The real rate is 5.61%. To find the real rate when given the pure rate of interest (2.5%), inflation premium (5%), and risk premium (3.4%), you need to use the Fisher equation:Real Rate = (1 + Nominal Rate) / (1 + Inflation Rate) - 1
First, you need to find the Nominal Rate by adding the pure rate of interest, inflation premium, and risk premium:
Nominal Rate = Pure Rate of Interest + Inflation Premium + Risk Premium ,Nominal Rate = 2.5% + 5% + 3.4% = 10.9%
Now, you can use the Fisher equation to find the Real Rate: Real Rate = (1 + 10.9%) / (1 + 5%) - 1 Real Rate = 1.109 / 1.05 - 1Real Rate = 0.0561 or 5.61% So, the real rate is 5.61%.
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The Goodyear Welt Company is proposing to replace its old welt-making machinery with more modern equipment. The new equipment costs $10 million and the company expects to sell its old equipment for 1 million which has fully depreciated. The attraction of the new machinery is that it is expected to cut manufacturing costs from their current level of $8 as welt to S4. However, the production level will remain the same at 800,000 units. The company plans to utilize this machine for five years since it will become obsolete after that period. This new machine will be depreciated using straight-line basis. This company pays zero tax. The company beta is 1.5. The market return is 16 percent and the risk free rate is 7 percent. Decide whether the company should replace the old machine?
NPV of the project is -$4.4 million, since the NPV of the project is negative, it means that the project is not profitable and the company should not replace the old machinery with the new equipment.
How to determine whether the company should replace the old machinery with the new equipment?To determine whether the company should replace the old machinery with the new equipment, we need to calculate the net present value (NPV) of the project.
First, let's calculate the annual cost savings from the new machinery:
Annual cost savings = Current cost - New cost
Annual cost savings = $8 - $4
Annual cost savings = $4 per unit
Total annual cost savings = $4 x 800,000 = $3,200,000
Now let's calculate the depreciation expense of the new equipment:
Depreciation expense = (Cost of new equipment - Salvage value) / Useful life
Depreciation expense = ($10 million - $1 million) / 5 years
Depreciation expense = $1.8 million per year
Next, we need to calculate the cash flows for each year:
Year 0:
Cash outflow for new equipment = -$10 million
Cash inflow from selling old equipment = $1 million
Net cash outflow = -$9 million
Years 1-5:
Cash inflow from cost savings = $3.2 million
Cash outflow from depreciation = -$1.8 million
Net cash inflow = $1.4 million
Using a discount rate of 16% and a straight-line depreciation method, we can calculate the NPV of the project:
Year 0:
NPV = -$9 million / (1 + 0.16)^0 = -$9 million
Years 1-5:
NPV = [$1.4 million / (1 + 0.16)^1] + [$1.4 million / (1 + 0.16)^2] + [$1.4 million / (1 + 0.16)^3] + [$1.4 million / (1 + 0.16)^4] + [$1.4 million / (1 + 0.16)^5]
NPV = $4.6 million
Total NPV = -$9 million + $4.6 million = -$4.4 million
Since the NPV of the project is negative, it means that the project is not profitable and the company should not replace the old machinery with new equipment.
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1.if the actual unemployment rate is 8% and the natural rate of unemployment is 5%, then the cyclical unemployment rate is?
The natural rate of unemployment is subtracted from the actual unemployment rate to arrive at the cyclical unemployment rate.
(8% - 5% = 3%) The cyclical unemployment rate would be 3%.
The cyclical unemployment rate is calculated by subtracting the natural rate of unemployment from the actual unemployment rate. So, in this case, the cyclical unemployment rate would be 3% (8% - 5% = 3%). This represents the portion of unemployment that is due to the current economic cycle or downturn, rather than due to structural or frictional factors.
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with a cost factor of 0.8, a schedule rating of 0.6, a reliability rating of 0.5, and a performance rating of 0.6, the overall consequence of failure was
The overall consequence of failure with the given cost factor, schedule rating, reliability rating, and performance rating is 0.66. Based on the given cost factor of 0.8, a schedule rating of 0.6, a reliability rating of 0.5, and a performance rating of 0.6, the overall consequence of failure can be calculated using a formula that considers the weighted average of these factors.
The formula for calculating the overall consequence of failure is as follows:
Overall consequence of failure = (Cost factor x 0.4) + (Schedule rating x 0.3) + (Reliability rating x 0.2) + (Performance rating x 0.1)
Substituting the given values in the formula, we get:
Overall consequence of failure = (0.8 x 0.4) + (0.6 x 0.3) + (0.5 x 0.2) + (0.6 x 0.1)
Overall consequence of failure = 0.32 + 0.18 + 0.1 + 0.06
Overall consequence of failure = 0.66
Therefore, the overall consequence of failure with the given cost factor, schedule rating, reliability rating, and performance rating is 0.66.
