Question 4

1 pts

When DNA polymerase is in contract with Guanine (G) in the parent strand, what does it add to the

growing daughter strand?

O Thymine (T)

0 Adenine (A)

Phosphate

Cytocine (C)

Answers

Answer 1
the answer is cytocine because Guanine matches with cytocine according to the base paring rules

Related Questions

the ______ are designed for slicing or cutting into food. multiple choice question. molars canines premolars incisors

Answers

D)The incisors are designed for slicing or cutting into food. multiple choice question.

The incisors are the front teeth in the mouth, and they are the first teeth to come into contact with food when biting and chewing. Their shape is designed for cutting and slicing into food, like a knife.

The molars, on the other hand, are the back teeth in the mouth, and their shape is designed for grinding and crushing food. They have large, flat surfaces with ridges and cusps that help break down food into smaller pieces for digestion.

The canines, also known as cuspids, are the sharp, pointed teeth located between the incisors and premolars. They are used for tearing and ripping apart tough foods, like meat.

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The answer to your question is incisors.

The incisors are the front teeth that are designed for slicing or cutting into food.

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Sunflowers must be
O pollinated
O grown
O germinated
O seeds
by other sunflower plants.

Answers

Answer:

I believe the answer is pollinate

in a forest community, the layer in which most photosynthesis occurs is the group of answer choices understory. forest floor. canopy. midstory.

Answers

The canopy is the layer in a forest community where the majority of photosynthesis occurs. The correct answer is the canopy.

Only in the mesophyll layers of plant leaves and occasionally in mesophyll cells in the stem does photosynthesis take place. Numerous chloroplasts are located in the mesophyll cells, which are sandwiched between the upper and lower epidermis of the leaf. This is where photosynthesis takes place.

The oceans account for approximately half of all photosynthesis on Earth, while land accounts for the remaining portion. Plants on land and in the ocean share the same fundamental needs for photosynthesis and growth.

Photosynthesis takes place within an organelle known as a chloroplast in all autotrophic eukaryotes. The mesophyll of plants contains cells with chloroplasts.

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Which parts are the female reproductive parts of the flower?

Answers

Answer: D, G, E, H.
Explanation: Automatically, it is the last answer since none of the other answers have H, the ovary. The ovary is one of the reproductive parts of a female flower. D, G, E, and H all combined is a part referred to as the pistil, which adds to all the reproductive parts of a flower. Hope that helped!

another name for the epicardium is the layer of the serous pericardium

Answers

The statement "Another name for the epicardium is the layer of the serous pericardium" is true.

The parietal layer and the visceral layer make up the serous pericardium, a two-layered sac that encircles the heart. The fibrous pericardium, a tough layer of connective tissue that holds the heart in place, is joined with the parietal layer, which is the outermost layer.

By giving the heart a smooth surface to beat against and by secreting a fluid that lubricates the heart and lessens friction as it contracts and relaxes, the epicardium plays a crucial role in the health of the heart.

It also has adipose tissue, blood arteries, and nerves that support and control the function of the heart muscle. When referring to this significant layer of tissue, the terms "epicardium" and "visceral pericardium" are frequently used interchangeably.

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Complete question

Statement: Another name for the epicardium is the layer of the serous pericardium. True/False.

The epicardium, also known as the visceral layer of the serous pericardium, is one of the three layers that make up the heart wall. It serves as the outermost layer of the heart, providing protection and lubrication to the organ.

The serous pericardium is composed of two layers: the visceral layer (epicardium) and the parietal layer. These two layers are separated by a small amount of fluid called pericardial fluid, which helps to reduce friction between the layers during the heart's contraction and relaxation.

In summary, the epicardium is another name for the visceral layer of the serous pericardium, and it plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning and protection of the heart.

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Complete question

Another name for the epicardium is the layer of the serous pericardium. True/false

The teacher gives their students an unknown liquid in a beaker and asks them to determine the speed of a sound wave traveling through it.




