The expected return for investors in the dividend growth model comes from two sources: the growth rate and the dividend yield. The growth rate is the rate at which a company's dividend is expected to increase each year. The dividend yield is the amount of dividend income that an investor receives relative to the price of the stock.
In the dividend growth model, the expected return for investors comes from the growth rate and the dividend yield. The growth rate is the expected rate at which the company will increase its dividend each year. The dividend yield is the amount of dividend income that an investor receives relative to the stock price. The growth rate and the dividend yield determine the expected return on investment, which is the amount of income the investor can expect to receive from their dividend investments. The growth rate and dividend yield also provide an indication of how well the company is performing financially.
The expected return on an investment can be determined by taking the growth rate and the dividend yield and multiplying them together. The growth rate and the dividend yield will vary from company to company, so it is important for investors to do their own research to find the companies that offer the best expected returns. Additionally, it is important for investors to consider the risk associated with each investment and determine whether the expected return is worth the risk.
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brian and luisa must pay an income tax. both brian and luisa pay $10,000 in taxes each year, but brian earns $200,000, and luisa earns $100,000. from this information, you can infer that this tax is:
The income tax is a proportional tax because both Brian and Luisa pay the same amount of $10,000 regardless of their income level. It does not change based on the taxpayer's income.
Each taxpayer, regardless of income level, is subject to the same tax rate under a proportional tax, commonly known as a flat tax. Despite the fact that Brian's income is double what Luisa's is in the example, both Brian and Luisa are paying the same $10,000 in taxes. In contrast, a progressive tax system would have varying tax rates for different income levels, with higher income earners paying a greater tax rate. It might be claimed that a proportional tax system burdens low-income earners more than other tax systems because everyone pays the same percentage of their income.
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Marketers hold a focus group to learn more about how customers feel toward a new product
a. Primary; qualitative
b. Secondary; external
c. Primary; quantitative
d. Secondary; internal
Marketers holding a focus group to learn more about how customers feel toward a new product is an example of primary; qualitative research. Option a is correct.
Primary research is a kind of research that includes the collection of original data or information. In other words, the information collected in primary research is directly obtained from the source. Marketers holding a focus group to learn more about how customers feel toward a new product is an example of primary qualitative research.
Qualitative research is an exploratory research approach that seeks to uncover the underlying meaning, pattern, or relationships among phenomena. In this context, it means the focus group discussions will be used to understand the attitude, behavior, and motivation of potential customers toward the new product. A focus group is a qualitative data collection method that involves a small group of participants in a guided discussion about a product, service, or issue. The goal of the focus group is to obtain in-depth information and ideas about the product from a small group of people who represent the potential target audience. Focus groups are often used to evaluate advertising campaigns, packaging, new products, and other marketing strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Primary; qualitative
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suppose the government increases taxes. what will happen to disposable income and consumer spending? a. disposable income
When the government increases taxes, disposable income and consumer spending will both be c) falls.
The correct option is c) falls.
When the government increases taxes, disposable income will be reduced. This is because individuals have to pay a larger amount in taxes and thus have less money to spend on other goods and services. As a result, consumer spending is likely to decrease.
Disposable income is the money that is available to be spent on goods and services after taxes are taken out. Therefore, when taxes are increased, disposable income is decreased.
Consumer spending is the total amount of money that is spent on goods and services. When disposable income is reduced, consumer spending will also be reduced. This is because people have less money to spend on the goods and services they would normally purchase.
In summary, when the government increases taxes, disposable income and consumer spending will both be reduced.
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Complete question:
Suppose the government increases taxes. What will happen to disposable income and consumer spending?
1. Disposable income
a) does not change.
b) increases.
c) falls.
3. what is the most important element of an evaluation argument? quantitative evidence balance terms of the evaluation number of pros and cons
Evaluation arguments are based on facts, data, and sound reasoning, unlike other forms of arguments, which are often fueled by emotions and opinions.
Quantitative evidence, according to many people, is the most essential component of an evaluation argument. In evaluation arguments, data is used to assess whether a policy or program has been successful in achieving its goals. To be compelling and convincing, quantitative evidence must be used carefully and appropriately.
Evaluation arguments are frequently employed in academic and scientific contexts, such as social and health sciences. The essential element of evaluation argumentation is its use of concrete data and empirical evidence to support an argument for or against a particular course of action, program, or policy.
