The given statement, "Healthy people 2020 identified healthcare-associated infections as an area in which to focus improvement efforts and indicated that implementing existing prevention practices can lead to up to a 70% reduction in certain healthcare-associated infections," is true (T) because one of the program's focus is on healthcare-associated infections.
Healthy People 2020 is a national public health initiative in the United States that sets goals and objectives for improving the health of Americans over a 10-year period. One of the focus areas identified in Healthy People 2020 is healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), which are infections that occur while receiving medical treatment in a healthcare facility. The initiative states that implementing existing prevention practices, such as hand hygiene and infection control protocols, can lead to a significant reduction in certain HAIs, with reductions of up to 70% being possible. This emphasis on the implementation of existing prevention practices is aimed at reducing the incidence of HAIs and improving patient outcomes.
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when assessing a newborn following a breech delivery, what physical findings should the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider as positive indications of congenital hip dysplasia (chd)? select all that apply
What physical signs should the nurse mention to the main healthcare practitioner as confirmatory evidence of congenital hip problems when examining an infant after a breech delivery?
A newborn baby is what?
1. newborn, a child who is less than four weeks old. neonate, newborn infant, or baby "The baby started to wail again," "she carried the baby in the arms," "this sounds simple, but once you have your personal baby everything is so different," etc. A very small girl (birth to one year) who has yet to learned to walk or talk.
What distinguishes a newborn from a child?
newborn definition, a person who has just given birth. young, immature - in the early stages of life or growth (of living things, especially people) or
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the patient's lab reports show diminished estrogen and progesterone levels. which intervention would be best to relieve the patient's symptoms
Low oestrogen is frequently treated with hormone replacement therapy (HT), particularly during menopause and postmenopause.
When using HT, you can raise your levels by taking synthetic progesterone and/or oestrogen. Menstrual issues have been connected to low progesterone levels. Menopause and early menopause are related to low oestrogen levels. Menopause and early menopause are related to low progesterone levels. The body needs oestrogen to prepare for pregnancy.
The body can get the nutrients it needs for progesterone metabolism by eating a varied diet. This includes foods like whole grains, nuts, and cruciferous vegetables. Hormone balance can also be maintained by maintaining a healthy weight, following a regular sleep schedule, and controlling stress. To maintain the balance of these hormones, vitamin D regulates the synthesis and activity of oestrogen and progesterone. Additionally, this vitamin aids in controlling blood sugar and insulin levels..
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which strategies would the nurse teach a client who says, 'l have been having trouble sleeping and feel wide awake as soon as i get into bed'? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Underestimating how much sleep you got the night before is a phenomenon known as sleep state misperception. Despite the fact that you may have felt that you were awake the entire night, you actually only slept hours. It is also known as subjective insomnia or paradoxical insomnia.
How can insomnia be evaluated?Insomnia cannot be diagnosed using a specific test. Your sleep problems and symptoms will be discussed with a healthcare professional during a physical examination and interview. Examining the sleep history with such a doctor is crucial for determining the cause of your insomnia.
What treatment options does the doctor offer for insomnia?In some circumstances, a medication to aid in sleep apnea may be prescribed by your doctor. You may get better sleep if you take sleeping tablets on prescription. Eszopiclone (marketed under the name Lunesta), zolpidem (marketed under the name Ambien), and zaleplon are examples of common ones (brand name: Sonata). These drugs' adverse effects are possible.
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ntify the diseases that are at an increased risk of transmission due to needle-sharing activities of intravenous drug users.multiple select question.hepatitisaidsasthmaeczema
Hepatitis B and C, and HIV (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) are the diseases that are at an increased risk of transmission due to needle-sharing activities of intravenous drug users.
Chronic liver illness, liver cancer, and even death can result from the viral diseases hepatitis B and C, which predominantly affect the liver.
HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, affects the immune system and hinders the body's ability to fight against infections and some malignancies.
The sharing of needles by intravenous drug users does not spread asthma or eczema.
Sharing needles among intravenous drug users can result in the transfer of other infectious illnesses, in addition to Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV.
Sharing needles can raise your chance of developing bacterial infections including septicemia and endocarditis, which is an inflammation of the heart's inner lining (blood poisoning).
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the mediterranean diet pyramid summarizes dietary patterns from parts of the mediterranean region where people enjoy long lives with low rates of chronic diseases. which of the following are recommendations of the mediterranean diet pyramid? click to select all that apply. Herbs and spices are part of every meal.
Fish and seafood are part of every meal.