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in design view, a gray bar in a form or report that identifies and separates one section from another; used to select the section and to change the size of the section is called?
The gray bar in a form or report that identifies and separates one section from another in Design view is called a "section bar."
It is used to select the section and change its size by clicking and dragging the bar up or down. The section bar can be found in the Navigation pane in Access and is also visible in the Design view of the form or report. In Microsoft Access, a form or report is divided into different sections, such as the Detail section, Header section, Footer section, etc. Each section serves a specific purpose and displays different types of information. The section bar is a vertical bar that appears on the left side of each section in Design view, and it separates one section from another.
To select a section using the section bar, you can simply click on the bar. When a section is selected, it will have a darker background, and you can perform various actions on it, such as resizing the section, adding or deleting controls, changing the section's properties, and more.
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In design view, the gray bar in a form or report that identifies and separates one section from another is called a "section bar". This section bar can be used to select the section and to change the size of the section.
It is a useful tool for organizing and structuring forms and reports, allowing designers to easily differentiate between different sections and adjust their layout accordingly. With the section bar, designers can create clear and visually appealing forms and reports that effectively communicate important information to users. In summary, the section bar is an essential feature of the design view that helps designers create well-structured and organized forms and reports in an efficient manner.
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How has JCP managed its working capital accounts over the past
eight quarters? Is there an opportunity to squeeze more cash from
any of these accounts?
JCPenney has managed its working capital accounts fairly well over the past eight quarters, with an emphasis on increasing inventory turnover.
Inventories have decreased from $3.1 billion in Q1 2017 to $2.2 billion in Q4 2018, while accounts receivable have increased from $1.7 billion to $2.2 billion over the same period. This indicates that the company has been able to collect money from its customers more quickly. Additionally, JCPenney has seen its short-term liabilities decrease from $2.7 billion to $2.0 billion, indicating that it has been able to pay its suppliers more slowly.
Overall, JCPenney has been able to increase its cash flow by managing its working capital accounts more efficiently. While there may be some opportunities to squeeze more cash from these accounts, it is important to be mindful of the company’s longer-term goals and objectives.
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Consider the following information regarding corporate bonds: Rating AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Average Default Rate 0.0% 0.1% 0.2% 0.5% 2.2% 5.5% 12.2% Recession Default Rate 0.0% 1.0% 3.0% 3.0% 8.0% 16.0% 48.0% Average Beta 0.05 0.05 0.05 0.10 0.17 0.26 0.31 Wyatt Oil has a bond issue outstanding with seven years to maturity, a yield to maturity of 7.0%, and a BBB rating. The bondholders' expected loss rate in the event of default is 70%. Assuming a normal economy the expected return on Wyatt Oil's debt is closest to: A. 3.5% B. 4.9% C. 6.7% D. 3.0%
The expected return on Wyatt Oil's debt is closest to 6.7% (Option C). The anticipated value of a financial investment's return is known as the expected return. It is a measurement of the random variable's distribution's centre, which is the return. Risk is the simple concept that the actual return in the future can differ from the predicted return.
An investor must get a return higher than the danger rate of return to be compensated for taking on a risky venture.
Here's a step-by-step explanation for calculating the expected return:
1. Identify the bond's rating: BBB
2. Find the average default rate for the bond's rating: 0.5% (from the given data)
3. Calculate the probability of no default: 100% - 0.5% = 99.5%
4. Identify the yield to maturity: 7.0%
5. Identify the bondholders' expected loss rate in the event of default: 70%
6. Calculate the expected return on the bond:
Expected return = (Probability of no default * Yield to maturity) - (Probability of default * Loss rate in the event of default)
Expected return = (99.5% * 7.0%) - (0.5% * 70%)
Expected return = 6.965% - 0.35% = 6.615%
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Complete question: Consider the following information regarding corporate bonds: Rating AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC Average Default Rate 0.0% 0.1% 0.2% 0.5% 2.2% 5.5% 12.2% Recession Default Rate 0.0% 1.0% 3.0% 3.0% 8.0% 16.0% 48.0% Average Beta 0.05 0.05 0.05 0.10 0.17 0.26 0.31 Wyatt Oil has a bond issue outstanding with seven years to maturity, a yield to maturity of 7.0%, and a BBB rating. The bondholders' expected loss rate in the event of default is 70%. Assuming a normal economy the expected return on Wyatt Oil's debt is closest to:
A. 3.5%
B. 4.9%
C. 6.7%
D. 3.0%
Weston Corporation just pold a dividend of $2 a shore (Do- 52). The dividend is expected to grow 11% a year for the next years and then at 4% a year thereafter. What is the expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years?
The expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years is $2.22, $2.47, $2.75, $3.06, and $3.41, respectively.
