False. The Iron Law of Prohibition is a term coined by Richard Cowan in 1986, which states that "the more intense the law enforcement, the more potent the prohibited substance becomes."
This means that as law enforcement efforts against drug use become stricter, the drugs become more potent, dangerous, and profitable, leading to a range of negative consequences such as increased violence, corruption, and public health risks.
The Iron Law of Prohibition does not state that the stricter and more intense the enforcement of laws against recreational drug use, the more effective they will be in reducing drug use. In fact, there is much evidence to suggest that strict enforcement measures, such as mandatory minimum sentences and aggressive policing tactics, can have negative consequences and may not be effective in reducing drug use or addressing drug-related problems.
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The Sunshine Act requires that advisory committees must hold open meetings.
a. true
b. false
The Supreme Court considers diversity in education a "compelling state interest."
The Supreme Court has indeed recognized diversity in education as a "compelling state interest." In several landmark cases, the Court has held that universities may consider race and ethnicity as one of many factors in their admissions process in order to achieve a diverse student body.
In the case of Fisher v. University of Texas at Austin (2016), the Court reaffirmed this principle and held that a university's use of race in admissions must be narrowly tailored to achieve its compelling interest in diversity. The Court emphasized that diversity in education promotes cross-racial understanding, helps to break down racial stereotypes, and prepares students for an increasingly diverse workforce and society. However, the Court has also emphasized that the use of race in admissions must be subject to strict scrutiny and must be limited in scope. In particular, universities must demonstrate that they have exhausted race-neutral alternatives and that their use of race is necessary to achieve their compelling interest in diversity. Overall, the Supreme Court's recognition of diversity in education as a "compelling state interest" reflects the importance of promoting equal educational opportunities and preparing students for a diverse and interconnected world.
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A primary reason why destructive leaders seek power is to use it ______.
A- to help others
B- to change the world
C- for organizational profit
D- for personal gain
The primary reason why destructive leaders seek power is for personal gain. Option D
Who are destructive leaders?Destructive leaders are individuals who use their power and influence in ways that are harmful to their organizations, employees, or society as a whole.
They may seek power for a variety of reasons, including a desire for personal gain, such as financial or material benefits, prestige, or control over others.
Destructive leaders are often motivated by their own self-interest, and they may use their power to manipulate others, engage in unethical or illegal activities.
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Liability for a defective product can be triggered even when A) the product is not expected to reach the user without a substantial change in its condition. B) the seller has exercised all possible care in preparation and sale of the product. C) the injured party can prove that the product was not received at all. D) the seller is not engaged in the business of selling such a product.
Liability for a defective product can be triggered even when the seller has exercised all possible care in preparation and sale of the product. The correct option is c.
This is because the concept of strict liability applies in product liability cases. This means that regardless of the seller's intent or level of care
They can still be held responsible for any harm caused by a defective product.
t is not necessary for the product to reach the user without a substantial change in its condition, nor is it necessary for the injured party to prove that the product was not received at all.
However, if the seller is not engaged in the business of selling such a product, they may have a defense against liability.
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When the deed of trust is used as the security instrument for a mortgage loan, which of the following is a true statement?
A. The bank gives title to the borrower while the loan is being paid off.
B. It is much easier for a lender to foreclose on a property.
C. A promissory note the borrower has signed gives the lender the right to seize and sell the house should the borrower default.
D. The borrower is considered the owner of the home.
When a deed of trust is used as the security instrument for a mortgage loan, it means that the borrower is giving the lender (or the trustee acting on behalf of the lender) the legal right to hold the title of the property until the loan is paid off. This means that option D, which suggests that the borrower is considered the owner of the home, is not entirely accurate.
Instead, the borrower is still considered the equitable owner of the property, meaning that they have the right to occupy and use the property as if they were the legal owner, but the lender or trustee holds the legal title. This arrangement makes it easier for the lender to foreclose on the property if the borrower defaults on the loan, as they already have legal ownership of the property.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option B, which states that it is much easier for a lender to foreclose on a property when a deed of trust is used as the security instrument for a mortgage loan. Additionally, it is important to note that a promissory note the borrower has signed does give the lender the right to seize and sell the house should the borrower default, as stated in option C.