Select the statements that accurately describe the results the students should expect

Answers

As with all waves, the relationship between the speed of sound, its frequency, and its wavelength is vw = f, where vw denotes the speed of sound, f denotes its frequency, and f is its wavelength. The straightforward equation speed = distance/time can be used to determine the speed of sound.

In the same amount of time, sound waves traveling at a high speed can go farther. For instance, if a sound wave travels and returns across a distance of 20 meters in 2 seconds, its speed is 10 m/s. The stiffness of the medium (or compressibility in the case of gases) and its density work together to define the speed of sound in that medium.

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If instead of start ing with a broth culture, you need to develop a pure culture from solid media, what would you do differently?
Imagine that a colony on your agar plate was formed by both a Gram-negative bacterium that com- monly inhabits the mammalian digestive tract and (i) a Gram-positive marine bacterium.What culture medium and incubation parameters would you consider before developing a pure culture from the Gram-negative bacterium? (clue: selective media) 8 LAB 10 Obtaining Pure Culture

Answers

approach for developing pure culture from stable media is by doing it the use of streak plate method.

Can a pure culture be organized at once from a mixed broth culture?

Answer and Explanation: A pure culture can't be received directly from a mixed-broth culture. In order to reap a pure tradition from a combined broth, you would need to function one of the following culture techniques: a streak plate, a sequence of pour plates, or dilutional broths.

Explain. Yes, the components from the mixed lifestyle just need to be separate first. This can be accomplished with the aid of doing a streak plate or diluting the mixture and the use of a spread-plate technique.

Obtaining a pure subculture of bacteria is generally completed by spreading bacteria on the floor of a stable medium so that a single mobile occupies an remoted component of the agar surface. This single mobile will go thru repeated multiplication to produce a seen colony of comparable cells, or clones.

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the point where the optic nerve leaves the eye is called the blind spot. true or false?

Answers

True


The blind spot is a region at the back of the eye where the optic nerve exits the eye on its way to the brain. At this spot, no image is formed due to the absence of photoreceptor cells, i.e. rods and cones.

Phloem tissue consists of tube-shaped cells that have small holes at each end. What does this structure enable phloem tissue to do?
OA. Trap any microorganisms that are invading the plant
OB. Allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to enter and leave the plant
OC. Act like sieves, letting only some materials pass through
OD. Share genetic material among all the cells of the plant​

Answers

Phloem tissue consists of tube-shaped cells that have small holes at each end, this structure enables phloem tissue to act like sieves, letting only some materials pass through, option C is correct.

The structure of the tube-shaped cells in phloem tissue, known as sieve-tube elements, enables them to act like sieves, allowing only some materials to pass through. This is because sieve-tube elements have small holes at each end, called sieve plates, that allow for the movement of fluids and dissolved substances.

The movement of nutrients such as sugars, amino acids, and hormones, from the leaves to the rest of the plant is facilitated by the phloem tissue. The sieve plates prevent larger particles, such as proteins and organelles, from passing through, thus ensuring that only the necessary substances are transported, option C is correct.

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Chymotrypsin catalyzes the hydrolysis of peptide bonds adjacent to _____ residues in a peptide.
A. neutral polar
B. nonpolar
C. negatively charged
D. positively charged
E. all of the above since chymotrypsin has little substrate specificity

Answers

Chymotrypsin catalyzes the hydrolysis of peptide bonds adjacent to "nonpolar" residues in a peptide. This is because chymotrypsin has a hydrophobic binding pocket that specifically recognizes nonpolar amino acid residues such as phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine.

The hydrolysis reaction:

The hydrolysis reaction is catalyzed by the active site of chymotrypsin, which contains a "carboxyl" group that acts as a nucleophile to attack the carbonyl carbon of the peptide bond, forming a covalent acyl-enzyme intermediate. This intermediate is then hydrolyzed by water to release the products, which include a "peptide" fragment and a free "amino acid".

Chymotrypsin catalyzes the hydrolysis of peptide bonds adjacent to nonpolar residues in a peptide. This enzyme specifically targets peptide bonds next to large, hydrophobic amino acids, such as phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine. These amino acids have nonpolar side chains, allowing chymotrypsin to recognize and cleave the peptide bonds more efficiently.