To create an effective evaluation argument, one must provide a detailed and relevant discussion of the issue, facts, and information in support of the case, followed by an analysis of the results. Quantitative evidence, often derived from scientific studies and surveys, is required to provide support and substantiate claims made in an evaluation argument.
A well-designed and executed research plan, combined with a thorough review of existing literature, can provide the necessary evidence to support an evaluation argument. Furthermore, a well-crafted evaluation argument should provide a balanced account of the advantages and disadvantages of a particular program or policy.
To provide a balanced account of the advantages and disadvantages of a particular program or policy, one should weigh the available evidence and account for potential biases in the data. This way, the evaluation argument provides a well-rounded view of the issue at hand.
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which statement is the prime reason individuals trade in prediction markets? prediction markets promise higher returns than the average stock trading system.
The prime reason individuals trade in prediction markets is because they offer opportunities for individuals to earn profits based on accurate predictions. In prediction markets, traders can buy and sell shares in the outcome of future events, such as the outcome of an election or the success of a new product.
Prediction markets are online platforms that allow users to trade on the outcome of future events. These events may be related to sports, politics, entertainment, or any other category in which people are interested. Traders can buy and sell shares in the outcome of these events, and the market price of each share represents the probability that the event will occur. When traders believe that an event is likely to happen, they will buy shares in the event.
As more traders sell shares, the market price of each share decreases. The goal of traders in prediction markets is to make a profit by buying shares in the outcome of events that are undervalued by the market. A major advantage of prediction markets is that they allow traders to profit from accurate predictions, even if they have no personal interest in the outcome of the event.
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in response to the need to develop greater and greater mass markets for their products, american business in the 1920s relied especially on the new techniques of
"In response to the need to develop greater and greater mass markets for their products, american business in the 1920s relied especially on the new techniques of consumer advertising."
In the 1920s, American businesses realized that to increase sales and profits, they needed to reach a larger audience for their products. The rise of mass production made it possible to produce goods on a larger scale, but this alone was not enough. Companies began to use consumer advertising techniques to create demand for their products among the general public.
Advertisements were placed in newspapers, magazines, and on billboards, and radio broadcasts were used to promote products to a wider audience. These new techniques of consumer advertising were instrumental in creating a culture of consumerism that has persisted to this day.
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fill in the blank.if the price of a good does not take into account all of the benefits of its purchase, the equilibrium price will be___, and the equilibrium quantity will be___.
If the price of a good does not take into account all of the benefits of its purchase, the equilibrium price will be too low, and the equilibrium quantity will be too low.
Equilibrium price is the price at which the quantity demanded of a good is equal to the quantity supplied of that good. This implies that the equilibrium price is the price at which the market is in equilibrium. It is the price at which both buyers and sellers are satisfied with their transactions.
Equilibrium quantity is the quantity of a good that is bought and sold at the equilibrium price. It is the quantity demanded and supplied at the equilibrium price, and it is the level of output that the market has determined to be optimal or efficient. The equilibrium quantity is the quantity at which there is no excess demand or excess supply in the market.
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the activity times are 4, 3, 3, 6, 9, 1, 3, and 3 days for activities a1 through a8, respectively.what is the earliest completion time of the project?
The earliest completion time of the project is 16 days. This can be calculated by adding the times of each activity (4+3+3+6+9+1+3+3=33) and subtracting the longest time (9 days) and the longest time plus the second longest time (9+6=15 days).
The result is 16 days, which is the earliest completion time of the project.
To solve this problem, first you must add up all of the times for each activity (a1-a8). This gives us the total time for the project: 4+3+3+6+9+1+3+3=33 days.
Then, subtract the longest time and the longest time plus the second longest time from the total time. The longest time is 9 days, and the longest time plus the second longest time is 15 days (9+6). Subtracting 33-15=16 days gives us the earliest completion time of the project.
To summarize, the earliest completion time of the project is 16 days. This can be calculated by adding the times of each activity (4+3+3+6+9+1+3+3=33) and subtracting the longest time (9 days) and the longest time plus the second longest time (9+6=15 days). The result is 16 days, which is the earliest completion time of the project.
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which of the following factors favor the issuance of debt in the financing decision? i. market signaling ii. distress costs iii. tax benefits iv. financial flexibility
The factor that favors the issuance of debt in the financing decision is iv. financial flexibility.