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What does it mean to measure a government's deficit "relative to the size of the economy"?
To measure a government's deficit "relative to the size of the economy" it is to compare the size of the deficit to the productivity . Thus, option A is correct. Therefore, option A is correct.
Every time the federal government's expenditure outweighs tax receipts and other sources of money, a budget deficit results. The US Treasury distributes treasury bills, written notes, and bonds to cover the shortfall.
The sum of the annual budget deficits of the United States of America, less the infrequent surpluses to occur is known as the national debt. It serves as a gauge for the total amount of funding the federal government will require.
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The question is incomplete, Complete question probably will be is:
What does it mean to measure a government's deficit "relative to the size of the economy"?
to compare the size of the deficit to the productivity
to compare the size of the deficit to the unemployment rate
to measure the deficit as a percentage of the economy or GDP
to measure the deficit as a percentage of tax revenues
Were American political parties (APPs) stronger in the past, or are they stronger today?
American political parties (APPs) have gone through many changes throughout their history. It is difficult to determine whether they were stronger in the past or are stronger today, as there are many factors to consider.
In the past, APPs had a stronger hold on the electorate. Political parties in the 19th century were closely tied to specific regions, religions, and ethnicities. They were often able to mobilize their supporters effectively through patronage, fundraising, and grassroots organizing. The emergence of strong party machines, such as Tammany Hall in New York City, allowed for party bosses to exert significant control over local politics. However, the 20th century saw a decline in the power of political parties, particularly due to the rise of mass media and the increasing influence of individual candidates. The political parties' role shifted from being the main vehicle for political participation to being more of a support system for individual politicians. This shift in the role of parties has continued to the present day. Today, American political parties still play an important role in the electoral process. However, their influence is often overshadowed by outside groups such as Super PACs and issue advocacy organizations. Additionally, many voters are increasingly independent, and therefore not as likely to identify with one party or the other. This has led to a decline in party loyalty and a rise in candidate-centered campaigns. In conclusion, it is difficult to say whether APPs were stronger in the past or are stronger today. While parties in the past had a more cohesive base of support, they also faced significant challenges in mobilizing voters outside of their traditional constituencies. Today, parties have less control over the political process, but they also have greater flexibility in adapting to changing electoral trends.
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Significant differences between European political parties & American political parties
The significant differences between European political parties and American political parties can be primarily attributed to the political systems, ideologies, and party structures in each region.
Firstly, European political parties tend to operate in multi-party systems, which encourage a broader range of political ideologies and policy platforms. In contrast, the American political system is a two-party system, dominated by the Democratic and Republican parties, leading to a narrower focus on center-left and center-right policies.Secondly, European political parties often display a wider ideological spectrum, with parties representing socialist, liberal, conservative, green, and far-right movements. American political parties, on the other hand, primarily revolve around the liberal (Democratic) and conservative (Republican) ideologies.Finally, European political parties tend to have more fragmented and coalition-based governments due to the proportional representation voting systems in place. This allows smaller parties to gain representation and influence in policy-making. Conversely, the American political system uses a first-past-the-post electoral system, which reinforces the two-party system and limits the influence of third parties in government.
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Carrie and Peter enter into a contract in which Carrie agrees to wash Peter's car if Peter tutors her son in math and her son gets at least a B+. This is an example of which type of conditional contract?
Answer:
This is an example of a bilateral condition precedent contract, where both parties must perform their obligations before the other is required to perform. In this case, Carrie's obligation to wash Peter's car is conditional upon Peter's obligation to tutor her son and the son achieving at least a B+.
This is an example of a unilateral contract.promise in exchange for the performance of an act by another party
A unilateral contract is a type of contract in which one party makes a promise in exchange for the performance of an act by another party. In this case, Carrie is making a promise to wash Peter's car in exchange for Peter tutoring her son and her son getting at least a B+. The contract becomes binding only when the act is performed by the other party, in this case, Peter's tutoring and the son getting a B+. Until then, Carrie is under no obligation to wash Peter's car. Unilateral contracts are often used in situations where the act to be performed is something that only one party can do, such as painting a picture or finding a lost object.