Moderate portions of poultry and eggs may be included a few times per week.
Meals are enjoyed with others.
Sweets are enjoyed after every meal.
The Mediterranean diet pyramid suggests the following foods:
Spices and Herbs are part of every meal.Moderate portions of poultry and eggs may be included a few times per week.Meals are enjoyed with others.The Mediterranean Diet Pyramid was created in 1993 by the Oldways Preservation Trust, and Harvard School of Public Health, as well as the World Health Organization as a dietary guide. It describes the Mediterranean Diet eating pattern, recommending the types and frequency of meals that should be consumed on a daily basis. The diet is intimately linked to olive oil farming locations in the Mediterranean region.
The pyramid, which is based on current nutrition research and represents a healthy Mediterranean diet, has been based on the dietary patterns of Crete, Greece, and southern Italy circa 1960, when chronic disease rates were among the lowest in the world and adult life expectancy were some of the highest, despite limited medical services. Ancel Keys, a scientist, was instrumental in establishing these discoveries. The pyramid is split into daily, weekly, & monthly frequency, although no serving quantities are recommended.
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which action of the nurse would be incorrect in the context of critical thinking skills for making clinical decisions in nursing practice? observe changes in clients.
When creating and carrying out a client care plan, the nurse should rely on his or her expertise and experience.
Critical thinking abilities are the foundation of clinical decision-making in nursing practise. The nurse creates and executes care plans for client care using knowledge, experience, and critical thinking. To assist identify issues early on, the nurse would watch for changes in her patients. If these new issues are found early on, rapid treatment may be possible. It may not always be necessary to have knowledge and experience to carry out the designated care components according to the higher authority's instructions. Critical thinking abilities are not required while informing the client's primary healthcare practitioner about their illness.
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which example best illustrates a sentence with a hidden negative? please be patient; the service outage will be resolved as soon as possible. the issue will be resolved within a week. our new brand of granola is healthier. if you have questions about the registration process, please call the technical helpline.
E. We hope the products you ordered have been delivered to you. When communicating in business, you gain from avoiding phrases like "deny" and "error."
Which of the following instances would it NOT be appropriate to withhold bad information? when the knowledge is required for the reader to make a choice. Employee timesheets and timecards, production schedules, purchase requisitions, receiving reports, sales orders, and authorizations for scrap are a few examples of internal documentation. Midway through the message, include unfavourable information. Give an explanation to support any bad facts. Add a benefit for the audience by presenting unfavourable facts.
The complete question is:
Which of the following examples contains a hidden negative?
A. We delivered the products you had ordered as per the schedule.
B. The products you had ordered will reach you ahead of time as you requested.
C. The courier service has confirmed that the delivery of the products was timely.
D. The e-mail contains the details of the delivery time and products delivered to you.
E. We hope the products you ordered have been delivered to you.
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How many low dose 81 mg aspirin can be made from 1.21 kg of aspirin? (1 kg=1000 g; 1 g- 1000 mg)
The number of low dose 81 mg aspirin that can be made from 1.21 kg of aspirin is 14,938.27.
How to calculate dose?A dose is a quantity or measured portion of a medicine substance administered or experienced at any one time.
According to this question, we are to find the number of 81mg aspirin that can be made from 1.21kg or aspirin.
First, we make the units equal as follows:
1.21kg = 1210grams
Since 1g = 1000 mg, 1210g = 1,210,000mg
This means that 1,210,000mg ÷ 81mg = 14,938.27 low doses can be made.
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a middle-aged man was playing tennis when he suddenly felt a pain in his chest. he stopped playing and the pain went away after a short while. ruling out indigestion and based on the symptoms, what is most likely to have caused the pain?
After a short period, he stopped, and the discomfort subsided. He believed the discomfort to be indigestion, even though Angina pectoris is more likely to be to blame.
What causes pain in the chest?Chest discomfort can take many forms, from a sudden stab to a gradual ache. Chest pain can feel crushing or searing at times. The discomfort may proceed up the neck, into the jaw, and then spread to the back or down one or both arms in certain situations. Chest pain can be caused by a variety of conditions. The most dangerous causes involve the heart or lungs. Because chest pain can signify a major problem, it's critical to get medical attention right once. Depending on what is causing the condition, chest pain can generate a variety of symptoms. Often, the problem has nothing to do with the heart - though there's no way to determine without consulting a doctor.
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a sensible idea for preventing constipation is to a. use a laxative when needed. b. decrease fluid intake. c. include more white bread, white rice, and ice cream in the diet. d. include more whole grain breads, beans, and apples in the diet.