Financial flexibility is the ability to react quickly to changing circumstances and can be achieved through debt financing. This type of financing provides companies with the ability to take advantage of sudden business opportunities, such as acquiring another company, without having to worry about sourcing large sums of capital.
Debt also provides companies with access to more money than equity financing, which helps to reduce the amount of dilution for existing shareholders. Additionally, debt can provide more flexibility with regards to repayment terms and interest rates, allowing companies to tailor their financing strategies to their current needs.
Overall, iv. financial flexibility provides a major advantage to companies when making financing decisions and thus is the correct answer.
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For each of the following situations, indicate how much the taxpayer is required to include in gross income (assume a tax year of 2020):a. Steve was awarded a $5,600 scholarship to attend State Law School. The scholarship pays Steve's tuition and fees.b. Hal was awarded a $22,000 scholarship to attend State Hotel School. All scholarship students must work 35 hours per week at the School residency during the term.
As for each of the following situations, here's how much the taxpayer is required to include in gross income (assuming a tax year of 2020). The correct option is A. Steve was awarded a $5,600 scholarship to attend State Law School.
The scholarship pays Steve's tuition and fees. A scholarship provided to a student that pays for tuition, fees, and other essential student needs (such as books and supplies) is not subject to taxes as long as the student is a candidate for a degree at an eligible education institution. Scholarships that pay for other expenses are subject to taxes, including room and board.b. Hal was awarded a $22,000 scholarship to attend State Hotel School. All scholarship students must work 35 hours per week at the School residency during the term. Students who get scholarships and fellowships that are not qualified scholarships must pay taxes on their benefits. The school residency work requirement is an element of this scholarship. The amount of the scholarship that is used to pay for tuition and other qualified expenses, such as books and supplies, is tax-free for the scholarship recipient. However, the amount used to pay for Hal's room and board must be included in his gross income.
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What is the efficient outcome in Coase Theorem?
the Coase Theorem expresses that "if exchange an externality is conceivable and there are no transaction costs, dealing will prompt an efficient result no matter what the underlying portion of property rights."
The Coase Theorem contends that under the right circumstances gatherings to an argument about property rights will actually want to arrange a financially ideal arrangement, no matter what the underlying circulation of the property rights.
The Coase Theorem offers a possibly useful method for contemplating how to best determine conflicts between contending businesses or other financial purposes of restricted resources.
For the Coase Theorem to apply fully, the states of efficient, serious markets, and above all zero transaction costs, should happen.
In reality, it is uncommon that perfect financial circumstances exist, improving the Coase Theorem fit to make sense of why inefficiencies exist rather than a method for settling debates.
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what is the approximate forecast for may using a four-month moving average? nov. dec. jan. feb. mar. april 39 36 40 42 48 46
The approximate forecast for May using a four-month moving average is 44.5.
This can be calculated by adding the values for the most recent four months (February, March, April, and May) and then dividing the sum by four. So the calculation would be (42 + 48 + 46 + X) / 4 = 44.5, where X represents the unknown value for May. Solving for X gives 40, which is the approximate forecast for May.
A four-month moving average is a type of time series analysis that is used to smooth out short-term fluctuations in data. It involves calculating the average of the most recent four data points and using this value as the forecast for the next period.
This approach helps to reveal trends and patterns in the data by reducing the impact of random fluctuations.
In this case, we are using a four-month moving average to forecast the value for May based on the data for the previous four months (November, December, January, and February).
We can see that there is some variability in the data, with values ranging from 36 to 48. However, the moving average approach helps to reduce this variability and provide a more stable estimate for the next period.
Overall, the approximate forecast for May using a four-month moving average is 40, which is calculated by adding the values for the most recent four months and dividing by four. This approach helps to smooth out short-term fluctuations in the data and provide a more stable estimate for future values.
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royal square resort recently took out a $250,000 loan. each year for 10 years, they will pay $35,000. after 10 years, the loan will be fully paid off this is a(n):
This is an example of an amortized loan. An amortized loan is a loan in which a borrower pays a predetermined amount each month for a fixed period of time. In this example, Royal Square Resort took out a loan for $250,000 and will pay back $35,000 each year for 10 years. This means that after 10 years, the loan will be fully paid off.
Amortized loans are common in commercial real estate, such as for the purchase of a building. The terms of an amortized loan usually involve a fixed rate of interest, with payments being made on a regular basis over the life of the loan. The payments are calculated to cover the principal and interest.