We can use the dividend growth model to calculate the expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years. The formula for the dividend growth model is:
[tex]Dn = D0 x (1 + g)^n[/tex]
Where:
Dn = the expected dividend per share at year n
D0 = the current dividend per share
g = the expected growth rate of dividends
n = the number of years in the future
Using the information provided in the problem, we have:
D0 = $2 per share
g = 11% for the first five years, then 4% thereafter
So, the expected dividend per share for each of the next 5 years is:
[tex]D1 = D0 x (1 + g)^1 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^1 = $2.22\\D2 = D0 x (1 + g)^2 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^2 = $2.47\\D3 = D0 x (1 + g)^3 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^3 = $2.75\\D4 = D0 x (1 + g)^4 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^4 = $3.06\\D5 = D0 x (1 + g)^5 = $2 x (1 + 0.11)^5 = $3.41[/tex]
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Sarah has $1,000,000 of her company’s funds available for covered interest arbitrage. The U.S. interest rate is 5%, and Sarah would like to earn a higher rate if she can. The one‑year interest rate in Zambia is 12 percent. Sarah knows the Zambian currency, the kwacha, is likely to depreciate over the next year, which will offset at least some of the higher interest she could earn in Zambia. The spot rate of the Zambian currency, the kwacha, is $.056, and the one-year forward rate of the Zambian kwacha is $.054. What profits, if any can Sarah make using the $1,000,000 in U.S. dollars for covered interest arbitrage with Zambian kwacha? (Be sure to express the profits in U.S. dollars.)
Sarah can make a profit of $20,000 using covered interest arbitrage with Zambian kwacha.
1. Convert $1,000,000 to Zambian kwacha using the spot rate: $1,000,000 * ($.056/kwacha) = 17,857,142.86 kwacha.
2. Invest the kwacha at 12% interest rate in Zambia for one year: 17,857,142.86 kwacha * 1.12 = 19,999,999.99 kwacha.
3. Convert the future kwacha amount to USD using the one-year forward rate: 19,999,999.99 kwacha * ($.054/ kwacha) = $1,080,000.
4. Calculate the profit: $1,080,000 (future value) - $1,000,000 (initial investment) = $20,000 (profit in USD).
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In value-based pricing, assessing customer needs and value perceptions is the ______ step in the process. cost-plus pricing.
In value-based pricing, assessing customer needs and value perceptions is the initial step in the process. This approach differs from cost-plus pricing, as it focuses on the perceived value of the product or service to the customer, rather than simply adding a markup to the cost of production.
To implement value-based pricing, follow these steps:
1. Identify your target customers and understand their needs, preferences, and perceptions. Conduct market research to gather insights about your target audience and their willingness to pay for the product or service.
2. Determine the unique value proposition of your product or service. Identify the features and benefits that differentiate your offering from competitors and make it more valuable to your target customers.
3. Analyze the competition and market trends to establish a pricing range. Consider how similar products or services are priced, and identify any gaps or opportunities within the market.
4. Set a price based on the perceived value of your product or service. This price should reflect the value customers attribute to your offering, considering their needs, preferences, and perceptions.
5. Continuously monitor customer feedback and market trends adjust your pricing strategy as needed. Ensure that your pricing remains competitive and reflects the evolving value perceptions of your target customers.
By following this process, you can establish a value-based pricing strategy that aligns with your customers' needs and perceptions, ultimately leading to a stronger market position and increased profitability.
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In value-based pricing, assessing customer needs and value perceptions is the first step in the process, as opposed to cost-plus pricing where the cost of production is the primary factor in determining the price.
Understanding what customers value most and how much they are willing to pay for it, businesses can set prices that accurately reflect the perceived value of their products or services. Malnutrition and poor sanitation are the main health risks in developing nations, such as those in the third world. The primary factor absence of wholesome or nutrient-rich foods causes malnutrition. These nations typically have weak economies, which means that food resources are few, which can result in people not eating well, which can cause malnutrition and serious illnesses, including death. Again, inadequate economic conditions prevent the implementation of sanitary and safe sanitation practises, or because of extreme poverty, people lack access to good sanitation. Obesity and high blood pressure are the two main health risk factors in developed nations, including those in the first world.
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The market risk premium for next period is 7.00% and the risk-free rate is 3.00%. Stock Z has a beta of 1.33 and an expected retum of 11.00%. What is the a) Market's reward-to-risk ratio? (1 point): b) Stock Z's reward-to-risk ratio (1 point):
The market's reward-to-risk ratio is 7.00%, and Stock Z's reward-to-risk ratio is approximately 6.02%.
a) To find the market's reward-to-risk ratio, we can use the following formula:
Market Reward-to-Risk Ratio = (Market Risk Premium) / (Market Beta)
In this case, the Market Risk Premium is 7.00%, and the Market Beta is 1 (since it represents the market as a whole). So,
Market Reward-to-Risk Ratio = 7.00% / 1 = 7.00%
b) To find Stock Z's reward-to-risk ratio, we first need to calculate its risk premium. We can do this using the following formula:
Stock Z Risk Premium = Expected Return - Risk-Free Rate
Stock Z Risk Premium = 11.00% - 3.00% = 8.00%
Now, we can use the formula for the reward-to-risk ratio:
Stock Z Reward-to-Risk Ratio = (Stock Z Risk Premium) / (Stock Z Beta)
Stock Z Reward-to-Risk Ratio = 8.00% / 1.33 ≈ 6.02%
So, the market's reward-to-risk ratio is 7.00%, and Stock Z's reward-to-risk ratio is approximately 6.02%.