Increasing the consumption of the whole grains bread, beans, & apples is a good strategy for reducing constipation.
Constipation: What Is It?The much more common causes of constipation are when garbage or stool goes through to the digestive tract too slowly or cannot be efficiently evacuated from the bladder, which can result in the stool being hard and dry. There are various possible causes of chronic constipation.
Which meals make you constipation?Constipation may result from consuming an excessive amount of high-fat meats, milk products, eggs, confectionery, or processed meals. lacking in liquids. If you don't drink enough liquids, your fiber won't function as well, which might result in tougher stools that will be more challenging to pass. Get a checkup if constipation persists for several weeks or longer to make sure.
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which question would the nurse ask when assessing the client's needs related to a recent diagnosis of cancerous lesions?
The nurse's question about the needs of a client with a diagnosis of cancerous lesions is ''do you need post-chemotherapy nausea medication?"
What is cancer?Cancer is a condition characterized by the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells and spreads to the surrounding area. This abnormal cell growth can occur in any part of the body.
Cancer can be caused by changes (mutations) in genes in cells. However, the process is not always perfect.
Some of the treatments that can be done if someone is diagnosed with cancerous or cancerous lesions are:
ChemotherapyRadiotherapyTarget therapy with tyrosine kinase inhibitionYour question is not complete, perhaps what your question means is :
Which question would the nurse ask when assessing the client's needs related to a recent diagnosis of cancerous lesions?
''Do you need post-chemotherapy nausea medication?"'' Are you able to eat well?"Learn more about the most common type of cancer here :
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a pateint who is taking an oral contraceptive calls the triage nurse with concrns about side effects of the medication. which adverse effect of this medication should alert the nurse to inform the patient to immediately stop the contraceptive and contact the health care provider
A client taking an oral contraceptive concerns nurse about side effects of medication. Adverse effect of medication that should alert nurse to inform client immediately stop contraceptive and contact health care provider include: visual disturbances and persistent headaches
What are oral contraceptives?Oral contraceptives (oral contraceptives) are hormone-containing drugs taken by mouth to prevent pregnancy. It prevents pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation and preventing sperm from entering through the cervix. Some benefits of the pill are: do not interfere with sex. Bleeding is usually more regular, lighter, and less painful. It reduces the risk of ovarian, uterine and colon cancer.
What are most common oral contraceptives?Monophasic pills are the most common form of oral contraceptives. They are "monophasic", meaning they deliver a constant amount of hormone throughout the pack.
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A client who is taking an oral contraceptive calls the nurse with concerns about side effects of the medication. Which adverse effect of this medication should alert the nurse to inform the client to immediately stop the contraceptive and contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)
1 . Nausea
2 . Weight loss
3. Visual disturbances
4. Persistent headaches
5. Decreased blood pressure
A 70-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation takes digoxin and verapamil to control her health problem. Verapamil achieves a therapeutic effect by:
A. inhibiting the movement of calcium ions across the cardiac muscle cell membrane.
B. blocking adrenergic receptors and producing antisympathetic effects.
C. decreasing sodium and potassium conduction.
D. weakening diastolic depolarization and the action potential duration.
Verapamil can achieve a therapeutic effect by:
A. It inhibits the movement of calcium ions across the cardiac muscle cell membrane.
What is verapamil?Verapamil is used to treat hypertension, angina, or certain heart rhythm disorders, such as atrial fibrillation or supraventricular arrhythmias.
Verapamil is a potassium antagonist drug (calcium channel blocker) that works by blocking the flow of calcium into the heart cells and blood vessels, so that the blood vessels relax and blood flow becomes smoother.
This way of working will help lower blood pressure, increase the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart, and reduce the heart's workload.
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the nurse administers carbidopa-levodopa to a client with parkinson's disease. which activity describes the mechanism of action of this medication?
Carbidopa has no therapeutic effect on its own.
Carbidopa has little therapeutic impact on its own; instead, it is utilised to boost the benefits of levodopa. When carbidopa is combined with levodopa, more levodopa is available for usage in the brain to alleviate symptoms.
Carbidopa/levodopa is a combination of the two drugs carbidopa and levodopa. It is also known as levocarb and co-careldopa. It is primarily used to control the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, but it does not delay or prevent the illness from progressing. It is administered orally. The combination of carbidopa and levodopa is used to treat Parkinson's disease, often known as shaking palsy or paralysis agitans. Parkinson's disease is a central nervous system condition (brain and spinal cord).