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___ government spending, ___ transfer payments, and ___ taxes are all examples of contractionary fiscal policy.
Contractionary fiscal policy refers to actions taken by the government to decrease aggregate demand and slow down economic growth. This can be achieved through a decrease in government spending, an increase in taxes, or a decrease in transfer payments.
Government spending includes all spending by the government on goods and services, such as infrastructure projects, defense spending, and social programs. When the government decreases its spending, it reduces demand for goods and services, which can help to slow down inflation and prevent an overheating economy.
Transfer payments are payments made by the government to individuals or groups, such as welfare payments, unemployment benefits, and subsidies. When the government decreases transfer payments, it reduces the amount of disposable income that individuals and groups have to spend, which can help to decrease overall demand in the economy.
Taxes are a tool that the government can use to decrease aggregate demand. When taxes are increased, individuals and businesses have less disposable income to spend, which can reduce demand for goods and services.
Overall, contractionary fiscal policy can be a useful tool for the government to manage inflation and slow down economic growth when necessary. However, it is important to use this policy in moderation to avoid causing a recession or economic downturn.
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the court must examine carefully the importance of the governmental interests advanced and the extent to which they are served by the challenged regulation.T/F
True. This statement refers to the standard of review that a court must apply when examining a challenged regulation. The court must carefully consider the government's interests and how well those interests are served by the regulation in question.
Governmental interests refer to the goals, objectives, and priorities of a government in terms of public policy and decision-making. These interests can be shaped by a variety of factors, such as political ideology, public opinion, economic conditions, national security concerns, and international relations. Governmental interests can include promoting economic growth and development, maintaining social stability and welfare, protecting national security and sovereignty, promoting international cooperation and diplomacy, and safeguarding civil and human rights. The pursuit of governmental interests can involve a range of policy tools, such as taxation, regulation, public spending, foreign aid, and military force. Understanding governmental interests is important for citizens, businesses, and other stakeholders in order to engage in effective advocacy, dialogue, and accountability.
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Raising the rent of a public housing tenant is a sufficient invasion of privacy interests by the supervisory administrative agency that requires a trial-type hearing
A. True
B. False
B. False. While raising the rent of a public housing tenant may impact their privacy interests, it does not necessarily require a trial-type hearing by a supervisory administrative agency. The decision to raise rent would typically fall under the agency's regular administrative processes and procedures.
While the supervisory administrative agency is responsible for overseeing public housing and implementing changes such as raising the rent, it is not considered a sufficient invasion of privacy interests to require a trial-type hearing. Typically, rent adjustments in public housing follow established guidelines and procedures, ensuring fairness without the need for a trial-type hearing.
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What does an injured plaintiff need to prove to a court in order to claim duress?
In order for an injured plaintiff to claim duress, they need to prove to the court that they were subjected to a threat or coercion that made them act against their will.
An injured plaintiff is a person who has suffered harm or injury as a result of the actions or negligence of another party and brings a legal claim seeking compensation for their losses. The plaintiff may be injured physically, emotionally, or financially, and their injuries may be caused by a variety of incidents, such as a car accident, medical malpractice, or a defective product. In a legal case, the injured plaintiff is the party bringing the lawsuit against the defendant, who is alleged to have caused the injury. The plaintiff's goal is typically to obtain compensation for their damages, which may include medical expenses, lost income, pain, and suffering, and other losses resulting from the injury.
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CPAs must participate in continuing education programs. (True or False)
True. Continuing Professional Education (CPE) is a requirement for Certified Public Accountants (CPAs) to maintain their professional competence and stay updated on the latest developments in their field. Participation in continuing education programs ensures that CPAs can provide the highest quality services to their clients and employers.
Continuing education for CPAs may include seminars, workshops, conferences, and online courses covering various topics such as accounting standards, taxation, ethics, and technology advancements in the industry. The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) and state boards of accountancy set the CPE requirements for CPAs to renew their licenses.