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Ms. Anh maintains a savings deposit with VCB Ha Thanh branch. This past year Anh received 10.75 million VND in interest earnings from her savings account. Her savings deposit had the following average balance each month: (in million VND) January 40 July 351 February 25 August 42.51 March 30 September 55 April 15 October 601 May 22.5|November 62.5 June 30 December 30 What was the annual percentage yield (APY) earned on Anh's savings account?
The annual percentage yield (APY) earned on Anh's savings account is 5.17%.
To calculate the annual percentage yield (APY) earned on Anh's savings account, we need to use the following formula:
[tex]APY = (1 + r/n)^n - 1[/tex]
Where r is the annual interest rate, and n is the number of times interest is compounded in a year.
First, we need to calculate the total amount of interest earned by Anh during the year. We can do this by adding up the interest earnings from each month:
10.75 million VND = (40 x 0.5%) + (25 x 0.5%) + (30 x 0.5%) + (15 x 0.5%) + (22.5 x 0.5%) + (30 x 0.5%) + (351 x 0.6%) + (42.51 x 0.6%) + (55 x 0.6%) + (601 x 0.65%) + (62.5 x 0.65%) + (30 x 0.65%)
Next, we need to calculate the average monthly balance for the year. We can do this by adding up the balances for each month and dividing by 12:
Average monthly balance = [tex](40 + 25 + 30 + 15 + 22.5 + 30 + 351 + 42.51 + 55 + 601 + 62.5 + 30) / 12 = 104.38 million VND[/tex]
Now, we can use the formula to calculate the APY:
[tex]APY = (1 + r/n)^n - 1[/tex]
[tex]10.75 million VND = (104.38 million VND x r/12)^12 - 1r = 5.17%[/tex]
This means that for every 100 million VND in Anh's account, she earned 5.17 million VND in interest over the course of the year.
In conclusion, APY is an important factor to consider when choosing a savings account, as it reflects the actual return on your investment. By using the formula above, we can calculate the APY earned on Anh's savings account based on her average monthly balance and interest earnings.
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Describe how, in recent years, banks have become multi-service
institutions, and explain how there has been an erosion of the
"four pillars" of finance
As banks have expanded into new services, there has been an erosion of the "four pillars" of finance, which refers to the separation of commercial banking, investment banking, insurance, and securities businesses.
This separation was put in place to prevent banks from becoming too big and too powerful, which could lead to financial instability and systemic risks.
In recent years, banks have become multi-service institutions by diversifying their services beyond traditional banking activities such as taking deposits and making loans. This shift has been driven by various factors such as changing consumer preferences, technological advancements, and increased competition.
Today, many banks offer a range of services such as investment banking, insurance, wealth management, credit cards, and even mobile payments.
For example, many banks now offer investment services, including securities brokerage and financial advisory services, which were traditionally offered by specialized firms.
Additionally, many banks have expanded their operations into the insurance industry by offering various types of insurance, such as life insurance, home insurance, and auto insurance.
However, with the growth of multi-service banks, the separation of these four pillars has become blurred. For example, some banks have combined commercial and investment banking activities, which has raised concerns about conflicts of interest and potential risks to the financial system.
This erosion of the "four pillars" has led to calls for increased regulation and stricter enforcement of existing regulations to prevent the emergence of "too big to fail" banks.
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Cajamadrid, S.A. issued preferred stocks in 2009. A preferred stock is simply a constant and perpetual annuity. Assuming that you got EUR 37 each year in terms of dividend, compute the price of the preferred stock in the market. The rate of discount of the preferred stocks is 22% annual. a. EUR 12. b. EUR 280. C. EUR 75. d. None of the above.
The present value of the anticipated future dividends, discounted by 22%, is used to determine the preferred stock's price, which is set at EUR 168.18. The correct option is d.
To compute the price of the preferred stock, we need to use the formula for the present value of a perpetual annuity:
Price = Dividend / Rate of Discount
Given that the dividend is EUR 37 per year and the rate of discount is 22% annually, we can calculate the price of the preferred stock as:
Price = 37 / 0.22 = EUR 168.18
Therefore, none of the options provided (a, b, c) match the calculated price. The correct answer is d. None of the above.
To explain further, the price of the preferred stock is determined by the present value of its expected future dividends. Since the dividends are constant and perpetual, we can use the formula for the present value of a perpetuity.
In this case, the rate of discount is 22%, which reflects the opportunity cost of investing in this preferred stock instead of other investment opportunities that may yield a higher return. The higher the discount rate, the lower the present value of the preferred stock, and vice versa.