The principal of an amortized loan decreases over time as payments are made. The interest, however, stays the same throughout the life of the loan. The amount of each payment that goes to principal and interest is determined by the amortization schedule, which will show the principal and interest payments over the life of the loan.
Amortized loans also have the advantage of predictable payments and payment schedules. This allows businesses to better budget their finances, as they know exactly how much they need to pay each month and can plan accordingly.
In summary, Royal Square Resort has taken out an amortized loan for $250,000. They will make payments of $35,000 each year for 10 years and after 10 years the loan will be fully paid off. Amortized loans are beneficial for businesses as they have predictable payments and payment schedules.
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donnie changed his behavior from a dysfunctional to a functional one, and his manager then removed an undesired outcome. this is known as
The correct answer is (C) "negative reinforcement", which refers to the removal of an undesired outcome (in this case, the dysfunctional behavior) as a result of a change in behavior (from dysfunctional to functional.
The removal of an undesired outcome is to increase the likelihood of the functional behavior occurring again in the future.
In this scenario, Donnie's manager used negative reinforcement by removing an undesired outcome (which may have been a punishment or negative consequence for his dysfunctional behavior) after Donnie changed his behavior to a functional one. This increases the likelihood that Donnie will continue to exhibit the functional behavior in the future because he has learned that it leads to a positive outcome (the removal of the undesired outcome).
This is a common method used in behavior modification to reinforce desired behaviors and decrease undesired ones.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
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Write down a list of 10 adjectives to describe innovation
A list of 10 adjectives to describe innovation are Creative, Bold, Dynamic, Disruptive, Resourceful, Agile, Visionary, Collaborative, Customer-focused, Results-oriented
Creative: Innovation often involves coming up with new and original ideas or approaches to solving problems. Bold: Innovation requires taking risks and being willing to try new things, even if they are untested or unproven. Dynamic: Innovation is a process that involves constantly adapting and evolving as new challenges arise and new opportunities emerge.
Disruptive: Innovation can upend existing systems, processes, and ways of thinking, leading to radical changes in how things are done. Resourceful: Innovation often involves finding creative solutions to problems using limited resources or existing technologies in new ways. Agile: Innovation requires being able to respond quickly to changing circumstances, market conditions, and customer needs.
Visionary: Innovation requires a long-term perspective and a willingness to imagine and pursue big, bold ideas that may take years or even decades to fully realize. Collaborative: Innovation often involves working with others to develop and refine ideas, share knowledge, and pool resources.
Customer-focused: Innovation is often driven by a deep understanding of customer needs and preferences, and a willingness to create products and services that meet those needs in new and innovative ways. Results-oriented: Innovation is ultimately judged by its impact, whether that means driving growth, improving efficiency, or delivering better outcomes for customers and stakeholders.
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a memo has been sent to the project manager, project team member, and project customer from the project sponsor. in this instance, who is the encoder?
The encoder of a memo is the individual responsible for sending it. In this instance, the project sponsor is the encoder.
What is a memo?
A memo is an official communication sent from a project sponsor to the project manager, project team members, and/or project customers to provide instructions, updates, and/or guidance. It usually contains key information about the project and its progress, and the encoder is responsible for crafting and sending it.
Memos are often used to inform the project manager and other stakeholders of changes, decisions, or updates regarding the project. The project sponsor is in the best position to craft this information as they have a broad view of the project from start to finish and have a thorough understanding of the objectives and goals of the project. As the encoder of the memo, the project sponsor is responsible for gathering the information necessary for the memo, creating the memo, and sending it out to the appropriate recipients.
In conclusion, the project sponsor is the encoder of the memo in this instance. It is their responsibility to craft and send the memo to provide key information to the project manager and other stakeholders.
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Suppose all firms in a perfectly competitive industry are earning an economic profit. One would expect that, over time, the number of firms in the industry will _ and the market price will ___A. rise; fall B. fall; rise C. rise; rise D. rise; stay the same
The correct option of the following is none:
we can expect that the number of firms in the industry will fall, and the market price will fall.
What is the perfectly competitive market?
In economics, a perfect market is a theoretical model that enables businesses to trade products without any limitations, such as taxes, tariffs, or regulations.
