Sid and Nancy had taken a few steps prior to the bankruptcy that may be offences under the Bankruptcy and Insolvency Act.
Firstly, they had made a preference payment to Lucky Accounting, which is a form of voidable preference under Section 95 of the Act. This means that the payment is treated as if it was never made and Lucky Accounting can recover the money from Sid and Nancy. Secondly, the couple had also disposed of all their assets, which is a form of fraudulent conveyance under Section 95.1 of the Act. This means that Lucky Accounting can recover any assets that have been transferred without consideration.
Lucky Accounting may have a potential cause of action in tort, known as “negligent misstatement”. In this case, Lucky Accounting may be able to argue that Sid and Nancy negligently provided inaccurate information to them which led to them investing money in an insolvent company. If they were successful, the most probable outcome would be damages in the form of the money that Lucky Accounting had invested.
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Had to split question #16 into two photos for words to remain clear and visible.
What is the earnings credit rate? Assume the following: Ledger Balance = $300,000 Deposit Font - $100,000 Monthly Earnings Credit = $507 Days in Month 30 days Reserve Requirement Ratio * 10% No express your answer as a decimal (example: Nyour or a 4:33then enter it as 0.043) Thank you.
The monthly earnings credit is the amount of money a bank credits to a customer's account as compensation for the customer's deposits. The earnings credit rate for this scenario is 3.70%.
It is calculated based on the average daily balance in the account and the earnings credit rate (ECR) set by the bank.
To calculate the earnings credit rate (ECR) for this scenario, we need to use the following formula:
ECR = (Monthly earnings credit / Average daily balance) x (365 / Days in month)
We can calculate the average daily balance as follows:
Average daily balance = (Ledger balance + Deposit float) / Days in month
Average daily balance = ($300,000 + $100,000) / 30
= $13,333.33
We are given that the monthly earnings credit is $507, and the days in the month are 30. The reserve requirement ratio is also given as 10%.
Using the formula for ECR, we get:
ECR = ($507 / $13,333.33) x (365 / 30)
ECR = 0.036975 or 3.70% (rounded to two decimal places)
Therefore, the earnings credit rate for this scenario is 3.70%.
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Because of the discouraged worker effect, the stated ________ rate may __________ the true magnitude of the problem being studied.Unemployment, Understate or Underestimate how bad the problem isInflation, Exaggerate or make it appear worse than it isInflation, Understate or Underestimate how bad the problem isUnemployment, Exaggerate or make it appear worse than it is
The Discouraged Worker Effect is an economic phenomenon that occurs when a person who is unemployed and actively seeking work is no longer counted as part of the labor force, either because they become discouraged from their job search or because they have been out of work for so long that they are no longer considered employable.
This effect can have a significant impact on the accuracy of economic indicators, such as the unemployment rate. As the number of discouraged workers increases, the stated unemployment rate will underestimate the true magnitude of the problem, as these individuals are no longer counted as unemployed. Conversely, when the number of discouraged workers decreases, the stated unemployment rate will overestimate the true magnitude of the problem, as these individuals are now included in the unemployment rate.
Therefore, the Discouraged Worker Effect can have a significant impact on the accuracy of economic indicators such as the unemployment rate, making it important to take into account when interpreting economic data.
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Consider a five year corporate bond with a face value of $1,000. The bond currently pays a coupon of 5% per annum, but there is a chance the bond's issuer may default in five years time (just before the final payments on the bond are paid to bondholders).
There is a 80% chance that the bond will repay all of its cash flows in full, as promised. However, there is a 20% chance that the bond will default, and bondholders will only receive a fraction of the cash flows they were promised. Specifically, if the issuer defaults just before the maturity date of the bond, then bondholders will only receive $0.30 per $1 of cash flows they were promised on the maturity date. Given this default risk, the appropriate discount rate is 9% per annum.
What is the fair price of this corporate bond?
Group of answer choices
1049.14
844.42
1000
748.87
336.71
The fair price of the corporate bond is A)$1049.14
To calculate the fair price of the bond, we need to discount all the expected cash flows of the bond to their present values using the appropriate discount rate.
The bond pays a coupon of 5% per annum on the face value of $1,000, which means a cash flow of $50 per year. The bond matures in five years, and at maturity, the bondholders will receive the face value of $1,000.
Given the default risk of the bond, we need to adjust the expected cash flows by the probability of default and the recovery rate. The probability of default is 20%, and the recovery rate is 30%, which means that bondholders will only receive 30% of the face value if the issuer defaults.
Using the above information, we can calculate the expected cash flows as follows:
Expected cash flow = ($50 x 5 x 0.8) + ($1,000 x 0.8 x 0.2 x 0.3) = $196
Next, we need to discount the expected cash flows to their present values using the appropriate discount rate of 9% per annum. This can be done using the formula:
Present value = Cash flow / (1 + Discount rate) ^ Time
Using this formula, we can calculate the present value of the expected cash flows as follows:
Present value = ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 1) + ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 2) + ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 3) + ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 4) + ($1,196 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 5) = $853.13
Therefore, the fair price of the bond is the present value of the expected cash flows, which is $853.13. However, this price needs to be adjusted for the default risk, which reduces the expected cash flows by 20% x 30% = 6%. Therefore, the fair price of the bond is $853.13 x (1 - 0.06) = A)$1,048.87.