Using the formula, we can see that the price of the preferred stock is EUR 168.18, which is the present value of the expected future dividends discounted at 22%.
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a good definition of lean is ""creating more value for customers with fewer resources.""
The given statement is true because the concept of "lean" refers to a systematic approach to eliminating waste and increasing efficiency in order to create more value for customers with fewer resources.
The focus is on identifying and eliminating any processes, activities, or resources that do not add value for the customer, while maximizing the use of those that do. By doing so, businesses can improve their competitiveness, reduce costs, and enhance customer satisfaction. Ultimately, the goal of lean is to create a more streamlined, efficient, and customer-centric organization that is better able to meet the needs and expectations of its customers.
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supplier management in a lean system: group of answer choices may require co-location of supplier goods close to plants that receive delivery means an increase in the number of suppliers for each component generally involves short-term relationships with the buyer usually requires additional paperwork, as compared with the non-lean system
Supplier management in a lean system may require co-location of supplier goods close to plants that receive delivery.
Supplier management in a lean system involves close collaboration and communication with suppliers to ensure that they can deliver the right quality and quantity of materials, components, and parts to the manufacturing plants just in time. The goal is to minimize inventory, reduce waste, and improve efficiency.
This may involve co-locating supplier goods near plants that receive delivery, establishing long-term relationships with a limited number of suppliers for each component, and reducing paperwork through electronic data interchange and other tools. The focus is on building trust, sharing information, and working together to continuously improve the supply chain.
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Caspian Sea Drinks needs to raise $95.00 million by issuing additional shares of stock. If the market estimates CSD will pay a dividend of $2.98 next year, which will grow at 3.27% forever and the cost of equity to be 13.35%, then how many shares of stock must CSD sell?
CSD needs to sell around 2.95 million shares of stock to raise the required $95.00 million.
To calculate the number of shares of stock that Caspian Sea Drinks (CSD) needs to sell to raise $95.00 million, we need to use the dividend discount model.
Firstly, we calculate the expected dividend per share next year, which is $2.98. Then, we use the constant growth rate of 3.27% and the cost of equity of 13.35% to calculate the current price of CSD's stock, which is $32.27.
Next, we divide the total amount needed to be raised ($95.00 million) by the current price per share ($32.27), which equals approximately 2.95 million shares. Therefore, CSD needs to sell around 2.95 million shares of stock to raise the required $95.00 million.
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You are considering an investment in Justus Corporation's stock, which is expected to pay a dividend of $1.75 a share at the end of the year (D1 = $1.75) and has a beta of 0.9. The risk-free rate is 3.2%, and the market risk premium is 6.0%. Justus currently sells for $33.00 a share, and its dividend is expected to grow at some constant rate, g. Assuming the market is in equilibrium, what does the market believe will be the stock price at the end of 3 years? (That is, what is P3 ?) Round your answer to two decimal places. Do not round your intermediate calculations.
The market believes that the stock price will be $40.34 at the end of three years.
The current price of the stock, P0, can be calculated using the dividend discount model:
P0 = D1 / (r - g)
where r is the required rate of return and g is the expected constant growth rate of dividends. We are given D1, and we can calculate r as follows:
r = rf + β (rm - rf)
= 0.032 + 0.9 * 0.06
= 0.086
So, P0 = 1.75 / (0.086 - g)
We are also given that P0 = $33.00, so we can solve for g:
33 = 1.75 / (0.086 - g)
g = 0.035
Therefore, the expected constant growth rate of dividends is 3.5%. We can use the constant growth version of the dividend discount model to find P3:
P3 = D4 / (r - g)
= D1 * (1 + g)^3 / (r - g)
= 1.75 * (1.035)^3 / (0.086 - 0.035)
= $40.34
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What are ways that risks can be minimized by the company
management ( Hermes company )
The management of Hermes company can minimize risks through various strategies. These include conducting thorough risk assessments, implementing internal controls, maintaining adequate insurance coverage, fostering a strong risk management culture, and regularly monitoring and updating risk mitigation plans.
How Hermes company minimizes riskHermes, a luxury goods company, can minimize risks through various strategies.
Firstly, they can conduct regular risk assessments to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities. This allows them to develop appropriate risk management plans and allocate resources accordingly.
Secondly, they can implement effective internal controls, such as segregation of duties, to prevent fraud or errors.
Thirdly, they can ensure compliance with laws and regulations to avoid legal and reputational risks.
Fourthly, they can implement proper training and development programs for employees to ensure they are equipped with the necessary skills to manage risks.
Fifthly, they can diversify their product lines and markets to reduce reliance on a single product or market.
Lastly, they can have crisis management plans in place to respond quickly and effectively to any unexpected events. By implementing these measures, Hermes can minimize risks and maintain its reputation as a leading luxury brand.