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which action should the nurse take when a child with type 1 diabetes complains of feeling light-headed?
The action that must be taken by the nurse is to check sugar intake because of the possibility of experiencing a drastic decrease in blood sugar levels.
What is diabetes?Diabetes occurs when the sufferer's body is no longer able to take sugar (glucose) into cells and use it as energy. This condition ultimately results in a buildup of extra sugar in the body's bloodstream.
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease, meaning the body's immune system attacks itself. In this condition, the body will not produce insulin at all. Someone who has type 1 diabetes and experiences dizziness is likely because their sugar levels have dropped dramatically.
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the physcian prescribed tamoxifen at discharge as a chemoprevention drug. the patient asks about the side effects of tamoxifen. what is included in the nurse's response
The nurse's response about the side effects of tamoxifen is given as follows,
Tamoxifen could have drawbacks. Inform your doctor right once if any of these symptoms are severe or persistent:
more severe bone or tumour discomfort, pain or redness close to the tumour location, hot flash, nausea, extreme exhaustion, dizziness,depression, headache,Loss of weight and hair, constipation and stomach ache. Some negative effects may be quite detrimental. If you experience any of the symptoms listed below or those mentioned in the IMPORTANT WARNING section, visit doctor straight away: eyesight problems,diminished appetite, eyes, or skin with yellowish tinge. Significant bruising or bleeding, swelling of the face, lips, tongue, neck, hands, arms, feet, ankles, or lower legs, and fever are all side effects.
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a burn patient is brought to the emergency department. the nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what?
The nurse is aware that the first systemic event that occurs with a significant burn damage is hemodynamic. Option C is correct.
The first systemic event following a large burn injury is hemodynamic instability, which is caused by capillary damage and a subsequent movement of fluid, salt, and protein from the intravascular area into the interstitial spaces. The other phenomena described occur afterwards. Inflammation, hypermetabolism, muscle atrophy, and insulin resistance are all characteristics of the pathophysiological reaction to severe burns, with metabolic alterations known to last for years after damage.
The first concern in treating a burn sufferer is keeping the airway (breathing tubes) open. Smoke inhalation injury is fairly prevalent, especially if the patient was burnt in a confined location, like a room or building. Even individuals who have been burnt in the open may suffer from smoke inhalation.
A burn patient is brought to the Emergency department. The nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what?
A Metabolic acidosis
B Hypovolemia
C Hemodynamic instability
D Hypercalcemia
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patients with tattooed eyeliner or other ferrous pigment eye region cosmetics should be advised of what possible complication during the mr exam?
Answer:
Temporary skin irritation or swelling of the eyes or surrounding tissues
Explanation:
a client received 20 units of nph insulin subcutaneously at 8:00 a.m. the nurse would check the client for a potential hypoglycemic reaction at which time?
At 8:00 a.m., a customer received 20 units of nph insulin subcutaneously. At 5:00 pm, when it peaks 4–12 hours later, the nurse would evaluate the client for a potential hypoglycemic reaction.
When does 10 units of NPH insulin reach its peak?Although this varies from person to person, NPH insulin normally peaks at roughly 6 hours and then gradually wears off after 12 hours. If NPH insulin is not "rolled," it will be in suspension form.
When does NPH insulin start working subcutaneously to start acting after administration?NPH insulin normally begins to work between 2 and 4 hours after injection, peaks in activity between 4 and 10 hours, and remains active for 10 to 16 hours. NPH, however, was linked to a higher incidence of hypoglycemia.
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the father of a third grade girl has brought his daughter to a walk-in clinic because he believes the girl has pink eye, which has been going around the students in her class. the nurse at the clinic concurs with the father's suspicion of conjunctivitis. which follow-up explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
Since bacteria or a virus has grown on the surfaces of her eyes, it's critical to practice good hand hygiene until it clears up.
How do you get rid of conjunctivitis fast?Lifestyle choices and DIY cures You should squeeze your eyes. Apply a clean, lint-free cloth gently to your closed eyelids after soaking it in water and wringing it out to create a compress. Attempt eye drops. Artificial tears, eye drops available over-the-counter, may help with symptoms. Put down your contact lenses.
How do you treat eye conjunctivitis?You can use cold compresses and artificial tears, which are available over-the-counter without the need for a prescription, to help reduce some of the inflammation and dryness brought on by conjunctivitis. Until then, you should refrain from wearing contact lenses.
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which of the following typically precedes a user's physical dependence on a drug?multiple choice question.tolerancephysiological toxicitybehavioral toxicitywithdrawal
Tolerance typically precedes a user's physical dependence on a drug.