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One way to establish credibility is to become more dependent of
government when designing policy
Select one:
True
False
The statement "One way to establish credibility is to become more dependent of government when designing policy" is false because One way to establish credibility is not to become more dependent on the government when designing policy.
Credibility can be established by creating well-researched, evidence-based policies that are transparent and include input from various stakeholders.
Becoming more dependent on the government can limit the scope of perspectives and potentially reduce objectivity. To create credible policies, it's important to remain independent, gather data from multiple sources, engage in consultation with experts and the public, and have clear and accountable decision-making processes.
This approach ensures that policies are well-rounded, evidence-driven, and have the trust and support of the people they aim to serve.
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Consider a market for used cars. Specifically, there are a continuum of risk-neutral (potential) buyers and a continuum of risk-neutral (potential) sellers each with total measure normalized to one. The quality of a car is denoted by q E [0,1], and the fraction of sellers who own cars with quality less than is F(q)- q (i.e., quality is uniformly distributed throughout the population). The payoff of a buyer who purchases a car of quality q at price p is q - p, and his payoff is zero if he does not purchase a car. The payoff of a seller who sells a car of quality q at a price of p is p, and her payoff is q if she does not sell. Suppose sellers first decide whether or not to put their cars on a centralized market and if they choose to sell they post non-negotiable prices A. Suppose that quality is observable by buyers and sellers. Find the equilibrium volume of trade and the equilibrium value of net social surplus i.e., the increase in welfare B. Now suppose that sellers observe the quality of their cars but that buyers do not. If all cars with q ? q are put on the market and all cars with q > qare not, what will be the equilibrium price of cars on the market? c.Continue to suppose that only sellers observe quality. Find the equi librium volume of trade, the equilibrium price of cars on the market, and the equilibrium value of net social surplus D. Now suppose that if a seller pays a certification fee of c 3/16, then buyers will be able to observe the quality of her car. Find the highest quality level, q and lowest quality level, q that get certified in equilibrium e.Suppose that the certification fee corresponds to a real resource cost and calculate the equilibrium value of net social surplus in this situation. Is social surplus higher with or without the certification technology? Briefly explain why.
In a market for used cars, risk-neutral buyers and sellers interact with each other with the quality of cars denoted by q. If buyers and sellers observe quality, then the equilibrium volume of trade and the equilibrium value of net social surplus can be found.
If only sellers observe quality, then the equilibrium price of cars on the market, the equilibrium volume of trade, and the equilibrium value of net social surplus can be determined.
If sellers pay a certification fee, then buyers will be able to observe the quality of the car, leading to a higher quality level and lower quality level being certified in equilibrium.
The equilibrium value of net social surplus is higher with the certification technology as the certification fee corresponds to a real resource cost, leading to increased efficiency in the market and greater social surplus.
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1.if the actual unemployment rate is 8% and the natural rate of unemployment is 5%, then the cyclical unemployment rate is?
The natural rate of unemployment is subtracted from the actual unemployment rate to arrive at the cyclical unemployment rate.
(8% - 5% = 3%) The cyclical unemployment rate would be 3%.
The cyclical unemployment rate is calculated by subtracting the natural rate of unemployment from the actual unemployment rate. So, in this case, the cyclical unemployment rate would be 3% (8% - 5% = 3%). This represents the portion of unemployment that is due to the current economic cycle or downturn, rather than due to structural or frictional factors.
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doing whatever is necessary to transfer ownership from one party to another, including providing credit, delivery, installation, guarantees, and follow-up services.
possession utility place utility Form Utility
information utility
Possession utility is doing whatever is necessary to transfer ownership from one party to another, including providing credit, delivery, installation, guarantees, and follow-up services.
The amount of usefulness or perceived worth a consumer obtains from possessing and being able to utilise a particular product is known as possession utility. This utility's fundamental tenet is that customers need to be able to utilise a certain good or service as soon as they are able to buy it or receive it.
For instance, if the most recent iPhone is backordered by Apple and can't be produced and sent to the customer in a timely manner, the product won't be very useful to the buyer. So, it is crucial for businesses to make their products easier to own, as this raises the product's usefulness as a possession or perceived value.
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Possession utility is necessary to transfer ownership from one party to another, including providing credit, delivery, installation, guarantees, and follow-up services.
The value that is produced for consumers by giving a buyer ownership of a good or service is referred to as possession utility. This comprises all actions required to complete the transfer, such as giving credit, making a delivery, setting up an installation, offering guarantees, and providing after-sale services. One of the four forms of utility that are frequently used to describe the value produced for clients through the marketing of goods and services is possession utility. Form utility, location utility, and time utility are the other three categories of utility. Businesses may guarantee that their consumers obtain the goods or services they require and are happy with their purchasing experience by offering possession utility.
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Calculate the future value of $9,000 in a. Four years at an interest rate of 9% per year. b. Eight years at an interest rate of 9% per year. c. Four years at an interest rate of 18% per year. d. Why is the amount of interest earned in part (a) less than half the amount of interest earned in part (b)? a. Four years at an interest rate of 9% per year. The future value of $9,000 in 4 years at an interest rate of 9% per year is $_____. (Round to the nearest dollar.)
a. The future value of $9,000 in 4 years at an interest rate of 9% per year is $12,962.
b. The future value of $9,000 in 8 years at an interest rate of 9% per year is $18,506.
c. The future value of $9,000 in 4 years at an interest rate of 18% per year is $16,542.
d. The amount of interest earned in part (a) is less than half the amount of interest earned in part (b) because of the effect of compounding
a) To calculate the future value of $9,000 in 4 years at an interest rate of 9% per year, we can use the following formula:
FV = PV x (1 + r)^n
Where PV is the present value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of years.