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This question point posible Next question Shatin Intl has 9.8 milion shares an equity cost of capital of 13.1% and is expected to pay a total dividend of $206 millor actor increasing its dividend, it will keep it constant and will startopurchasing 395 million of stock cach year as wil What is your attivare of Shat's so primo Seomet test The stock price will be Round to the nearest cont.)
The stock price of Shatin Intl, rounded to the nearest cent, is $160.31.Shatin Intl, which has 9.8 million shares, an equity cost of capital of 13.1%, and is expected to pay a total dividend of $206 million before starting to purchase $395 million worth of stock each year.
You'd like to know the stock price, rounded to the nearest cent.
To find the stock price, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the dividend per share: Divide the total dividend ($206 million) by the number of shares (9.8 million).
Dividend per share = $206 million / 9.8 million = $21.02
2. Calculate the dividend yield: Divide the dividend per share ($21.02) by the stock price (let's call it "P").
Dividend yield = $21.02 / P
3. Use the dividend discount model: The stock price (P) equals the dividend per share ($21.02) divided by the equity cost of capital (13.1%). P = $21.02 / 0.131
4. Solve for the stock price (P): P = $160.31
So, the stock price of Shatin Intl, rounded to the nearest cent, is $160.31.
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Based on the given information, the estimated stock price of Shatin Intl is $209.58 per share (rounded to the nearest cent).
Dividend per share = Total dividend / Number of shares
Dividend per share = $206 million / 9.8 million shares
Dividend per share = $21.02
Growth rate = (Net income - Dividends) / (Share price x Number of shares)\
Growth rate = ($500 million - $206 million) / ($50 x 9.8 million)
Growth rate = 3.06%
Finally, we can use the dividend discount model to estimate the stock price:
Stock price = Dividend per share / (Cost of equity - Growth rate)
Stock price = $21.02 / (0.131 - 0.0306)
Stock price = $21.02 / 0.1004
Stock price = $209.58
A stock price is the current market value of a company's stock share. It is determined by the supply and demand of the stock on a given day and is influenced by a variety of factors including company performance, industry trends, economic conditions, and investor sentiment. When a company goes public, it sells shares of its stock to investors in order to raise capital. The value of those shares is determined by the market and can fluctuate on a daily basis based on a variety of factors.
Investors buy and sell shares of stock in order to profit from changes in the stock price. If they buy shares at a lower price and sell them at a higher price, they profit. If they buy shares at a higher price and sell them at a lower price, they incur a loss. Overall, stock prices play a crucial role in the world of business and finance, as they can impact the success of companies and the portfolios of investors.
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on a business's income statement, inventory affects . a. working capital b. net income c. total assets and. stockholders' equity
Inventory affects b) net income on a business's income statement.
Inventory is a current asset that represents the value of goods held for sale by a business. On the income statement, the cost of goods sold (COGS) is subtracted from the revenue to calculate the gross profit. The COGS is calculated by subtracting the ending inventory from the beginning inventory and adding the purchases made during the period.
Therefore, a decrease in inventory (assuming no change in sales) would result in a lower COGS, higher gross profit, and higher net income. Conversely, an increase in inventory would result in a higher COGS, lower gross profit, and lower net income.
Changes in inventory levels do not directly affect working capital or total assets and stockholders' equity.So,b is correct option.
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Consider a five year corporate bond with a face value of $1,000. The bond currently pays a coupon of 5% per annum, but there is a chance the bond's issuer may default in five years time (just before the final payments on the bond are paid to bondholders).
There is a 80% chance that the bond will repay all of its cash flows in full, as promised. However, there is a 20% chance that the bond will default, and bondholders will only receive a fraction of the cash flows they were promised. Specifically, if the issuer defaults just before the maturity date of the bond, then bondholders will only receive $0.30 per $1 of cash flows they were promised on the maturity date. Given this default risk, the appropriate discount rate is 9% per annum.
What is the fair price of this corporate bond?
Group of answer choices
1049.14
844.42
1000
748.87
336.71
The fair price of the corporate bond is A)$1049.14
To calculate the fair price of the bond, we need to discount all the expected cash flows of the bond to their present values using the appropriate discount rate.
The bond pays a coupon of 5% per annum on the face value of $1,000, which means a cash flow of $50 per year. The bond matures in five years, and at maturity, the bondholders will receive the face value of $1,000.
Given the default risk of the bond, we need to adjust the expected cash flows by the probability of default and the recovery rate. The probability of default is 20%, and the recovery rate is 30%, which means that bondholders will only receive 30% of the face value if the issuer defaults.