When a person becomes more dependent on a substance over time to get the same results, this is referred to as tolerance. This occurs because the body becomes accustomed to the drug's presence and needs more of it to get the same effects.
A drug's detrimental effects on the body's organ systems, such as the liver, kidneys, or heart, are referred to as its physiological toxicity. The term "behavioral toxicity" describes how a substance impairs behavior, such as hostility, poor coordination, and judgment.
When a person quits using a substance or lowers their dosage after becoming physically reliant on it, they experience withdrawal symptoms.
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what are some special considerations that you have used for obtaining an accurate health history and physical assessment in this patient population ?
There are some broad inquiries that ought to be made at every step of the medical history process. The patient's present and historical medical histories, any medications they are now taking, and their family's medical history are a few of these. It's also critical to find out if the patient has any allergies.
What is health?The idea of health is a good one that emphasizes mental and physical talents. As a result, rather than a goal in itself, good health is just a resource which supports an individual's contribution to society. Your ability to live a full life with meaning and purpose is facilitated by leading a healthy lifestyle. Health is described by the World Health Organization as "a state of whole physical, mental, or social well-being and not merely the absence of illness or incapacity."
Why is health important?The healthy lifestyle can aid in the prevention of chronic diseases and debilitating conditions. Your self-esteem & self-image depend on how you feel about yourself and how well you take care of your physical and mental well-being. Living a healthy lifestyle means taking care of your body.
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a woman telephones the nurse after taking an ovulation suppressant for 3 months to state that she has forgotten to take her pill two mornings in a row. what would be the best advice to give her regarding this?
Absolute contraindications include abnormal Pap tests, cervical dysplasia, a history of pelvic malignancy, blood poisoning, and serious cervical lacerations.
When would the nurse advise the client to visit for intrauterine device placement in the menstrual cycle?IUD use increases the risk of difficulties during pregnancy, such as spontaneous abortion and infected abortion. In order to further ensure that the patient isn't just starting her period, many healthcare professionals choose to time Intrauterine device insertion to occur within the very first 5-7 days of menstrual cycle.
What is the nickname of the procedure used to avoid conception?Males undergo a vasectomy, while females undergo a hysterectomy or tubal ligation. the cutting off surgically of the sperm ducts to the urinary duct. Commonly known as tubal ligation, this procedure involves cutting or otherwise obstructing the oviducts to stop ova from reaching the uterus.
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a client with myasthenia gravis has been receiving neostigmine and asks about its action. which information would the nurse consider when formulating a response?
The nurse should say that the neostigmine will block the actions of the cholinesterase
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes weakness of skeletal muscles, exacerbated by periods of activity and ameliorated by periods of rest. These muscles are involved in functions related to breathing and movement of body parts such as arms and legs. In myasthenia gravis, the immune system produces antibodies that block or destroy many of the muscle's receptor sites for a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine. With fewer receptor sites available, fewer nerve signals are received by the muscle, leading to muscle weakness.
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a client has a fasting blood glucose of 268 mg/dl at 7:30 a.m. the sliding scale prescriptions are blood glucose 151 to 200 mg/dl, administer 3 units humalog insulin; 201 to 250, administer 6 units humalog insulin; 251 to 300 mg/dl, administer 9 units humalog insulin; over 300 mg/dl, contact the primary health care provider. therefore, at 7:30 a.m., how many units of humalog would be administered?
Blood glucose levels can rise when NPH insulin and glucocorticoids are used more frequently. During glucocorticoid therapy, diabetic patients may require an increase in their insulin or orally hypoglycemic drug dosage.
What kinds of substances are glucocorticoids?
Among the most popular kinds of glucocorticoids are: A dose of cortisone can reduce joint inflammation. Prednisone and dexamethasone are medications that treat a wide range of ailments, including allergies, asthma, arthritis, and visual issues. A lotion called triamcinolone is used to treat skin problems.
What are glucocorticoids' biological effects?
The adrenal gland produces and secretes the steroid hormones known as "glucocorticoids," which are generated from cholesterol. They reduce inflammation in all tissues and regulate the metabolism of the liver, muscle, fat, and bones. Additionally influencing vascular tone, mood, behaviour, and sleep–wakefulness cycles are glucocorticoids' effects on the brain.
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kinesiology focuses on a variety of human physical activities. what are the five categories listed in the book? list any subcategories that are listed in the book.