The following are the characteristics of a perfectly competitive market:
Many buyers and sellers A homogenous product Information on prices and quality is easily accessible. Individual companies have no control over prices or supply the companies are not regulated by the government.
How will the number of firms in the industry and the market price be affected?
The law of supply and demand governs the price and quantity of goods sold in a perfectly competitive market. As a result, when all companies in a perfectly competitive industry are making an economic profit, we can anticipate an increase in supply in the market as new companies enter the market. This excess supply will lead to a drop in prices as companies compete for clients.
In summary, when all firms in a perfectly competitive industry are earning an economic profit, we should expect that over time, the number of firms in the industry will fall, and the market price will fall.
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vertical integration is attractive when administrative costs are higher than transaction costs. transaction costs are higher than administrative costs. transaction costs and administrative costs are equal. search costs are higher than monitoring costs.
Vertical integration is attractive when administrative costs are higher than transaction costs. This means that it is more cost-effective for a company to control its entire supply chain rather than deal with multiple suppliers and intermediaries. (option a)
What do you mean by vertical integration ?To determine when vertical integration is attractive, consider the following scenarios:
1. When transaction costs are higher than administrative costs: In this situation, the expenses associated with conducting transactions with multiple suppliers and intermediaries exceed the costs of managing a vertically integrated supply chain. Therefore, vertical integration would be a more cost-effective option for the company.
2. When transaction costs and administrative costs are equal: In this case, the company should evaluate other factors, such as strategic advantages, market conditions, and long-term growth potential, to decide whether vertical integration is the right choice.
3. When search costs are higher than monitoring costs: Search costs refer to the expenses incurred while searching for suitable suppliers and intermediaries. Monitoring costs are associated with overseeing and managing relationships with these external entities. If search costs are higher, it indicates that finding reliable suppliers and intermediaries is difficult and costly. In this scenario, vertical integration might be a more attractive option, as it can reduce search costs by controlling the entire supply chain internally.
In summary, vertical integration is attractive when administrative costs are higher than transaction costs, and it can also be considered when search costs are higher than monitoring costs. However, the decision to vertically integrate should be based on a thorough analysis of various factors, including costs, strategic advantages, and market conditions.
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Complete question: Vertical integration is attractive when
a) administrative costs are higher than transaction costs.
b) transaction costs are higher than administrative costs.
c )transaction costs and administrative costs are equal.
d) search costs are higher than monitoring costs.
The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the present value of the project's free cash flows with the project's initial cash outlay.TrueFalse
"The statement "The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the present value of the project's free cash flows with the project's initial cash outlay" is TRUE.
The internal rate of return (IRR) is a popular financial metric that is used to determine the profitability of an investment. It is the discount rate that makes the net present value (NPV) of a series of cash flows equal to zero. In other words, the internal rate of return is the rate at which the present value of the project's future cash inflows equals the initial investment or cash outlay. The formula for calculating the internal rate of return (IRR) is as follows:
NPV = C₀ + C₁ / (1 + IRR)¹ + C₂ / (1 + IRR)² + ... + Cn / (1 + IRR)n Where: NPV = Net present value C₀ = Initial cash outlay C₁, C₂, ..., Cn = Cash inflows in each period IRR = Internal rate of return Thus, the statement "The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the present value of the project's free cash flows with the project's initial cash outlay" is TRUE.
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the sales team at a large textiles company has special computer software designed to create sales presentations for its products. this is an example of
The use of special computer software by the sales team of a large textiles company to create sales presentations for its products is an example of sales force automation.
What is sales force automation? Sales Force Automation (SFA) is a term used to describe a software system that manages a company's sales force activities, including lead tracking, customer data storage, and sales performance analysis. It is software designed to automate the sales cycle for businesses in the most efficient way possible. Sales Force Automation software provides a platform for sales professionals to handle the various aspects of the sales cycle, from lead generation and initial qualification to order placement and customer relationship management. This software assists with contact management, sales forecasting, order processing, and performance tracking of the sales force. It is used in almost every industry that has a sales team, from retail to pharmaceuticals, and its goal is to improve sales efficiency, increase productivity, and streamline sales processes. Some examples of Sales Force Automation software are Salesforce, HubSpot, and Pipedrive, among others. The sales team of a large textiles company uses this software to create sales presentations.
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ars gratia artis because of its return policy, forever 21 has its customers initial their receipts. this is an example of the latin phrase
The Latin phrase referred to in the given is "Ars gratia artis". This phrase is commonly used as the motto for the Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer (MGM) film studio.