Each state has its own specific CPE requirements, which may vary in terms of credit hours and subject matter. Generally, CPAs are required to complete a certain number of CPE credits during a specified period, such as every one, two, or three years. Some states also mandate that CPAs must complete a minimum number of credits in particular subject areas, like ethics or auditing.
In conclusion, CPAs must participate in continuing education programs to maintain their professional skills and stay current in their field. This ongoing education is essential for providing high-quality services and adhering to the ever-evolving standards and regulations in the accounting profession.
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identity federation is not in essence an extension of identity management to multiple security domains.True or False
False. Identity federation is, in essence, an extension of identity management to multiple security domains.
Identity federation allows a user to use a single set of credentials, such as a username and password, to access multiple systems or services across different security domains. This is made possible through the use of standards-based protocols and technologies, such as Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) and OAuth, which enable the exchange of authentication and authorization information between systems in a secure and standardized manner.
By extending identity management across multiple security domains, identity federation helps simplify the user experience, reduce the need for multiple sets of credentials, and improve security by centralizing control and visibility over user access and permissions.
True, identity federation is indeed an extension of identity management to multiple security domains.
Identity management refers to the process of creating, maintaining, and securing digital identities for users within an organization. It involves authenticating users, authorizing their access to resources, and managing their credentials.
Multiple security domains are separate environments with distinct sets of security policies, procedures, and controls. These domains may belong to different organizations, which collaborate and exchange information while maintaining their respective security requirements.
Identity federation comes into play when users need access to resources across these multiple security domains. It enables seamless and secure sharing of identity information between collaborating organizations, allowing users to authenticate in their home domain and access resources in other domains without needing separate credentials. This streamlines the user experience and simplifies access management for organizations, while still ensuring robust security.
In summary, identity federation is an extension of identity management that allows secure and efficient access to resources across multiple security domains. This enables organizations to collaborate more effectively without compromising on security.
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in a mortgage loan, the borrower always creates two documents: a note and a mortgage. which of the following pieces of information is provided in the mortgage?
Answer:A:
An unambiguous description of the property that is being pledged as collateral for the loan.
hope it helped
In a mortgage loan, the mortgage typically provides information about the property that is being mortgaged, such as its legal description, the amount of the loan, the interest rate, the term of the loan, and the rights and obligations of both the borrower and the lender
The mortgage typically provides information about the property being mortgaged, such as its address and legal description, the name of the borrower and lender, the loan amount, interest rate, payment terms, and the conditions under which the lender may foreclose on the property if the borrower defaults on the loan. It also establishes the rights and obligations of both the borrower and the lender, such as the requirement for the borrower to maintain insurance on the property and pay property taxes. The mortgage may also include provisions for prepayment penalties, late fees, and other charges related to the loan.
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Prior to 1967, courts took a property-based approach to defining a search and when constitutional protections were implicated. a. True b. False
True, Prior to the landmark case of Katz v. United States in 1967, courts took a property-based approach to defining a search and when constitutional protections were implicated.
This approach meant that the Fourth Amendment protections against unreasonable searches and seizures only applied when there was a physical intrusion into a person's property or when the government seized or confiscated their property.
This narrow interpretation of the Fourth Amendment meant that many forms of surveillance and searches, such as wiretapping and electronic eavesdropping, were not considered to be searches under the law.
However, the Katz decision changed this approach and held that the Fourth Amendment protects a person's reasonable expectation of privacy, regardless of whether there is a physical trespass or seizure of property.
This landmark decision greatly expanded the scope of Fourth Amendment protections and continues to influence how courts interpret search and seizure issues today.
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A violation of the license law by an unlicensed person will result in?
A violation of the license law by an unlicensed person can result in legal consequences and penalties. Each state has its own specific license laws that dictate the requirements for individuals to practice certain professions or trades. These laws are in place to protect the public from unqualified and potentially dangerous practitioners.
If an unlicensed person is found to be in violation of the license law, they may face fines and legal action from the state. This can include cease and desist orders, fines, and even criminal charges in some cases.