If the humanbody is used according to the rules of effective human motion, it gets better with use (within certain bounds). Kinesiology's role in physical education.
What components make up the human body?
The head, neck, and five limbs that are joined to the torso make up the human body. Its skeleton, which is made of cartilage and bone, gives the body its shape. Internal organs of the human body, including the heart, lungs, and brain, are contained in various internal body cavities and are enclosed by the skeletal system.
What components make up the human head?
The human head's components are as follows: The greatest part of the human body, known as the "trunk," contains the m
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the nurse provides dietary education for a client with a high triglyceride level. the information includes a list of foods that are high in saturated fat. the nurse determines that the teaching is understood when the client avoids which food item in planning a menu?
Option 3 is correct. A nurse is teaching a menu plan to a client with high triglyceride levels. The items the client avoids indicating lesson about foods high in saturated fat is Red Meat. Red meat is high in saturated fat and should be avoided.
Is saturated fat good or bad for you?The American Heart Association recommends limiting saturated fats in butter, cheese, red meat and other animal products, and tropical oils. It has been proven to increase cholesterol and increase the risk of heart disease.
What foods are high in saturated fat?Saturated fat is found in: Butter, ghee, tallow, lard, coconut oil, palm oil. cake. cookie. A fatty piece of meat. sausage. bacon. Cured meats such as salami, chorizo and pancetta. cheese.
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complete question:
A nurse is teaching menu planning to a client who has a high triglyceride level. Which item avoided by the client indicates that teaching about foods that are high in saturated fat is understood?
1. Fruits 2 Grains Correct 3 Red meat Incorrect 4 Vegetable oils
initial vaginal examination reveals that a client's cervix is dilated 4 cm and 100% effaced. two hours later the client experiences rectal pressure, followed by delivery 5 minutes later. which is the correct documentation of this delivery?
Spontaneous vaginal delivery (SVD) would be the appropriate paperwork for this delivery (SVD).
What exactly is a spontaneous vaginal delivery?Spontaneous vaginal birth, a vaginal delivery which occurs naturally and without the use of medications to speed up labor. Induced vaginal delivery: Medication or additional methods start the labor process and prepare the cervix. Additionally known as labor induction.
What promotes spontaneous labor?According to recent studies, a baby's body secretes a minimal quantity of a chemical which signals the mother's hormones to begin labor when the child is ready to leave the womb. Typically, labor won't begin until both you & your unborn baby are both ready.
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a client has a permanent sigmoid colostomy as a result of cancer of the rectum. the primary health care provider prescribes daily colostomy irrigations. which would the nurse | explain is the primary purpose of these irrigations?
The primary purpose of these irrigations is to establish a regular elimination schedule. Irrigations regulate the bowel to function at a specific time for the convenience of the client. Although irrigation will prevent straining, this is not the purpose of irrigation.
Which objective is the nurse seeking to fulfill by continuously flushing the bladder of a patient who had a suprapubic prostatectomy for prostate cancer?To help minimize the clot development and retention that are regularly linked to these occasionally hemorrhagic operations, continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) is frequently suggested after specific prostate surgeries.
Which type of pain description should the patient provide the nurse when discussing pain related to a possible duodenal peptic ulcer?The most typical sign of both gastric and duodenal ulcers is epigastric discomfort. It is characterized by a gnawing or burning feeling and typically develops after meals—with a stomach ulcer, right away and with a duodenal ulcer, two to three hours later.
What kind of solution is applied continuously to the bladder?Following prostatectomy, the bladder is frequently continuously irrigated with normal saline solution to avoid clot retention.
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a child with celiac disease has extensive mucosal damage, and as a result the digestion of disaccharides is impaired. which substance would the nurse teach the parents to temporarily eliminate from their child's diet?
Maintain a clean handshake. One of the greatest ways to eliminate germs, keep from getting sick, and stop the transmission of germs is to regularly wash your hands.
What information on lowering the chance of bacterial transmission through food should the nurse impart to the parents?Before preparing meals, clean your hands in heated, water and soap and thoroughly dry them. Dry your hands completely since bacteria are more prone to spread when they are wet. Use different cutting boards for raw foods that will be cooked, such meat, and those that will be served uncooked, like salads.
Which of the above meals is suitable for a youngster with celiac disease?Include a range of secure and naturally gluten-free foods. These consist of untreated meats, poultry, fish, lentils, nuts, oils, sugar, fresh fruits and vegetables, milk, butter, yogurt, and eggs. Include grains and starches that are inherently gluten-free. Potato, corn, and rice are common kinds.
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