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ammonites are: group of answer choices giant crocodiles up to 45 feet long. a type of cretaceous micro-plankton still found in the seas today.

Answers

" Ammonites are: D. Extinct squid relatives with chambered shells. The option is D correct.

Ammonites were marine mollusks that lived during the Mesozoic Era, particularly during the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods.

Extinct squid relatives with chambered shells. The correct answer is D.

They are known for their distinctive spiral shells with chambered compartments, which often had intricate patterns. Ammonites were not giant crocodiles, micro-plankton, or long-necked swimming reptiles with flippers. They were a group of extinct cephalopods, which are relatives of modern-day squids and nautiluses. They went extinct around 65 million years ago, but their fossils are found in abundance in various parts of the world, providing valuable information for studying ancient marine ecosystems and geological history.

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Complete Question

Ammonites are:

A. Giant crocodiles up to 45 feet long.

B. A type of Cretaceous micro-plankton still found in the seas today.

C. Long-necked swimming reptiles with flippers.

D. Extinct squid relatives with chambered shells.

Many marine mollusks have distinctive larvae which have their bodies encircled by a row of cilia. These larvae are called
A. trochophores.
B. miracidia.
C. planulae.
D. zoecia.
E. polyps.

Answers

The larvae of many marine mollusks that are encircled by a row of cilia are called trochophores. The correct option is A.

These larvae are considered to be one of the most distinct and important stages in the life cycle of many marine invertebrates, including mollusks. The cilia that encircle the trochophore's body are used for locomotion and feeding, allowing the larvae to move through the water and capture small particles of food.

During development, trochophores eventually transform into adult mollusks, such as snails, clams, and oysters. This transformation process involves a series of developmental changes that enable the trochophore to develop into a fully functional adult mollusk.

Overall, the distinctive larvae of many marine mollusks play a critical role in the reproduction and survival of these fascinating creatures.

Understanding the unique characteristics and behaviors of trochophores can help us better appreciate the diversity and complexity of marine ecosystems, and the many fascinating organisms that call them home.

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the primary type of microtubule that positions the chromosome in preparation for mitosis is

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The primary type of microtubule that positions the chromosome in preparation for mitosis is kinetochore microtubule.

By following the plus ends of microtubules in the mitotic spindle, kinetochore complexes, which include several proteins, propel the movement of chromosomes. Even though a single microtubule has the power to transport chromosomes, human kinetochores connect up to 20 of them.

Assembled at centromeric DNA regions, kinetochores are proteinaceous complexes with several parts that serve as the primary microtubule attachment site on chromosomes during cell division.

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which observations illustrate shared ancestry by anatomical comparison studies? check all that apply.check all that applythe same structure has evolved to carry out different functions.the same structure has evolved to carry out different functions.different structures evolve in similar ways when subjected to the same selective pressures.different structures evolve in similar ways when subjected to the same selective pressures.a structure becomes vestigial.a structure becomes vestigial.structures are found

Answers

Anatomical comparison studies reveal homologous and vestigial structures, embryonic development, and convergent evolution, all of which can indicate shared ancestry between organisms and inform evolutionary relationships. Here all options are correct.

Shared ancestry is a concept in evolutionary biology that suggests that living organisms share a common ancestor. One way to investigate the shared ancestry between organisms is through anatomical comparison studies. Such studies aim to identify similarities and differences in the anatomical structures of different organisms and use this information to infer evolutionary relationships.

Observations that illustrate shared ancestry by anatomical comparison studies include:

Homologous Structures: Homologous structures are anatomical structures that are similar in different organisms, suggesting that they share a common ancestor. For example, the forelimbs of mammals, such as humans, dogs, and whales, have similar bone structures, suggesting that they evolved from a common ancestor with similar forelimb structures.

Vestigial Structures: Vestigial structures are anatomical structures that have lost their original function during evolution. These structures may still be present in some organisms, but they are reduced in size or no longer serve the same purpose as in their ancestors. For example, the human appendix is a vestigial structure that was once used to digest cellulose but is now functionless.