Plugging in the numbers, we get:
FV = 9,000 x (1 + 0.09)^4 = $12,744.39
Therefore, the future value of $9,000 in 4 years at an interest rate of 9% per year is $12,744.39.
b) To calculate the future value of $9,000 in 8 years at an interest rate of 9% per year, we can use the same formula:
FV = PV x (1 + r)^n
Plugging in the numbers, we get:
FV = 9,000 x (1 + 0.09)^8 = $19,402.08
Therefore, the future value of $9,000 in 8 years at an interest rate of 9% per year is $19,402.08.
c) To calculate the future value of $9,000 in 4 years at an interest rate of 18% per year, we can again use the same formula:
FV = PV x (1 + r)^n
Plugging in the numbers, we get:
FV = 9,000 x (1 + 0.18)^4 = $17,713.28
Therefore, the future value of $9,000 in 4 years at an interest rate of 18% per year is $17,713.28.
d) The amount of interest earned in part (a) is less than half the amount of interest earned in part (b) because the interest earned is compounded annually.
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QUESTION 3 Cougar Corp has market value of $34 million of equity and a market value of $10 million of debt. Cougar Corp has a tax rate of 20%. If Cougar Corp has a cost of equity of 14.3% and a cost of debt of 7.4%, what is the WACC for Cougar Corp? (Answer in percent: For 0.05324 answer, 5.324)
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for Cougar Corp is 10.42%.
How to calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?The formula for calculating the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is:
WACC = (E/V) x Re + (D/V) x Rd x (1-Tc)
Where:
E = Market value of equity
D = Market value of debt
V = Total value of the firm (E + D)
Re = Cost of equity
Rd = Cost of debt
Tc = Tax rate
Substituting the given values into the formula, we get:
WACC = (34 / (34 + 10)) x 0.143 + (10 / (34 + 10)) x 0.074 x (1-0.20)
= 0.726 x 0.143 + 0.274 x 0.0592
= 0.1042 or 10.42%
Therefore, the WACC for Cougar Corp is 10.42%.
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8. 5 pts. What is the current rate on a bond with a coupon rate of 5% selling at $900? Why is the current rate higher than the coupon rate? Show math for credit.
The current rate on a bond with a coupon rate of 5% selling at $900 can be calculated using the following formula:
Current Rate = Annual Coupon Payment / Bond Price
The annual coupon payment is calculated as 5% of the face value of the bond, which is $1,000 (5% x $1,000 = $50). So, the current rate can be calculated as follows:
Current Rate = $50 / $900 = 5.56%
Therefore, the current rate on a bond with a coupon rate of 5% selling at $900 is 5.56%.
The reason why the current rate is higher than the coupon rate is because the bond is selling at a discount. When a bond sells at a discount, it means that its price is lower than its face value. In this case, the bond is selling at $900, which is $100 less than its face value of $1,000. This is because the market demand for the bond is low, which causes its price to drop.
As a result, investors who purchase the bond at a discount will receive a higher yield than the coupon rate. This is because they are effectively paying less for the bond but will still receive the same coupon payments. In other words, the yield is higher to compensate for the lower price paid for the bond.
In summary, the current rate on a bond with a coupon rate of 5% selling at $900 is 5.56%. The current rate is higher than the coupon rate because the bond is selling at a discount, which causes its yield to increase.
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Omni Enterprises is considering whether to borrow funds and purchase an asset or to lease the asset under an operating lease arrangement. If it purchases the asset, the cost will be $22,000. It can borrow funds for four years at 8 percent interest. The asset will qualify for a 25 percent CCA. Assume a tax rate of 35 percent. The other alternative is to sign two operating leases, one with payments of $6,000 for the first two years and the other with payments of $8,000 for the last two years. The leases would be treated as operating leases. a. Compute the aftertax cost of the lease for the four years. (Negative answers should be indicated by a minus sign. Round the final answers to nearest whole dollar.) Year Aftertax cost 0 $ 1 2 3 4
The total aftertax cost of leasing the asset for four years is: Total aftertax cost: $3,900 + $3,900 + $5,200 + $5,200 = $18,200
To compare the aftertax cost of purchasing the asset versus leasing it, we need to calculate the aftertax cost of each option.
If Omni Enterprises purchases the asset, it can claim CCA of 25% on the cost of the asset, which will reduce its taxable income. Therefore, the aftertax cost of purchasing the asset can be calculated as:
Cost of asset: $22,000
CCA (25% of cost): $5,500
Taxable income: $22,000 - $5,500 = $16,500
Tax at 35%: $5,775
Aftertax cost: $22,000 + $5,775 = $27,775
If Omni Enterprises leases the asset, the aftertax cost of the lease for each year can be calculated as follows:
Year 1: $6,000
Tax deduction (lease payment): $6,000
Tax savings (at 35%): $2,100
Aftertax cost: $6,000 - $2,100 = $3,900
Year 2: $6,000
Tax deduction (lease payment): $6,000
Tax savings (at 35%): $2,100
Aftertax cost: $6,000 - $2,100 = $3,900
Year 3: $8,000
Tax deduction (lease payment): $8,000
Tax savings (at 35%): $2,800
Aftertax cost: $8,000 - $2,800 = $5,200
Year 4: $8,000
Tax deduction (lease payment): $8,000
Tax savings (at 35%): $2,800
Aftertax cost: $8,000 - $2,800 = $5,200
Therefore, the total aftertax cost of leasing the asset for four years is:
Total aftertax cost: $3,900 + $3,900 + $5,200 + $5,200 = $18,200
Comparing the aftertax cost of purchasing the asset ($27,775) with the aftertax cost of leasing the asset ($18,200), it is cheaper to lease the asset under the given conditions.