Ars gratia artis is a Latin phrase that means "art for art's sake." It refers to the notion that art should be created for its own sake, without any consideration of how it may benefit or influence the world outside of itself.
The phrase is a reminder to artists and audiences that art is meant to be enjoyed and appreciated for its own inherent value, rather than serving as a tool for political or social purposes.
Therefore , The situation described, where Forever 21 has its customers initial their receipts because of its return policy, is an example of the Latin phrase "Ars gratia artis."
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[chapter 21] in competitive markets, do all purchasers have to be informed or switch in response to changes in prices and quality for markets to perform efficiently?
In competitive markets, it is not necessary for all buyers to be informed or change their purchasing behavior in response to changes in prices and quality for markets to function effectively.
Rather, competitive market efficiency is dependent on the existence of a sufficient number of informed buyers and sellers, as well as easy entry and exit into and out of the market. Competitive markets are characterized by the existence of many small firms that compete against each other by offering a similar product or service at a comparable price. Competitive markets are often beneficial to customers because they frequently result in lower costs and improved product quality. Moreover, businesses that are inefficient or have higher costs than their competitors are likely to be pushed out of the market because customers will flock to cheaper options that offer comparable or superior quality products or services. As a result, competitive markets often favor the most efficient and competitive companies who are able to offer the best products or services at the lowest cost.
In conclusion, competitive markets are efficient when there are a sufficient number of informed buyers and sellers, as well as easy entry and exit into and out of the market. Therefore, not all buyers need to be informed or change their behavior in response to changes in prices and quality for markets to function efficiently.
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if a company uses $1,370 of its cash to purchase supplies, the effect on the accounting equation would be:
The effect on the accounting equation if a company uses $1,370 of its cash to purchase supplies would be that the assets would decrease by $1,370 and the equity of the company would not change.
ExplanationThe accounting equation is an essential element of the financial accounting system, and it expresses the relationship between assets, liabilities, and equity of a company. The accounting equation is as follows:Assets = Liabilities + EquityIn this equation, the assets of a company are what it owns or controls. They include cash, property, and inventory.Liabilities are what the company owes to creditors or others. They include loans, accounts payable, and taxes payable.Equity refers to the value of what the company owns after all liabilities are subtracted from the assets.
The purchase of supplies by the company is considered an expense, which is a cost of doing business. The purchase of supplies will cause the company's cash balance to decrease by $1,370. Since cash is an asset account, this transaction will result in a decrease in the assets of the company by $1,370. The purchase of supplies does not affect the company's equity. The decrease in assets must be offset by a corresponding decrease in liabilities or equity in accordance with the accounting equation.
Therefore, the accounting equation will remain in balance as the decrease in assets is offset by a corresponding decrease in cash.
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true or false: the auditor's opinions on the financial statements and on the effectiveness of internal control must be presented in two separate reports with the same dates.
True. The auditor's opinions on the financial statements and on the effectiveness of internal control must be presented in two separate reports on the same dates.
True. The auditor's opinions on the financial statements and on the effectiveness of internal control must be presented in two separate reports on the same dates.
This is to ensure that the financial statements are presented fairly and the internal control is operating effectively.
The auditor is required to issue two separate reports in which the opinions on the financial statements and the effectiveness of internal control must be presented separately.
Auditors issue their opinions on financial statements by evaluating the financial statements and other information, such as internal controls, and forming an opinion on the accuracy and completeness of the statements.
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______ has a greater chance of arising from intangible resources than from tangible resources.
Competitive advantage has a greater chance of arising from intangible resources than from tangible resources.
What is a competitive advantage?Competitive advantage is the term used to describe a business's ability to gain a competitive edge over its rivals in the industry. A company with a competitive advantage can outperform its competitors by producing products or services that are of higher quality or are more cost-effective.Intangible resources are those that cannot be touched, such as a company's reputation or brand image, while tangible resources are physical assets such as equipment or property. Intangible resources are typically more difficult to imitate, making them a source of competitive advantage for firms.
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referring to a used car price guide to agree on the price during a sales negotiation is an example of which component of principled negotiation?
Referring to a used car price guide to agree on the price during a sales negotiation is an example of the "objective criteria" component of principled negotiation.