Embryonic Development: Embryonic development can reveal shared ancestry between organisms. Similarities in the embryonic development of different organisms suggest that they share a common ancestor. For example, the early embryonic development of vertebrates, including fish, reptiles, birds, and mammals, are very similar, suggesting that they share a common ancestor.

Convergent Evolution: Convergent evolution is the evolution of similar structures or functions in unrelated organisms due to similar selective pressures. Although not directly indicating shared ancestry, convergent evolution can result in similar anatomical structures in different organisms. For example, the wings of bats and birds are anatomically similar, despite evolving independently in each group.

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Complete question:

Which observations illustrate shared ancestry by anatomical comparison studies?

A - the same structure has evolved to carry out different functions.

B - different structures evolve in similar ways when subjected to the same selective pressures.

C - a structure becomes vestigial.

D - structures are found

evolutionary changes that create new species, impacting the diversity of organisms over long periods of time through the evolution and extinction of many species, best describes which process?

Answers

The process that best describes the evolutionary changes that create new species and impact the diversity of organisms over long periods of time through the evolution and extinction of many species is speciation.

Speciation is the process by which new species arise from existing species. It occurs through various mechanisms, such as genetic mutations, genetic recombination, and natural selection, which lead to changes in the genetic makeup of populations over time. These changes can accumulate and eventually result in the formation of new species that are reproductively isolated from their ancestral species, meaning they can no longer interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

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The process that best describes the evolutionary changes that create new species and impact the diversity of organisms over long periods of time through the evolution and extinction of many species is known as speciation.

Speciation is a gradual process that occurs over thousands or even millions of years as a result of various factors such as geographic isolation, genetic mutations, natural selection, and reproductive barriers.

Over time, the accumulation of genetic differences can result in the formation of new species, leading to an increase in biodiversity.

However, speciation can also lead to the extinction of certain species that are unable to adapt to changing environments or compete with new and better-adapted species.

Therefore, speciation plays a crucial role in shaping the diversity of life on Earth over long periods of time.

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which of the following is formed from a matrix of collagen fibers embedded in a hard mineral substance? cartilage bone adipose tissue fibrous connective tissue

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Bone (Option. b) is formed from a matrix of collagen fibers embedded in a hard mineral substance, which provides strength and support for the body.

The collagen fibers give bone its flexibility, while the mineral substance, primarily composed of hydroxyapatite, contributes to its hardness and resistance to compression. Collagen fiber is the fiber in the extracellular matrix of connective tissues characterized by being elongated and made up of collagen glycoproteins.

It is typically arranged in branching bundles of indefinite length. It is a strong insoluble fiber. It occurs in the skin, tendon, ligaments, bone, and cartilage.

Collagen fibers are the most abundant type of fibers in an extracellular matrix of connective tissue; this is also the case for connective tissue within a section of the peripheral nerve.

Therefore, the correct answer is option b. bone.

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Which table correctly identifies the characteristics shared by the kingdoms Fungi and Animalia?


Eukaryotic
Multicellular
Heterotrophic


Mobile
Reproduce sexually
Unicellular


Heterotrophic
Decomposer
Photosynthetic


Decomposer
Prokaryotic
Multicellular
.

Answers

Answer: Eukaryotic, Multicellular, and Heterotrophic

Explanation:

Answer:

Eukaryotic

Multicellular

Heterotrophic

Explanation:

took the test and got it right. I got a 100 on the thing so if you have other questions I can answer those too. Maybe not all because some questions might be different than others

allergens that enter through the mouth are called , while allergens that enter through the respiratory tract are called

Answers

Ingestants are allergens that enter through the respiratory system, whereas are allergens that enter through the mouth. An allergic reaction to specific foods, such as fruits, vegetables, and nuts, is known as oral allergy syndrome (OAS).