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when performing a retrospective for a project, whoever is performing the retrospective needs to be perceived as being independent and unbiased. question 40 options: true false
Whenever a retrospective is conducted for a project, the person doing the retrospective has to be seen as impartial and objective. True.
Anytime your team considers the past to enhance the present, it is a retrospective. You can retro on almost anything thanks to the technical and non-technical personnel! A public retrospective on agile software development is now being held.
You must be completely fair in order to be unbiased; you cannot favor someone or hold beliefs that can skew your judgment. For instance, in order to be as objective as possible, the identities of the artists, as well as the names of their schools and hometowns, were hidden from the judges of an art competition.
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with a cost factor of 0.8, a schedule rating of 0.6, a reliability rating of 0.5, and a performance rating of 0.6, the overall consequence of failure was
The overall consequence of failure with the given cost factor, schedule rating, reliability rating, and performance rating is 0.66. Based on the given cost factor of 0.8, a schedule rating of 0.6, a reliability rating of 0.5, and a performance rating of 0.6, the overall consequence of failure can be calculated using a formula that considers the weighted average of these factors.
The formula for calculating the overall consequence of failure is as follows:
Overall consequence of failure = (Cost factor x 0.4) + (Schedule rating x 0.3) + (Reliability rating x 0.2) + (Performance rating x 0.1)
Substituting the given values in the formula, we get:
Overall consequence of failure = (0.8 x 0.4) + (0.6 x 0.3) + (0.5 x 0.2) + (0.6 x 0.1)
Overall consequence of failure = 0.32 + 0.18 + 0.1 + 0.06
Overall consequence of failure = 0.66
Therefore, the overall consequence of failure with the given cost factor, schedule rating, reliability rating, and performance rating is 0.66.
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5. Consider the following MBS pass through with principal $300 million. The original mortgage pool has a WAM = 360 months (30 years) and a WAC = 7.00%. The pass through security pays a coupon equal to 6.5%. The PAC has an upper collar of 300% PSA and a lower collar of 85% PSA. (a) What is the price of each tranche? Assume a constant PSA = 150%. (b) Compute the effective duration of the two tranches assuming that the PSA increases to 200% if the term structure shifts down by 50 basis points, while it decreases to 120% if the term structure shifts up by 50 basis points. Which tranche is more sensitive to interest rate movements? Which tranche is less sensitive?
(a) The price of the tranche below the lower collar will be $225 million (300,000,000 x 6.5% x 150% = 225,000,000), while the price of the tranche above the upper collar will be $75 million (300,000,000 x 2.5% x 150% = 75,000,000).
The price of each tranche will be determined by the present value of future cash flows. The tranche below the lower collar (85%) will have an expected coupon of 6.5%, while the tranche above the upper collar (300%) will have an expected coupon of 2.5%.
(b) The effective duration of the two tranches will be affected by the PSA changes if the term structure shifts. The tranche below the lower collar will have an effective duration of 8.19 years (8.19 x 12 months = 98.28 months) if the PSA increases to 200%, while it will have an effective duration of 6.75 years (6.75 x 12 months = 81 months) if the PSA decreases to 120%.
The tranche above the upper collar will have an effective duration of 4.41 years (4.41 x 12 months = 52.92 months) if the PSA increases to 200%, while it will have an effective duration of 3.55 years (3.55 x 12 months = 42.6 months) if the PSA decreases to 120%.
The tranche below the lower collar is more sensitive to interest rate movements as it has a higher effective duration than the tranche above the upper collar. The tranche above the upper collar is less sensitive to interest rate movements as it has a lower effective duration than the tranche below the lower collar.
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Weston Corporation just pold a dividend of $2 a shore (Do- 52). The dividend is expected to grow 11% a year for the next years and then at 4% a year thereafter. What is the expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years?
The expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years is $2.22, $2.47, $2.75, $3.06, and $3.41, respectively.
We can use the dividend growth model to calculate the expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years. The formula for the dividend growth model is:
[tex]Dn = D0 x (1 + g)^n[/tex]
Where:
Dn = the expected dividend per share at year n
D0 = the current dividend per share
g = the expected growth rate of dividends
n = the number of years in the future
Using the information provided in the problem, we have:
D0 = $2 per share
g = 11% for the first five years, then 4% thereafter
So, the expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years is:
[tex]D1 = D0 x (1 + g)^1 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^1 = $2.22\\D2 = D0 x (1 + g)^2 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^2 = $2.47\\D3 = D0 x (1 + g)^3 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^3 = $2.75\\D4 = D0 x (1 + g)^4 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^4 = $3.06\\D5 = D0 x (1 + g)^5 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^5 = $3.41[/tex]
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Consider the following information regarding corporate bonds: Rating AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Average Default Rate 0.0% 0.1% 0.2% 0.5% 2.2% 5.5% 12.2% Recession Default Rate 0.0% 1.0% 3.0% 3.0% 8.0% 16.0% 48.0% Average Beta 0.05 0.05 0.05 0.10 0.17 0.26 0.31 Wyatt Oil has a bond issue outstanding with seven years to maturity, a yield to maturity of 7.0%, and a BBB rating. The bondholders' expected loss rate in the event of default is 70%. Assuming a normal economy the expected return on Wyatt Oil's debt is closest to: A. 3.5% B. 4.9% C. 6.7% D. 3.0%
The expected return on Wyatt Oil's debt is closest to 6.7% (Option C). The anticipated value of a financial investment's return is known as the expected return. It is a measurement of the random variable's distribution's centre, which is the return. Risk is the simple concept that the actual return in the future can differ from the predicted return.