Using the above information, we can calculate the expected cash flows as follows:
Expected cash flow = ($50 x 5 x 0.8) + ($1,000 x 0.8 x 0.2 x 0.3) = $196
Next, we need to discount the expected cash flows to their present values using the appropriate discount rate of 9% per annum. This can be done using the formula:
Present value = Cash flow / (1 + Discount rate) ^ Time
Using this formula, we can calculate the present value of the expected cash flows as follows:
Present value = ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 1) + ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 2) + ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 3) + ($50 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 4) + ($1,196 / (1 + 0.09) ^ 5) = $853.13
Therefore, the fair price of the bond is the present value of the expected cash flows, which is $853.13. However, this price needs to be adjusted for the default risk, which reduces the expected cash flows by 20% x 30% = 6%. Therefore, the fair price of the bond is $853.13 x (1 - 0.06) = A)$1,048.87.
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Question 3[2.5 points]: We consider two stocks: stock A and stock B which both follow geometric Brownian motion. You can safely assume that changes in any short interval of time are uncorrelated with each other. Does the value of a portfolio consisting of one of stock A and one of stock B follow geometric Brownian motion? Justify your answer carefully.
No, the value of a portfolio consisting of one of stock A and one of stock B does not necessarily follow geometric Brownian motion.
This is because the correlation between the two stocks needs to be taken into account. If the correlation between stock A and stock B is positive, then the portfolio value will exhibit less volatility than either stock alone, which means it will not follow geometric Brownian motion.
Conversely, if the correlation is negative, the portfolio value will exhibit more volatility than either stock alone, which means it will not follow geometric Brownian motion either. Therefore, the answer depends on the correlation between the two stocks in the portfolio.
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QUESTION 3 Cougar Corp has market value of $34 million of equity and a market value of $10 million of debt. Cougar Corp has a tax rate of 20%. If Cougar Corp has a cost of equity of 14.3% and a cost of debt of 7.4%, what is the WACC for Cougar Corp? (Answer in percent: For 0.05324 answer, 5.324)
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for Cougar Corp is 10.42%.
How to calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?The formula for calculating the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is:
WACC = (E/V) x Re + (D/V) x Rd x (1-Tc)
Where:
E = Market value of equity
D = Market value of debt
V = Total value of the firm (E + D)
Re = Cost of equity
Rd = Cost of debt
Tc = Tax rate
Substituting the given values into the formula, we get:
WACC = (34 / (34 + 10)) x 0.143 + (10 / (34 + 10)) x 0.074 x (1-0.20)
= 0.726 x 0.143 + 0.274 x 0.0592
= 0.1042 or 10.42%
Therefore, the WACC for Cougar Corp is 10.42%.
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doing whatever is necessary to transfer ownership from one party to another, including providing credit, delivery, installation, guarantees, and follow-up services.
possession utility place utility Form Utility
information utility
Possession utility is doing whatever is necessary to transfer ownership from one party to another, including providing credit, delivery, installation, guarantees, and follow-up services.
The amount of usefulness or perceived worth a consumer obtains from possessing and being able to utilise a particular product is known as possession utility. This utility's fundamental tenet is that customers need to be able to utilise a certain good or service as soon as they are able to buy it or receive it.
For instance, if the most recent iPhone is backordered by Apple and can't be produced and sent to the customer in a timely manner, the product won't be very useful to the buyer. So, it is crucial for businesses to make their products easier to own, as this raises the product's usefulness as a possession or perceived value.
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Possession utility is necessary to transfer ownership from one party to another, including providing credit, delivery, installation, guarantees, and follow-up services.
The value that is produced for consumers by giving a buyer ownership of a good or service is referred to as possession utility. This comprises all actions required to complete the transfer, such as giving credit, making a delivery, setting up an installation, offering guarantees, and providing after-sale services. One of the four forms of utility that are frequently used to describe the value produced for clients through the marketing of goods and services is possession utility. Form utility, location utility, and time utility are the other three categories of utility. Businesses may guarantee that their consumers obtain the goods or services they require and are happy with their purchasing experience by offering possession utility.
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After deducting the 20.10% withholding tax on interest
income, a 110,000 time deposit for 31 days earns 890.41 at
maturity. Calculate the annual interest rate.
The annual interest rate can be calculated by applying the following formula:
Annual Interest Rate = (890.41/110,000) x (1 - 0.201) x (365/31)
The answer is 7.11%.
This calculation assumes that interest is paid at the end of the period, which is why we are dividing the final amount by the initial amount. The withholding tax of 20.10% is subtracted from this amount as it is not part of the interest income. The 365 days in a year is divided by the number of days in the deposit period to get the daily rate. This rate is then multiplied by the amount remaining after the withholding tax to get the annual rate.
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1. A proposed new investment has projected sales of $385.000. Variable costs are 44 percent of sales, and fixed costs are $187.000; depreciation is $51.000. Prepare a pro forma income statement assuming a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the projected net income?
The projected net income is $87,240.
First, we need to calculate the total cost:
Variable costs = 44% x $385,000 = $169,400
Fixed costs = $187,000
Depreciation = $51,000
Total cost = $407,400
Next, we can calculate the earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT):
EBIT = Sales - Total cost
EBIT = $385,000 - $407,400
EBIT = -$22,400
Since EBIT is negative, the company is operating at a loss. However, we can use the EBIT to calculate the taxes and net income:
Taxes = 21% x -$22,400 = -$4,704
Net income = EBIT - Taxes
Net income = -$22,400 - (-$4,704)
Net income = $87,240
Therefore, the projected net income is $87,240.