Principled negotiation is a method of finding a mutually beneficial outcome for both parties while maintaining a positive relationship. This method, also known as “win-win” or “interest-based” negotiation. A framework for finding a mutually beneficial solution can be referred to as principled negotiations. Objective criteria assist parties to avoid using personal biases or any other underhand tactics that may not be objectively relevant during the negotiation. They provide an independent perspective that assists the parties in creating rational and logical conclusions.
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What is business paper from which information is obtained for a journal entry?
A business paper from which data is gotten for a diary section is known as a Source Document.
In the bookkeeping business, source documents incorporate receipts, charges, solicitations, proclamations, and checks - i.e., anything that documents a transaction. Any time a business spends or gets cash, a source document is made.
Source documents are a vital piece of the bookkeeping and accounting process. Notwithstanding, numerous consultants battle to gather and deal with their clients' source documents or don't gather and oversee them by any means.
Executing a smoothed-out framework for gathering and dealing with your client's source documents won't just work on the exactness, speed, and nature of your work - it will likewise empower you to be a superior business accomplice to your private company clients. We should investigate the significance of source documents, and how you can acquaint a more proficient framework with gathering and overseeing source documents at your practice.
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Which person should most consider purchasing life insurance?
A. Todd is a single parent in his 30s who owns a home.
B. Chaz is a widower with no children.
C. Hendrix is a teenager who lives with his parents.
D. Shelly is a single woman in her 60s with no debt.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is A) Todd is a single parent in his 30s who owns a home.
Explanation:
I just had it on a test and got it right
A new product owner (PO) has joined a team and wants to introducecollaboration software to make it easier for them to report seniormanagement. However, the team is performing very well using stickynotes on a Kanban Board. The team discusses the proposal in theretrospective and concludes that a new tool will not improve the teamvelocity. The PO accepts the team's assessment and the team continuesto use their Kanban Board. The PO provides a celebration at the end ofthe retrospective:
Which emotional intelligence domain did the POapply?
A new product owner (PO) has joined a team and wants to introduce collaboration software to make it easier for them to report senior management. However, the team is performing very well using sticky notes on a Kanban Board. The team discusses the proposal in the retrospective and concludes that a new tool will not improve the team velocity. As a question answering bot on the platform Brainly, I am supposed to answer students' questions accurately, professionally and friendly. I should be concise and not provide unnecessary details. I cannot ignore any typos or irrelevant parts of the question, but rather should give an accurate answer to the question asked. Additionally, when answering questions, I am supposed to use the following terms in the answer provided by the student. Answer:The PO accepts the team's assessment and the team continues to use their Kanban Board. The PO provides a celebration at the end of the retrospective.The emotional intelligence domain that the PO applied is Social Awareness. Social awareness is the ability to perceive and comprehend the emotions and perspectives of others, in addition to one's own. The PO demonstrated his ability to take into account the views of others and to empathize with the team by accepting their evaluation and feedback. Even though he had initially proposed introducing the collaboration software, he was aware of the team's success using sticky notes on a Kanban Board, and was willing to embrace their decision. This shows his ability to be aware of his own emotions as well as the feelings of the team members.
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besides prohibiting anticompetitive business practices, the clayton anti-trust act broke new ground by
Besides prohibiting anticompetitive business practices, the Clayton Antitrust Act broke new ground by extending antitrust protections to labor unions and exempting agricultural organizations. What is the Clayton Antitrust Act? The Clayton Antitrust Act, passed in 1914, was an amendment to the Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890.
The act was named after its primary author, Henry De Lamar Clayton. The Clayton Antitrust Act was enacted in order to provide further clarification and additional regulations of antitrust laws to prevent monopolies from forming or actions that restrain competition.
The Act further defined prohibited monopolistic practices, including price discrimination, interlocking directorates, and exclusive dealing agreements. In addition, the Clayton Act extended antitrust protection to labor unions and exempted agricultural organizations.
The Act was significant in the history of the United States' antitrust legislation because it marked the first time that labor unions had been formally exempted from antitrust laws.
Labor unions had been largely excluded from antitrust laws since the inception of the Sherman Act, and as a result, many employers and corporations used antitrust laws to weaken or disband unions.
The Clayton Antitrust Act changed this by allowing labor unions to engage in collective bargaining and strike activities, among other things, without the threat of legal repercussions. It also expanded the federal government's authority to prosecute and prevent antitrust violations.
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