Additionally, if the unlicensed person causes harm to a client or customer, they may be held liable for damages and face civil lawsuits. This can result in significant financial consequences and damage to their reputation.
It is important for individuals to understand the license laws in their state and ensure they are properly licensed before practicing any profession or trade. This not only protects the public but also protects the individual from legal and financial consequences of practicing without a license.
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What was the Nuremberg trials and its impact on international law?
The Nuremberg Trials were a series of trials held in Nuremberg, Germany, from 1945 to 1949 to prosecute Nazi officials for war crimes, crimes against humanity and other violations of international law.
The trials were held in the Nuremberg Palace of Justice and conducted by an international tribunal made up of representatives from the Allied powers, including the Soviet Union, the United States, Britain, France and China.
The Nuremberg Trials had a significant impact on the development of international law, particularly in the areas of war crimes, crimes against humanity and genocide. The trials established that individuals could be held responsible for their actions, regardless of their official position or rank, and provided a legal framework for the prosecution of those responsible for atrocities.
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Personnel Staffing Corporation meets all of the requirements to be subject to the federal employment discrimination laws. Among these, the most important statute prohibiting discrimination against members of protected classes is a. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967.
b. the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990. c. the National Labor Relations Act of 1935. d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
The correct answer is d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is the most important statute that prohibits discrimination against members of protected classes.
This law applies to employers with 15 or more employees and prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. It also established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) to investigate and enforce the law. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA) prohibits discrimination against individuals who are 40 years of age or older in hiring, promotion, discharge, compensation, or terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. This law applies to employers with 20 or more employees. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA) prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in hiring, promotion, discharge, compensation, or terms, conditions, or privileges of employment. This law applies to employers with 15 or more employees. The National Labor Relations Act of 1935 (NLRA) protects the rights of employees to engage in collective bargaining and other concerted activities for the purpose of collective bargaining or other mutual aid or protection. This law applies to most private sector employers. In summary, while all of these laws are important, Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is the most significant statute prohibiting discrimination against members of protected classes, including race, color, religion, sex, and national origin.
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Laws regarding the sale of goods are found in Article _______ of the UCC.
The laws regarding the sale of goods are found in Article 2 of the UCC (Uniform Commercial Code).
This article provides guidelines and regulations for the sale of goods, including the formation of contracts, warranties, and remedies for breach of contract. It covers both tangible goods (e.g., products) and intangible goods (e.g., intellectual property).
The UCC is a set of uniform laws adopted by all 50 states in the US to create consistency and predictability in commercial transactions. Article 2 specifically deals with sales contracts, and it is important for both buyers and sellers to understand the provisions of this article in order to ensure fair and lawful transactions.
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You can make a "right-on-red" turn only if the light has an additional green arrow attached to the right of the main
traffic light, you come to a complete stop and you clear all traffic before turning right.
True
O Falsetto
By authority of Congress, the president may create an administrative agency by executive order.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Administrative agencies are created by Congress through enabling legislation. The President does not have the authority to create an administrative agency by executive order.
False. By authority of Congress, the president may create an administrative agency by executive order.
The creation of administrative agencies is a function of Congress, not the president. Under the United States Constitution, Congress has the power to make laws, and it is through this power that Congress creates and empowers administrative agencies. These agencies are tasked with implementing and enforcing laws, regulations, and policies that are within their jurisdiction.
The president can influence the operations of administrative agencies by appointing and removing the agency's leaders, but the creation of an agency is beyond the scope of presidential power. In other words, the president cannot unilaterally create an administrative agency by executive order.
The creation of an administrative agency typically requires a statute enacted by Congress. This statute will define the agency's purpose, scope of authority, and structure. Once created, an administrative agency will operate within the boundaries set by Congress and subject to the review of the federal courts.
It is important to note that the president may issue executive orders to direct administrative agencies to carry out specific tasks or actions. These orders must, however, be within the scope of the agency's statutory authority and may not create new authority or duties for the agency.
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Are political parties declining? How can you tell?