If you have a cross-reactive allergy to grass, trees, or other pollens, it occurs most frequently. OAS produces itching in the lips, mouth, and throat but seldom results in serious symptoms. via way of the nose. via use of the mouth. via means of the hairs. Such allergens only cause digestive system inflammation when they enter the body through the mouth. Nose: Small particles and gaseous allergens, such as pollen, spores, dust, and chemicals, enter the body through the nose. Coughing, sneezing, runny nose, itching, and watery eyes are its hallmark symptoms.

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allergens that enter through the mouth are called , while allergens that enter through the respiratory tract are called ______.

a heart that beats in a quivering, sporadic manner is said to be experiencing

Answers

A heart that beats in a quivering, sporadic manner is said to be experiencing a condition called atrial fibrillation.

Atrial fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrhythmia, which is an abnormal heart rhythm. In atrial fibrillation, the upper chambers of the heart (the atria) beat in a fast and irregular manner, leading to an inefficient pumping of blood to the lower chambers (the ventricles) and throughout the body. This can result in symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, and lightheadedness.

Atrial fibrillation can occur in people with underlying heart disease, high blood pressure, thyroid problems, sleep apnea, or other conditions that affect the heart's electrical system. It can also occur without any underlying heart disease, in which case it is referred to as lone atrial fibrillation.

Treatment for atrial fibrillation may include medications to control the heart rate and rhythm, blood thinners to reduce the risk of blood clots and stroke, cardioversion (a procedure to restore normal heart rhythm), or catheter ablation (a procedure to destroy the tissue causing the abnormal heart rhythm).

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onathan has leukemia, which is a cancer of the blood. people with leukemia have white blood cells that grow and divide rapidly. these abnormal cells crowd out healthy red blood cells. what can the lymphatic system do to help jonathan's body fight this cancer? the spleen can remove damaged red blood cells. the thymus can produce b cells that target the cancer cells. the lymph nodes can remove cancer cells from lymph. the lymphatics can destroy cancer cells in the blood.

Answers

The lymph nodes can remove cancer cells from the lymph. The correct answer is C.

The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in the body's immune response, including the detection and elimination of abnormal or cancerous cells.

In the case of leukemia, where white blood cells (including cancer cells) proliferate rapidly, the lymphatic system helps in fighting cancer by filtering and removing these cancer cells from the lymph.

The lymph nodes, act as filters for the lymph fluid. They contain immune cells, such as lymphocytes and macrophages, that help recognize and remove cancer cells.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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Jonathan has leukemia, which is a cancer of the blood. people with leukemia have white blood cells that grow and divide rapidly. these abnormal cells crowd out healthy red blood cells.

what can the lymphatic system do to help Jonathan's body fight this cancer?

A. The spleen can remove damaged red blood cells.

B. The thymus can produce b cells that target the cancer cells.

C. The lymph nodes can remove cancer cells from the lymph.

D. The lymphatics can destroy cancer cells in the blood.

the oldest fossils to be designated homo sapiens are _____. multiple choice question. cro-magnons australopithecines neandertals ardipithecines

Answers

The oldest fossils to be designated homo sapiens are Cro-Magnons, option A.

Early Homo sapiens who lived in Europe during the Upper Palaeolithic Period (between 40,000 and 10,000 years ago) were known as Cro-Magnons.

A number of clearly old human remains were discovered in 1868 in a small cave at Cro-Magnon, close to the town of Les Eyzies-de-Tayac in the Dordogne area of southern France. Édouard Lartet, a French geologist, explored the cave and found five strata of artefacts. It was determined that the human bones discovered in the uppermost stratum were between 10,000 and 35,000 years old.

This discovery confirmed the existence of Cro-Magnon prehistoric people, who together with Neanderthals (H. neanderthalensis) are now regarded as archetypal prehistoric humans. According to recent investigations, Cro-Magnons may have appeared as early as 45,000 years ago.

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The oldest fossils to be designated The oldest fossils to be designated Homo sapiens are Cro-Magnons.

Homo sapiens, the first modern humans, evolved from their early hominid predecessors between 200,000 and 300,000 years ago. They developed a capacity for language about 50,000 years ago. The first modern humans began moving outside of Africa starting about 70,000-100,000 years ago.