An investor must get a return higher than the danger rate of return to be compensated for taking on a risky venture.
Here's a step-by-step explanation for calculating the expected return:
1. Identify the bond's rating: BBB
2. Find the average default rate for the bond's rating: 0.5% (from the given data)
3. Calculate the probability of no default: 100% - 0.5% = 99.5%
4. Identify the yield to maturity: 7.0%
5. Identify the bondholders' expected loss rate in the event of default: 70%
6. Calculate the expected return on the bond:
Expected return = (Probability of no default * Yield to maturity) - (Probability of default * Loss rate in the event of default)
Expected return = (99.5% * 7.0%) - (0.5% * 70%)
Expected return = 6.965% - 0.35% = 6.615%
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Complete question: Consider the following information regarding corporate bonds: Rating AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Average Default Rate 0.0% 0.1% 0.2% 0.5% 2.2% 5.5% 12.2% Recession Default Rate 0.0% 1.0% 3.0% 3.0% 8.0% 16.0% 48.0% Average Beta 0.05 0.05 0.05 0.10 0.17 0.26 0.31 Wyatt Oil has a bond issue outstanding with seven years to maturity, a yield to maturity of 7.0%, and a BBB rating. The bondholders' expected loss rate in the event of default is 70%. Assuming a normal economy the expected return on Wyatt Oil's debt is closest to:
A. 3.5%
B. 4.9%
C. 6.7%
D. 3.0%
This question point posible Next question Shatin Intl has 9.8 milion shares an equity cost of capital of 13.1% and is expected to pay a total dividend of $206 millor actor increasing its dividend, it will keep it constant and will startopurchasing 395 million of stock cach year as wil What is your attivare of Shat's so primo Seomet test The stock price will be Round to the nearest cont.)
The stock price of Shatin Intl, rounded to the nearest cent, is $160.31.Shatin Intl, which has 9.8 million shares, an equity cost of capital of 13.1%, and is expected to pay a total dividend of $206 million before starting to purchase $395 million worth of stock each year.
You'd like to know the stock price, rounded to the nearest cent.
To find the stock price, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the dividend per share: Divide the total dividend ($206 million) by the number of shares (9.8 million).
Dividend per share = $206 million / 9.8 million = $21.02
2. Calculate the dividend yield: Divide the dividend per share ($21.02) by the stock price (let's call it "P").
Dividend yield = $21.02 / P
3. Use the dividend discount model: The stock price (P) equals the dividend per share ($21.02) divided by the equity cost of capital (13.1%). P = $21.02 / 0.131
4. Solve for the stock price (P): P = $160.31
So, the stock price of Shatin Intl, rounded to the nearest cent, is $160.31.
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Based on the given information, the estimated stock price of Shatin Intl is $209.58 per share (rounded to the nearest cent).
Dividend per share = Total dividend / Number of shares
Dividend per share = $206 million / 9.8 million shares
Dividend per share = $21.02
Growth rate = (Net income - Dividends) / (Share price x Number of shares)\
Growth rate = ($500 million - $206 million) / ($50 x 9.8 million)
Growth rate = 3.06%
Finally, we can use the dividend discount model to estimate the stock price:
Stock price = Dividend per share / (Cost of equity - Growth rate)
Stock price = $21.02 / (0.131 - 0.0306)
Stock price = $21.02 / 0.1004
Stock price = $209.58
A stock price is the current market value of a company's stock share. It is determined by the supply and demand of the stock on a given day and is influenced by a variety of factors including company performance, industry trends, economic conditions, and investor sentiment. When a company goes public, it sells shares of its stock to investors in order to raise capital. The value of those shares is determined by the market and can fluctuate on a daily basis based on a variety of factors.
Investors buy and sell shares of stock in order to profit from changes in the stock price. If they buy shares at a lower price and sell them at a higher price, they profit. If they buy shares at a higher price and sell them at a lower price, they incur a loss. Overall, stock prices play a crucial role in the world of business and finance, as they can impact the success of companies and the portfolios of investors.
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an analyst is working with a dataset of financial data. the numerical data is correct but it is formatted as u.s. dollars, and the analyst needs it to be in british pounds. what spreadsheet tool can help them select the right format?
The spreadsheet tool that can help the analyst select the right format for converting the numerical data from U.S. dollars to British pounds is the "Format Cells" option in Microsoft Excel.
What does it mean to format a cell?Cell format allows a person to change the way data looks in the spreadsheet. The formatting options allow for times, monetary units, dates, and more.