Answer:The question of whether political parties are declining is a complex and contentious issue that can be viewed from multiple angles. Here are a few points to consider:
Voter identification with political parties: Studies show that the percentage of Americans who identify as Democrats or Republicans has remained relatively stable over the past few decades. According to a 2021 Gallup poll, 31% of Americans identify as Democrats, 25% as Republicans, and 41% as independents. While there have been some shifts in party identification over time, this suggests that political parties are still a significant force in American politics.
Party polarization: While the overall number of people identifying as Democrats or Republicans may not have changed significantly, there has been a growing trend toward party polarization in recent years. This means that Democrats and Republicans are increasingly divided and less likely to agree on key issues. Some argue that this polarization is a sign of the decline of political parties, as it weakens the ability of parties to work together and compromise.
Decline in party loyalty: While there are still many people who identify strongly with a particular political party, there is evidence to suggest that party loyalty is declining. For example, fewer people are voting straight-ticket (i.e., voting for all candidates from the same party) in elections, and more people are willing to split their tickets and vote for candidates from different parties. This suggests that some voters are becoming less committed to political parties.
Rise of independent candidates: While political parties still play a dominant role in American politics, there has been a recent trend toward independent candidates and third parties. For example, in the 2020 presidential election, the Libertarian and Green parties both received a larger percentage of the popular vote than in previous elections. This suggests that some voters are looking for alternatives to the two major parties.
Overall, it is difficult to say definitively whether political parties are declining or not. While there are some signs that party loyalty may be declining and that independent candidates are becoming more popular, political parties still play a central role in American politics.
Explanation:
In a divorce, to obtain custody, the genetic father has to convince the court of his fitness and ability to care for his child, whereas if the mother decides to keep her child, she need not legally demonstrate her fitness (True or False)
Answer:False
Explanation: In a divorce or child custody case, both parents may be required to demonstrate their fitness to care for their child. Gender is not a determining factor in custody decisions. Courts consider factors such as the parents' ability to provide a stable home environment, their involvement in the child's life, their mental and physical health, and the child's best interests. While mothers historically have been more likely to be awarded custody in the past, that is not always the case today. The court's primary concern is the well-being and safety of the child, and custody decisions are made on a case-by-case basis.
What national organization in America has done most to defend America against acts of terror, and how do you determine this?
Answer:
an organization chartered by act of the U.SExplanation:
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) is the national organization in America that has done the most to defend against acts of terror. This is determined by the fact that DHS was created after the 9/11 attacks to lead a unified national effort to secure America against terrorism. DHS is responsible for protecting the country from both domestic and foreign threats, including cybersecurity attacks, natural disasters, and terrorism. The department works closely with federal, state, and local partners to coordinate and implement initiatives to prevent, protect against, and respond to terrorist acts.All of the following statements are consistent with the Uniform Securities Act EXCEPT:
A) state Administrators may require federal covered investment companies to file documents with the Administrator using a procedure known as notice filing.
B) state Administrators do not require consent to service of process to be submitted with notice filings for covered securities.
C) a security for which a registration statement is filed under the Securities Act of 1933 may simultaneously register with the state by the procedure known as registration by coordination.
D) any security may be registered with the state by the procedure known as registration by qualification.
Answer:DThe Administrator will require the filing of a consent to service of process with any securities registration. If required by the Administrator, notice filing is the procedure followed by federal covered securities. Any security may be registered by qualification, and coordination is the simultaneous registration with the SEC and the states
The correct answer is D. All statements listed are consistent with the Uniform Securities Act except for "option D." The Uniform Securities Act allows for the registration of securities with the state through two procedures: notice filing and registration by coordination. Registration by qualification is not a recognized procedure under the act.
Option A is correct in that state Administrators may require federally covered investment companies to file documents with the Administrator using a procedure known as notice filing. This is a common practice for companies exempt from state registration requirements.
Option B is also correct in that state Administrators do not require consent to service of process to be submitted with notice filings for covered securities. This is because these securities are already regulated by federal laws, making consent unnecessary.
Option C is also correct in that a security for which a registration statement is filed under the Securities Act of 1933 may simultaneously register with the state by the procedure known as registration by coordination. This allows for a streamlined registration process for companies seeking to register securities with federal and state regulators.