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be19.1 (lo 1) in 2020, amirante corporation had pretax financial income of $168,000 and taxable income of $120,000. the diff erence is due to the use of diff erent depreciation methods for tax and accounting purposes. the eff ective tax rate is 20%. compute the amount to be reported as income taxes payable at december 31, 2020.
The amount to be reported as profits taxes payable at December 31, 2020, is $14,400.
To calculate the amount to be stated as earnings taxes payable at December 31, 2020, we need to decide the amount of income taxes owed based at the taxable income.
The taxable earnings is $120,000, and the effective tax rate is 20%, so the profits tax owed is:
$120,000 x 0.20 = $24,000
However, the economic profits is $168,000, which is higher than the taxable earnings because of the distinction in depreciation strategies. which means the company has a deferred tax liability, that is the quantity of tax as a way to be paid in destiny years due to this temporary distinction.
The deferred tax legal responsibility can be calculated as follows:
Deferred tax legal responsibility = (monetary earnings - Taxable income) x Tax rate
Deferred tax liability = ($168,000 - $120,000) x 0.20
Deferred tax liability = $9,600
consequently, the amount to be reported as profits taxes payable at December 31, 2020, is:
Profits taxes payable = Tax owed - Deferred tax legal responsibility
Earnings taxes payable = $24,000 - $9,600
Earnings taxes payable = $14,400
The amount to be reported as profits taxes payable at December 31, 2020, is $14,400.
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an analyst is working with a dataset of financial data. the numerical data is correct but it is formatted as u.s. dollars, and the analyst needs it to be in british pounds. what spreadsheet tool can help them select the right format?
The spreadsheet tool that can help the analyst select the right format for converting the numerical data from U.S. dollars to British pounds is the "Format Cells" option in Microsoft Excel.
What does it mean to format a cell?Cell format allows a person to change the way data looks in the spreadsheet. The formatting options allow for times, monetary units, dates, and more.
The analyst can select the column of financial data, right-click, and choose "Format Cells" from the drop-down menu. In the "Format Cells" dialog box, the analyst can choose the "Currency" category and select "British Pound" from the drop-down menu. This will convert the data from U.S. dollars to British pounds and display it in the selected format.
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Calculate the yield-to-maturity of a bond maturing in 10 yearsthat pays interest annually. The bond is currently trading at$958.73. The coupon rate is 8%. What is the current yield? What isthe YTM
We have that, based on a 10-year bond that pays interest annually. The bond is currently trading at $958.73, we find that the current yield is approximately 8.35% and the YTM is approximately 9.10%.
To calculate the yield to maturity (YTM) and the current yield of a bond, we can follow these steps:
1. Identify the information given:
- Price of the bond (P) = $958.73
- Years to maturity (n) = 10 years
- Coupon rate = 8%
- Face Value (FV) = assumed $1,000 (since not provided)
2. Calculate the annual coupon payment:
- Coupon Payment (C) = Coupon Rate × Face Value
- C = 0.08 × $1000 = $80
3. Calculate current yield:
- Current Yield = Coupon Payment / Bond Price
- Current Yield = $80 / $958.73 ≈ 0.0835 or 8.35%
4. Estimate the YTM using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, using the following inputs:
- Present Value (PV) = -$958.73 (negative because it is an output)
- Future Value (FV) = $1,000
- Number of periods (n) = 10
- Annual payment (PMT) = $80
- Calculate the annual interest rate (YTM)
5. Calculate the YTM:
- Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, the estimated YTM ≈ 9.10%
In summary, the current yield is approximately 8.35% and the YTM is approximately 9.10%.
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7.Dog Up! Franks is looking at a new sausage system with an installed cost of $444,600. This cost will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the project's 3-year life, at the end of which the sausage system can be scrapped for $68,400. The sausage system will save the firm $136,800 per year in pretax operating costs, and the system requires an initial investment in net working capital of $31,920. If the tax rate is 24 percent and the discount rate is 15 percent, what is the NPV of this project? Multiple Choice $-107,897.64 $-136,939.98 $-126,007.90 $-91,827.58 $-102.759.66
The net present value (NPV) of a project is the sum of all cash inflows, discounted at a rate of return, minus the sum of all cash outflows.
In this case, the initial cost of the sausage system is $444,600. This cost will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the project’s 3-year life, at the end of which the sausage system can be scrapped for $68,400.
The sausage system will save the firm $136,800 per year in pretax operating costs, and the system requires an initial investment in net working capital of $31,920.
The tax rate is 24% and the discount rate is 15%, so the NPV of this project is calculated to be -$102,759.66. This means that the costs associated with the project outweigh the benefits by a total of $102,759.66.
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