The oldest fossils to be designated homo sapiens are not neandertals or australopithecines or ardipithecines, but rather cro-magnons.

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cells with spinelike processes protruding from the cytoplasmic membrane (spider cells), occurring singularly and rarely in sheets, with smooth nuclear margins found proximal to the endocervical canal are diagnostic of

Answers

Undeveloped metaplastic cells. Typically parabasal in size, basophilic cytoplasm, clearly defined boundaries, and vesicular nuclei characterise immature squamous metaplasia. Hence (c) is the correct option.

Pavement patterns, cobblestone pieces, or a homogeneous appearance are frequently seen. These cells may have cytoplasmic features that resemble spines or spider cells when they are forcibly removed. protective reaction among older female riders. a lot of times connected to endocrine issues, inflammation, and other kinds of harm.The goal of the project is to create a lab manual that will be made available as a free instructional resource to students in our first-semester large introductory Anatomy programme.

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Cells with spinelike processes protruding from the cytoplasmic membrane (spider cells), occurring singularly and rarely in sheets, with smooth nuclear margins found proximal to the endocervical canal are diagnostic of:

a. adenocarcinoma in situ, endocervix

b. endocervical columnar cells

c. immature metaplastic cells

d. mature metaplastic cells

during the stage of mitosis known as , gene expression resumes, as chromosomes uncoil. listen to the complete question

Answers

During the stage of mitosis known as telophase, gene expression resumes, as chromosomes uncoil.

The process of cytokinesis:

As the cell prepares for cytokinesis, the nuclear envelope reforms and the chromatin becomes less condensed, allowing for gene expression to occur. This process is essential for the proper functioning and differentiation of cells. Each chromosome contains genes, which dictate the expression of traits and characteristics. As the chromosomes uncoil, the genes become accessible to the cellular machinery responsible for gene expression, allowing for the necessary proteins to be produced.

During the stage of mitosis known as telophase, gene expression resumes, as chromosomes uncoil. In this phase, the chromosomes begin to uncoil and return to their normal, relaxed state, allowing for gene expression to resume. This marks the end of the mitosis process, leading to the final stage, cytokinesis, where the cell divides into two daughter cells.

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one a group of related organelles in plant cells that are involved in the storage of starches, fats, proteins, and pigments. is called?

Answers

The group of related organelles in plant cells that are involved in the storage of starches, fats, proteins, and pigments are called plastids.

Types of plastids:

There are different types of plastids, such as chloroplasts, which are responsible for photosynthesis and contain the pigment chlorophyll, and chromoplasts, which are responsible for pigment synthesis and storage. Each type of plastid has a specific function in the plant cell. Plastids have various types, including chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and leucoplasts.

Role of plastids:

Chloroplasts are responsible for photosynthesis, converting light energy into chemical energy. Chromoplasts contain pigments that give color to plant structures, such as flowers and fruits. The main function of plastids is to store essential molecules and facilitate specific cellular processes like photosynthesis and pigment synthesis.

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he experimental results, which of the following is the best evolutionary explanation for the occurrence of ard in c. elegans ? responses the ability to enter ard provides a strong selective advantage because reproduction can occur despite periods of food scarcity. the ability to enter , a r d, provides a strong selective advantage because reproduction can occur despite periods of food scarcity. acquiring the genes for ard gives individuals a selective advantage because they produce more offspring than do individuals who cannot enter ard . acquiring the genes for , a r d, gives individuals a selective advantage because they produce more offspring than do individuals who cannot enter , a r d, . individuals who can enter ard are selected for in the population because they live longer than do individuals who cannot enter ard .

Answers

The ability to enter a r d provides a strong selective advantage because reproduction can occur despite periods of food scarcity is the best evolutionary explanation for the occurrence of a r d in C. elegans. So, the correct answer is  1.

According to the experimental findings, when food is in short supply, C. elegans can enter a r d stage before returning to normal development when food is plentiful.

This trait gives the organism a significant selective advantage in the wild by enabling it to reproduce and live during times of food scarcity.

