 = 2.5t + 0.

2.

a.

It will take approximately 4.807 hours to have at least 1,000,000 bacteria in the new colony.

b.

The relationship described is exponential,

The equation is Number of bacteria = initial number of bacteria x (reproduction factor)^(time/hour)

Learn more about equations here:

https://brainly.com/question/17194269

#SPJ1

The two points that a line of best fit would go through would be B. (3, 5) and ( 5, 6 ).

The line of best fit is determined by the data points that have the least sum of squared distances from the line. These chosen points provide a clear representation of the general trend of the data and effectively facilitate precise future predictions concerning upcoming data points.

The line of best fit would therefore go through (3, 5) and ( 5, 6 ) because it would lead to four points being above the line, and four points being below which would be a good line of best fit.

Find out more on lines of best fit at https://brainly.com/question/17261411

#SPJ1

Answer:

58,000 / (π(2^2))

= 58,000/(4π)

= 14,500/π

= 4,615 people per square mile

Answer:

1. a

2. a

3. b

Step-by-step explanation:

Q1. The equation is 3x+6=30. b c d are all good answers so it has to be a. If you want more details on why a is wrong, if you expand it becomes 3x+18=30 which is wrong

Q2. This one is 4(x+6) = 40 because you have x+6 4 times and it tells you the total is 40. So the one that matches is a.

Q3.

You have 6 plus 4 x which makes a total of 40.

So 6 + 4x = 40. The equation that matches is b.

Hmu if you need more explanation

Answer:10

Step-by-step explanation:

10

1.26 more than the scarf originally so 8.26 for each scarf and 430 total made from the markup and the total profit is 63 dollars.

(a) If you bet on a single number for 25 rounds, the expected value of your net gain is -$1.32.

(b) The standard deviation of your net gain is 28.0126.

(c) The estimate the chance you come out ahead is  48.17%.

(a) The probability of winning a single bet is 1/38 and the expected net gain for each bet is -1 + (35/1)1/38 = -0.0526. Therefore, the expected value of your net gain after 25 rounds is 25(-0.0526) = -$1.32.

(b) The variance of the net gain for each bet is [(-1 - (-0.0526))^2*(37/38) + (35 - (-0.0526))^2*(1/38)] = 31.3728. So, the variance of the net gain for 25 rounds is 25*31.3728 = 784.32, and the standard deviation is the square root of the variance, which is 28.0126.

(c) The chance of coming out ahead can be estimated using the normal distribution with mean -1.32 and standard deviation 28.0126. We want to find the probability that the net gain is greater than zero, which is equivalent to finding the probability that a standard normal random variable Z is greater than (0 - (-1.32))/28.0126 = 0.0471.

Using a standard normal table or calculator, we find that this probability is approximately 0.4817 or 48.17%. So, there is about a 48.17% chance of coming out ahead after 25 rounds of betting on a single number.

To know  more  about standard deviation visit:

brainly.com/question/16555520

#SPJ11

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of base ( 1/2 *  L1  *  L2 )     *  height = volume

            1/2 ( 7)(8)     *   5 =  140 in^3

Wingate Metal Products, Inc.'s capital structure weights are 60% for debt financing and 40% for equity financing

To find Wingate Metal Products, Inc.'s capital structure weights for debt and equity financing, you need to first identify the weighted average cost of capital (WACC), after-tax cost of debt financing, and cost of equity financing.

The information provided is as follows:
- WACC: 9.0%
- After-tax cost of debt financing: 7%
- Cost of equity financing: 12%

Let's use the formula for WACC:

WACC = (Weight of Debt * Cost of Debt) + (Weight of Equity * Cost of Equity)

Since the weights of debt and equity financing must sum up to 1, we can represent the weight of debt as "x" and the weight of equity as "1-x". Now, we can rewrite the formula:

9.0% = (x * 7%) + ((1-x) * 12%)

Now, solve for x (weight of debt financing) and 1-x (weight of equity financing):

9.0% = 7x + 12 - 12x
9.0% = 12 - 5x
5x = 3%
x = 0.6

The weight of debt financing is 0.6, and the weight of equity financing is 1-0.6 = 0.4.

Therefore, Wingate Metal Products, Inc.'s capital structure weights are 60% for debt financing and 40% for equity financing.

Capitalhttps://brainly.com/question/30590270

#SPJ11

The total cost of the online purchase of $200.00 in Dallas, including the 9.75% sales tax is approximately $219.50.

To calculate the total cost, we first need to find the amount of sales tax. We do this by multiplying the cost of the item by the sales tax rate:

$200.00 x 0.0975 = $19.50

Then, we add the sales tax amount to the cost of the item to get the total cost:

$200.00 + $19.50 = $219.50

Therefore, the total cost of the online purchase of $200.00 in Dallas, including the 9.75% sales tax, is $219.50.

Learn more about total cost

https://brainly.com/question/25109150

#SPJ4

Complete Question:

If the City of Dallas has a 9.75% sales tax on all online purchases, what is the total cost when you buy an item online that costs $200.00?

The circumference of 1/8th of a circle with a radius of 30 centimeters is 11.78 centimeters.

The formula for the circumference of a circle is C = 2πr, where C is the circumference, π is a mathematical constant approximately equal to 3.14, and r is the radius of the circle.

To find the circumference of 1/8th of a circle, we need to divide the circumference of the full circle by 8. So, the formula becomes:

C = (1/8) * 2πr

Substituting the given value of the radius, we get:

C = (1/8) * 2π(30)

Simplifying, we get:

C = (1/4) * π(30)

C = (1/4) * 30π

C = 7.5π

Approximating π as 3.14, we get:

C = 7.5 * 3.14

C = 23.55/2

C = 11.78

Therefore, the circumference of 1/8th of a circle with a radius of 30 centimeters is 11.78 centimeters.

Learn more about Circumference

https://brainly.com/question/20489969

#SPJ4

Complete Question:

Circumference of 1/8th of a circle. There is 1/8 of a circle. The radius of the circle is 30 centimeters. The radius of the circle is 30 centimeters. Find the distance of the figure. Give steps.

The radius of convergence comes out as 1/4. To get the radius of convergence, we can use the ratio test.

Step:1. Let's call the nth term in the series a_n, where a_n = 2^(2n)/n^2.
Step:2. Using the ratio test, we take the limit as n approaches infinity of |a_(n+1)/a_n|:
|a_(n+1)/a_n| = (2^(2(n+1))/(n+1)^2) * (n^2/2^(2n))
Step:3. Simplifying this expression, we can cancel out the 2^n terms and get: |a_(n+1)/a_n| = 4((n^2)/(n+1)^2)
Step:4. Taking the limit as n approaches infinity, we get:
lim n→∞ |a_(n+1)/a_n| = 4
Since this limit is less than 1, the series converges.
Step:5. Now we just need to find the radius of convergence, which is given by:
R = 1/lim sup n→∞ |a_n|^(1/n)
Step:6. Taking the limit superior of |a_n|^(1/n), we get:
lim sup n→∞ |a_n|^(1/n) = lim sup n→∞ (2^(2n)/n^(2n/n))^(1/n)
= lim sup n→∞ 2^2 = 4
So the radius of convergence is:
R = 1/lim sup n→∞ |a_n|^(1/n) = 1/4
Therefore, the radius of convergence is 1/4.

Learn more about radius of convergence here, https://brainly.com/question/31400159

#SPJ11