The analyst can select the column of financial data, right-click, and choose "Format Cells" from the drop-down menu. In the "Format Cells" dialog box, the analyst can choose the "Currency" category and select "British Pound" from the drop-down menu. This will convert the data from U.S. dollars to British pounds and display it in the selected format.
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suppose you are a risk-averse person that does not like volatile returns. stock a offers a steady return of 5% per year. stock b offers a 3% return with 50% probability and a 10% return with 50% probability. which stock do you prefer?
As a risk-averse person, I would prefer the steady return offered by stock A at 5% per year.
As a risk-averse person who does not like volatile returns, you would prefer a stock with a steady return rather than one with more variability. In this case, stock A offers a steady return of 5% per year, while stock B offers a range of returns, with a 50% chance of a 3% return and a 50% chance of a 10% return.
The expected return of stock B is calculated as follows:
Expected return of stock B = (0.5 x 3%) + (0.5 x 10%) = 6.5%
However, the expected return does not take into account the variability of returns. Given that you are risk-averse, the potential for a 3% return would not be appealing, even with a 50% chance of getting a higher return. Therefore, you would prefer the steady return of 5% offered by stock A.
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A project is expected to generate annual revenues of $120,900, with variable costs of $76,000, and fixed costs of $16.500. The annual depreciation is $4.050 and the tax rate is 40 percent What is the annual operating cash flow? Ο $18,660 Ο $46,520 Ο $32.450 Ο $28.400 S63,020
The annual operating cash flow for the given project is $18,660. Therefore, the correct option is option 1.
It is given that a project has an annual revenues of $120,900, variable costs of $76,000, fixed costs of $16,500, annual depreciation of $4,050, and a tax rate of 40 percent.
To calculate the annual operating cash flow follow these steps:1. Calculate the Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT):
EBIT = Revenues - Variable Costs - Fixed Costs
EBIT = $120,900 - $76,000 - $16,500
EBIT = $28,400
2. Calculate the Earnings Before Taxes (EBT):
EBT = EBIT - Depreciation
EBT = $28,400 - $4,050
EBT = $24,350
3. Calculate the Taxes:
Taxes = EBT * Tax Rate
Taxes = $24,350 * 0.4
Taxes = $9,740
4. Calculate the Net Income:
Net Income = EBT - Taxes
Net Income = $24,350 - $9,740
Net Income = $14,610
5. Calculate the annual Operating Cash Flow (OCF):
OCF = Net Income + Depreciation
OCF = $14,610 + $4,050
OCF = $18,660
So, the annual operating cash flow for this project is option 1: $18,660.
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You are considering an investment in Justus Corporation's stock, which is expected to pay a dividend of $1.75 a share at the end of the year (D1 = $1.75) and has a beta of 0.9. The risk-free rate is 3.2%, and the market risk premium is 6.0%. Justus currently sells for $33.00 a share, and its dividend is expected to grow at some constant rate, g. Assuming the market is in equilibrium, what does the market believe will be the stock price at the end of 3 years? (That is, what is P3 ?) Round your answer to two decimal places. Do not round your intermediate calculations.
The market believes that the stock price will be $40.34 at the end of three years.
The current price of the stock, P0, can be calculated using the dividend discount model:
P0 = D1 / (r - g)
where r is the required rate of return and g is the expected constant growth rate of dividends. We are given D1, and we can calculate r as follows:
r = rf + β (rm - rf)
= 0.032 + 0.9 * 0.06
= 0.086
So, P0 = 1.75 / (0.086 - g)
We are also given that P0 = $33.00, so we can solve for g:
33 = 1.75 / (0.086 - g)
g = 0.035
Therefore, the expected constant growth rate of dividends is 3.5%. We can use the constant growth version of the dividend discount model to find P3:
P3 = D4 / (r - g)
= D1 * (1 + g)^3 / (r - g)
= 1.75 * (1.035)^3 / (0.086 - 0.035)
= $40.34
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Cajamadrid, S.A. issued preferred stocks in 2009. A preferred stock is simply a constant and perpetual annuity. Assuming that you got EUR 37 each year in terms of dividend, compute the price of the preferred stock in the market. The rate of discount of the preferred stocks is 22% annual. a. EUR 12. b. EUR 280. C. EUR 75. d. None of the above.
The present value of the anticipated future dividends, discounted by 22%, is used to determine the preferred stock's price, which is set at EUR 168.18. The correct option is d.
To compute the price of the preferred stock, we need to use the formula for the present value of a perpetual annuity:
Price = Dividend / Rate of Discount
Given that the dividend is EUR 37 per year and the rate of discount is 22% annually, we can calculate the price of the preferred stock as:
Price = 37 / 0.22 = EUR 168.18
Therefore, none of the options provided (a, b, c) match the calculated price. The correct answer is d. None of the above.
To explain further, the price of the preferred stock is determined by the present value of its expected future dividends. Since the dividends are constant and perpetual, we can use the formula for the present value of a perpetuity.
In this case, the rate of discount is 22%, which reflects the opportunity cost of investing in this preferred stock instead of other investment opportunities that may yield a higher return. The higher the discount rate, the lower the present value of the preferred stock, and vice versa.
Using the formula, we can see that the price of the preferred stock is EUR 168.18, which is the present value of the expected future dividends discounted at 22%.