In summary, while all of the statements listed are consistent with the Uniform Securities Act, only option D needs to be corrected as there is no recognized procedure for registration by qualification under the act.
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If an agency relies upon its own expertise iin reaching an adjudication in a specific case, it must enter such expert opinion(s) as part of the record in a particular hearing.
a. true
b. false
a. true If an agency relies upon its own expertise in reaching an adjudication in a specific case, it must enter such expert opinion(s) as part of the record in a particular hearing.
"Agency relies" is a term used in sociology to describe the degree to which individuals have control over their own lives and can exercise free will. It refers to the capacity of individuals to act independently and make choices that affect their own lives. This concept is based on the belief that individuals are not passive victims of their social circumstances, but rather have the ability to shape their own lives and influence the world around them. Agency is shaped by a variety of factors, including social norms, cultural values, and economic conditions, but ultimately it is up to the individual to exercise their agency and make choices that align with their goals and values.
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True or False? The FTC recommends that people place an initial fraud alert (among other things) when they suspect they are victims of identity theft.
True. The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) recommends that people place an initial fraud alert on their credit reports if they suspect they are victims of identity theft. This is one of the steps recommended by the FTC to help protect against further damage to their credit and personal information. An initial fraud alert can help alert creditors to verify your identity before opening new accounts, extending credit, or increasing credit limits.
Painted House] Jamal had a contract to paint Stephanie’s house for $800. His contractual obligations included cleaning up any debris. The contract between Jamal and Stephanie did not in any way address assignment. Jamal, who was very busy, assigned the contract to Greg who was interested in making some extra money and had experience painting. Jamal specified that the contract included the duty to paint the house and the right to receive the money. Jamal did not tell Stephanie about the assignment because he did not want any trouble. Greg also did not mention the assignment to Stephanie. In fact, Greg never met Stephanie because he painted her house while she was at work. After Greg did a good job painting the house, Stephanie sent a check to Jamal for $800. Jamal needed the money to pay some bills, so he spent it. He thought he would have money coming in with which to pay Greg, but that did not happen. Greg asked Stephanie for $800 when it was not forthcoming from Jamal. Stephanie refused. Greg said that he was going to sue her. Stephanie called Jamal and told him that he had no right to assign the contract. In addition, there was another problem involving the disposal of debris. Although Greg was a good, competent painter, he forgot and left some old paint cans at Stephanie's house. Stephanie demanded that Jamal come and properly dispose of the paint cans because they could not simply be put in the trash. Jamal refused and told her that she would have to get Greg to dispose of the paint cans because that was his responsibility. Stephanie called Greg who told her that he was busy and that clearing out the paint cans was Jamal's responsibility.
What would be the likely result of a lawsuit brought by Greg against Stephanie to recover the $800?
Multiple Choice
Stephanie will win only so long as the assignment was for an amount over $500.
Greg will win because Stephanie accepted the risk that the contract would be assigned.
Greg will win only so long as Jamal has not been declared bankrupt because Stephanie will be able to recover the amounts at issue from Jamal.
Greg will win only so long as the assignment was for an amount under $1,000.
Stephanie will win because she had no notice that the contract had been assigned and could, therefore, legally satisfy her obligations by paying Jamal.
Stephanie will win because she had no notice that the contract had been assigned and could, therefore, legally satisfy her obligations by paying Jamal. Greg cannot sue Stephanie for the $800 because the contract was not assignable without Stephanie's consent, and she did not consent to the assignment.
Jamal's failure to inform Stephanie of the assignment means that Stephanie was not aware of the change in the contracting party. Therefore, Stephanie was legally justified in paying Jamal and has satisfied her contractual obligations. Greg's only recourse is to sue Jamal for breach of contract, as he was the original party to the contract. The issue with the disposal of debris is a separate matter, and Greg is responsible for properly disposing of the paint cans as he was the one who left them behind. Jamal's refusal to take responsibility for the debris does not relieve Greg of his duty to properly dispose of it.
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