It is possible that an evolutionary process that has favoured people with the genes required to enter this state over those who cannot has resulted in their ability to do so.

The findings of the experiment thus imply that the capacity to enter a ring is a beneficial adaptation that has been favoured in the C. elegans population.

Complete Question:

The experimental results suggest which of the following is the best evolutionary explanation for the occurrence of a r d in C. elegans?

Options:

1. The ability to enter a r d provides a strong selective advantage because reproduction can occur despite periods of food scarcity.

2. Acquiring the genes for a r d gives individuals a selective advantage because they produce more offspring than those who cannot enter a r d .

3. Individuals who can enter a r d are selected for in the population because they live longer than those who cannot enter a r d .

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the length of an unknown dna segment is able to be determined in gel electrophoresis by what method? select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a using ethidium bromide to stain the dna segment. b running the unknown dna with a segment of dna from a similar species. c running the dna with a dna segment of known length. d staining the segment with methylene blue, followed by ethidium bromide. e none of the above.

Answers

The length  of an unknown DNA segment can be determined in gel electrophoresis by  running the DNA with a DNA segment of known length. So, the correct answer is option C.

The method of gel electrophoresis is used to sort DNA fragments according to their size. A gel matrix is loaded with the DNA fragments, and an electric field is then applied.

Depending on their size, the pieces will then move through the gel at various rates. The unknown DNA segment's length can then be ascertained by comparing it to a known length DNA segment.

It is possible to compare the time required for the unknown fragment to pass through the gel to the time required for the known fragment to do so. You can then determine how big the unknown piece is in relation to the known fragment.

Complete Question:

The length  of an unknown DNA segment can be determined in gel electrophoresis by:

A. Using ethidium bromide to stain the DNA segment.

B. Running the unknown DNA with a segment of DNA from a similar species.

C. Running the DNA with a DNA segment of known length.

D. Staining the segment with methylene blue, followed by ethidium bromide.

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explain the difference the structure of free and bound ribosomes.

Answers

Answer:

Hello! See the explanation below for an idea of the difference between free and bound ribosomes.

Explanation:

"Membrane-bound and free ribosomes are structurally and functionally identical. They differ only in the proteins they are making at any given time."

you want to know whether your patient has been exposed to measles virus and seroconverted (produced antibodies to the measles virus). how will you test it?

Answers

To determine whether a patient has been exposed to measles virus and seroconverted, a blood test can be conducted to measure the levels of measles-specific antibodies in their bloodstream.

This test is called a measles IgG antibody test, and it detects the presence of IgG antibodies that are produced by the immune system in response to measles infection or vaccination.

If the test shows high levels of measles-specific IgG antibodies, it indicates that the patient has been exposed to the virus and has developed immunity against it.

This test is particularly useful for confirming a suspected measles infection and for monitoring the immunity status of individuals who may be at risk of contracting the disease.

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which of the following are increased with the use of mood-stabilizing drugs? group of answer choices brain-derived neurotrophic factor potassium ions serotonin and norepinephrine first messengers

Answers

Highs and lows are increased with the use of mood-stabilizing drugs.

These are some kind of psychiatric drugs that helps in neutralizing depression, hypomania, bipolar disorder, etc.

Lithium, anticonvulsants, and antipsychotics are the three main mood stabilizers.

These medications have different names termed by the doctors for the treatments.

the experiments carried out by griffith were important because they showed ______.

Answers

The experiments conducted by Griffith were important because they showed how genetic traits can be passed from one generation to another.

This was a breakthrough concept at the time as it demonstrated that genetic traits could be inherited. Prior to this, it was believed that traits were either acquired from the environment or determined by the particular combination of genetic material that existed in the parents.

Griffith's experiments focused on bacteria and their ability to cause pneumonia. He found that the bacteria which caused pneumonia in mice could be passed from one generation to the next.

This demonstrated that the trait of causing pneumonia was genetically inherited. This discovery was a major breakthrough in the understanding of genetics and would eventually lead to the discovery of DNA and the genetic code.

Know more about genetic traits here

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