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what are the advantages and disadvantages of the global minimum corporate tax deal? Will the deal really end the ‘race to the bottom’ and endless jurisdictional arbitrage regarding corporate tax avoidance? Do you think it will ultimately be good or bad for the US? Should there be a global minimum corporate tax, and if there is, do you think fifteen percent is too high, or, too low? Is the deal fair to small states and microstates that make their living in offering offshore financial/taxation services to global corporations, or, is it being foisted on them by bigger and more powerful countries in the international system?
The global minimum corporate tax deal has several advantages and disadvantages.
On the positive side, it would help reduce tax competition among countries and end the ‘race to the bottom’ by ensuring that companies pay a minimum amount of tax wherever they operate. This would also help to curb corporate tax avoidance and ensure that companies pay their fair share of taxes.
On the negative side, the deal could be seen as a restriction on the sovereignty of smaller countries and may hinder their ability to attract foreign investment.
Whether the deal will ultimately be good or bad for the US remains to be seen. On the one hand, it could help to level the playing field for American companies and prevent them from shifting profits overseas. On the other hand, it could also make the US a less attractive destination for foreign investment and lead to higher costs for American consumers.
As for the proposed minimum tax rate of fifteen percent, this is a matter of debate. Some experts believe that it is too low and that a higher rate would be more effective in curbing tax avoidance. Others argue that fifteen percent is a reasonable compromise that would be acceptable to most countries.
The deal may also be seen as unfair to small states and microstates that rely on offshore financial/taxation services to attract foreign investment. However, it should be noted that these countries have also been criticized for facilitating tax avoidance and evasion, so the deal could be seen as a positive step towards greater transparency and accountability in the global financial system.
Overall, the global minimum corporate tax deal is a complex issue with both pros and cons. While it may help to reduce tax competition and corporate tax avoidance, it could also have unintended consequences for smaller countries and may not be effective in the long run.
Ultimately, the success of the deal will depend on how it is implemented and enforced, and whether it is seen as a fair and equitable solution for all countries involved.
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what is the process when the insured and insurer are unable to agree on the amount of a claim to be paid
Answer: Resolution through intervention of third party (mediator/arbitrator).
Explanation: When the insured and insurer are unable to agree on the amount of a claim to be paid, the next step to resolve the issue is usually to involve a third-party mediator or arbitrator. This mediator or arbitrator is typically chosen by both parties and acts as a unbiased neutral party to help facilitate a resolution to the dispute.
During the mediation or arbitration process, attorneys of both the parties will present their arguments and evidence to the mediator or arbitrator, who in turn, will make a decision on the appropriate amount to be paid. This decision is binding and both parties are required to abide by it.
If the parties are still unable to come to an agreement through mediation or arbitration, they may have to resort to legal action and take the dispute to court. This can be a costly and time-consuming process, and it is often in the best interest of both parties to try to reach a resolution through mediation or arbitration first.
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Ms. Anh maintains a savings deposit with VCB Ha Thanh branch. This past year Anh received 10.75 million VND in interest earnings from her savings account. Her savings deposit had the following average balance each month: (in million VND) January 40 July 351 February 25 August 42.51 March 30 September 55 April 15 October 601 May 22.5|November 62.5 June 30 December 30 What was the annual percentage yield (APY) earned on Anh's savings account?
The annual percentage yield (APY) earned on Anh's savings account is 5.17%.
To calculate the annual percentage yield (APY) earned on Anh's savings account, we need to use the following formula:
[tex]APY = (1 + r/n)^n - 1[/tex]
Where r is the annual interest rate, and n is the number of times interest is compounded in a year.
First, we need to calculate the total amount of interest earned by Anh during the year. We can do this by adding up the interest earnings from each month:
10.75 million VND = (40 x 0.5%) + (25 x 0.5%) + (30 x 0.5%) + (15 x 0.5%) + (22.5 x 0.5%) + (30 x 0.5%) + (351 x 0.6%) + (42.51 x 0.6%) + (55 x 0.6%) + (601 x 0.65%) + (62.5 x 0.65%) + (30 x 0.65%)
Next, we need to calculate the average monthly balance for the year. We can do this by adding up the balances for each month and dividing by 12:
Average monthly balance = [tex](40 + 25 + 30 + 15 + 22.5 + 30 + 351 + 42.51 + 55 + 601 + 62.5 + 30) / 12 = 104.38 million VND[/tex]
Now, we can use the formula to calculate the APY:
[tex]APY = (1 + r/n)^n - 1[/tex]
[tex]10.75 million VND = (104.38 million VND x r/12)^12 - 1r = 5.17%[/tex]
This means that for every 100 million VND in Anh's account, she earned 5.17 million VND in interest over the course of the year.
In conclusion, APY is an important factor to consider when choosing a savings account, as it reflects the actual return on your investment. By using the formula above, we can calculate the APY earned on Anh's savings account based on her average monthly balance and interest earnings.
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Sarah has $1,000,000 of her company’s funds available for covered interest arbitrage. The U.S. interest rate is 5%, and Sarah would like to earn a higher rate if she can. The one‑year interest rate in Zambia is 12 percent. Sarah knows the Zambian currency, the kwacha, is likely to depreciate over the next year, which will offset at least some of the higher interest she could earn in Zambia. The spot rate of the Zambian currency, the kwacha, is $.056, and the one-year forward rate of the Zambian kwacha is $.054. What profits, if any can Sarah make using the $1,000,000 in U.S. dollars for covered interest arbitrage with Zambian kwacha? (Be sure to express the profits in U.S. dollars.)
Sarah can make a profit of $20,000 using covered interest arbitrage with Zambian kwacha.
1. Convert $1,000,000 to Zambian kwacha using the spot rate: $1,000,000 * ($.056/kwacha) = 17,857,142.86 kwacha.
2. Invest the kwacha at 12% interest rate in Zambia for one year: 17,857,142.86 kwacha * 1.12 = 19,999,999.99 kwacha.
3. Convert the future kwacha amount to USD using the one-year forward rate: 19,999,999.99 kwacha * ($.054/ kwacha) = $1,080,000.
4. Calculate the profit: $1,080,000 (future value) - $1,000,000 (initial investment) = $20,000 (profit in USD).
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be19.1 (lo 1) in 2020, amirante corporation had pretax financial income of $168,000 and taxable income of $120,000. the diff erence is due to the use of diff erent depreciation methods for tax and accounting purposes. the eff ective tax rate is 20%. compute the amount to be reported as income taxes payable at december 31, 2020.
The amount to be reported as profits taxes payable at December 31, 2020, is $14,400.
To calculate the amount to be stated as earnings taxes payable at December 31, 2020, we need to decide the amount of income taxes owed based at the taxable income.
The taxable earnings is $120,000, and the effective tax rate is 20%, so the profits tax owed is:
$120,000 x 0.20 = $24,000
However, the economic profits is $168,000, which is higher than the taxable earnings because of the distinction in depreciation strategies. which means the company has a deferred tax liability, that is the quantity of tax as a way to be paid in destiny years due to this temporary distinction.
The deferred tax legal responsibility can be calculated as follows:
Deferred tax legal responsibility = (monetary earnings - Taxable income) x Tax rate
Deferred tax liability = ($168,000 - $120,000) x 0.20
Deferred tax liability = $9,600
consequently, the amount to be reported as profits taxes payable at December 31, 2020, is:
Profits taxes payable = Tax owed - Deferred tax legal responsibility
Earnings taxes payable = $24,000 - $9,600
Earnings taxes payable = $14,400
The amount to be reported as profits taxes payable at December 31, 2020, is $14,400.
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Mr. Smith purchased 50 shares of a company at $102 per share. The stock was bought on 50 percent
initial margin. The call money rate on the margin loan is 2%. Mr. Smith received a dividend of $0.50 per
share. He sold the shares at $108 per share. He paid commissions of $0.20 per share on the purchase and
$0.20 per share on the sale of the stock. What was the rate of return on this investment? (Show your
work)
The rate of return on Mr. Smith's investment was approximately 3.77%.
To calculate the rate of return, we need to calculate the total cost, proceeds, and interest paid on the margin loan.
Total cost = (50 shares x $102 per share) + ($0.20 commission per share x 50 shares) = $5,140 + $10 = $5,150
Total proceeds = (50 shares x $108 per share) - ($0.20 commission per share x 50 shares) = $5,400 - $10 = $5,390
Interest paid on the margin loan = ($5,140 x 0.5 x 0.02) + ($2,570 x 0.02) = $51.40 + $51.40 = $102.80
Dividend received = $0.50 per share x 50 shares = $25
Net proceeds = total proceeds - total cost - interest paid + dividend received = $5,390 - $5,150 - $102.80 + $25 = $162.20
Rate of return = (net proceeds / total cost) x 100% = ($162.20 / $5,150) x 100% = 3.77%
Therefore, the rate of return on Mr. Smith's investment was approximately 3.77%.
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a good definition of lean is ""creating more value for customers with fewer resources.""
The given statement is true because the concept of "lean" refers to a systematic approach to eliminating waste and increasing efficiency in order to create more value for customers with fewer resources.
The focus is on identifying and eliminating any processes, activities, or resources that do not add value for the customer, while maximizing the use of those that do. By doing so, businesses can improve their competitiveness, reduce costs, and enhance customer satisfaction. Ultimately, the goal of lean is to create a more streamlined, efficient, and customer-centric organization that is better able to meet the needs and expectations of its customers.
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As treasurer of Leisure Products, Inc., you are investigating the possible acquisition of Plastitoys. You have the following basic data: Plastitoys Forecast earnings per share Forecast dividend per share Number of shares Stock price Leisure Products $ 5 $ 3 600,000 $ 50 $ 3.20 $ 1.80 400,000 $ 26 You estimate that investors currently expect Plastitoys's earning and dividend to grow at a steady rate of 7% per year. You believe that Leisure Products could increase Plastitoys's growth rate to 10% per year, after 1 year, without any additional capital investment required.
d-1. Suppose immediately after the completion of the merger, everyone realizes that the expected growth rate will not be improved. Reassess the cost of the cash offer. d-2. Reassess the NPV of the cash offer. d-3. Reassess the cost of the share offer. d-4. Reassess the NPV of the share offer.
If the expected growth rate of Plastitoys is not improved after the completion of the merger, then the cost of the cash offer and the NPV of the cash offer will remain the same.
However, the cost of the share offer will decrease, since the stock price of Leisure Products will decrease due to the lower expected growth rate. This will result in a lower exchange ratio of Plastitoys shares for Leisure Products shares, thus making the share offer more attractive.
The NPV of the share offer will also decrease due to the lower stock price of Leisure Products. Therefore, the cost of the share offer and the NPV of the share offer will be lower than before if the expected growth rate is not improved.
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