True or false? If false, explain why.
i. The Reserve Bank of Australia engages in open market operations only when it wants to change interest rates.
ii. Increases in the price level increase the quantity of money needed for buying and selling.
iii. A rise in the rate of real interest rate will lead to a movement downward along the money demand curve.
iv. The main goal of monetary policy in Australia is full employment of the labour force.
v. If the Reserve Bank of Australia buys financial instruments in the open market, net exports are likely to decrease.

Answers

Answer 1

The Reserve Bank of Australia engages in open market operations only when it wants to change interest rates.- False Reserve Bank of Australia engages in open market operations not only to change interest rates but also to change the money supply in the economy

An increase in the price level will lead to an increase in the demand for money because people will need more money to buy goods and services - True:

A rise in the rate of real interest rates will lead to a movement downward along the money demand curve -True

The main goal of monetary policy in Australia is full employment of the labour force.- False.

While full employment of the labor force is an objective of monetary policy, it is not the main goal. The main goal of monetary policy in Australia is to maintain price stability

If the Reserve Bank of Australia buys financial instruments in the open market, net exports are likely to decrease -  False.

When the Reserve Bank of Australia buys financial instruments in the open market, it increases the money supply and leads to an increase in net exports rather than a decrease

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Related Questions

purchase price $500,000 excavation costs 50,000 razing old building 12,500 broker fees 10,000 cost of a parking lot 25,000 what is the cost of the land?

Answers

The cost of the land can be calculated by adding up all the costs associated with the purchase of the land. In this case, the total cost of the land is $597,500. Thus option B is correct, $597,500.

The cost of the land can be determined by adding up all the costs associated with the purchase of the land. In this case, the purchase price of the land is $500,000.

To this amount, we need to add the excavation costs of $50,000, the razing of the old building of $12,500, broker fees of $10,000, and the cost of the parking lot of $25,000.

Thus, the total cost of the land can be calculated as follows:

$500,000 + $50,000 + $12,500 + $10,000 + $25,000 = $597,500

Therefore, the cost of the land is $597,500, which means that option (b) is the correct answer.

In summary, the cost of the land can be calculated by adding up all the costs associated with the purchase of the land. In this case, the total cost of the land is $597,500. Thus option B is correct, $597,500.

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Complete Question:

A company purchased land and incurred the following losses.

purchase price $500,000

excavation costs 50,000

razing old building 12,500

broker fees 10,000

cost of a parking lot 25,000

what is the cost of the land? Explain in 200 words with the summary.

a. $550,000

b. $597,500

c. $572,500

d. 562,500

the type of assembly line typically found in automobile manufacturing is an example of ________.

Answers

Mass production is a manufacturing process that produces large quantities of standardized products on an assembly line.

The assembly line typically consists of various stations, with each station responsible for a specific step in the production process. In the case of automobile manufacturing, this could include everything from welding the car frame to installing the engine, transmission, and other components.

The advantage of mass production is that it allows companies to produce large quantities of products quickly and efficiently, which can help reduce costs and increase profitability. However, it also requires significant upfront investment in equipment and infrastructure, and may not be suitable for products that require high levels of customization or those with low demand.

Overall, the type of assembly line found in automobile manufacturing is a prime example of how mass production has revolutionized manufacturing over the past century, and continues to be a key driver of productivity and efficiency in many industries today.

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Prepare a 2018 balance sheet for Rogers Corp. based on the following information: Cash
= $138,000; Patents and copyrights = $630,000; Accounts payable = $216,500; Accounts
receivable = $160,000; Tangible net fixed assets = $1,645,000; Inventory = $298,500;
Notes payable = $155,000; Accumulated retained earnings = $1,256,000; Long-term
debt = $856,000.

Answers

The balance sheet shows the company's assets, liabilities, and stockholders' equity at a specific point in time.

The assets include cash, accounts receivable, inventory, patents and copyrights, and tangible net fixed assets. The liabilities include accounts payable, notes payable, and long-term debt. The stockholders' equity includes accumulated retained earnings. Based on the information provided, the 2018 balance sheet for Rogers Corp. would look like this:
Rogers Corp.
Balance Sheet
As of December 31, 2018
Assets
Cash = $138,000
Accounts receivable = $160,000
Inventory = $298,500
Patents and copyrights = $630,000
Tangible net fixed assets = $1,645,000
Total assets = $2,871,500
Liabilities and Stockholders' Equity
Accounts payable = $216,500
Notes payable = $155,000
Long-term debt = $856,000
Total liabilities = $1,227,500
Accumulated retained earnings = $1,256,000
Total stockholders' equity = $1,644,000
Total liabilities and stockholders' equity = $2,871,500
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Which of the following is correct regarding business overhead expense insurance?
a) premiums are not tax deductible
b) benefits received are received tax free
c) benefits received are taxable income to the employee
d) premiums are tax deductible

Answers

The correct answer is: d premiums are tax deductible.

In general, premiums paid for business overhead expense insurance are tax deductible for businesses.

This means that the cost of the insurance coverage can be subtracted from the business's taxable income, reducing the overall tax liability.

a) Premiums are generally tax deductible, so this statement is incorrect.

b) Benefits received from business overhead expense insurance are typically subject to taxation, so this statement is incorrect.

c) Benefits received from business overhead expense insurance are considered taxable income to the business, not the employee, so this statement is incorrect.

It's important to note that tax regulations may vary by jurisdiction, and it's always advisable to consult with a tax professional or accountant for specific information related to your situation.

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Your inventory has 22,235 units and it has been increasing by 6% per year. If inventory continues to grow by 6% for the next 3 years, what will your inventory be then

Answers

After 3 years, the inventory count will be approximately 26,482 units. Here option B is the correct answer.

To calculate the inventory count after 3 years, we need to apply the 6% growth rate per year for each year.

Year 1: The inventory increases by 6% of 22,235 units, which is 1,334.1 units. The new inventory count after Year 1 is 22,235 + 1,334.1 = 23,569.1 units.

Year 2: Again, the inventory increases by 6% of the previous year's count, which is 6% of 23,569.1 units. This amounts to 1,414.15 units. Adding this to the previous year's count, we get 23,569.1 + 1,414.15 = 24,983.25 units.

Year 3: Once more, the inventory grows by 6% of the previous year's count, which is 6% of 24,983.25 units. This equals 1,499.00 units. Adding this to the previous year's count, we have 24,983.25 + 1,499.00 = 26,482.25 units.

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Complete question:

What will be the inventory count after 3 years if the current inventory is 22,235 units and it is growing at a rate of 6% per year?

A) 25,548 units

B) 26,482 units

C) 27,930 units

D) 29,472 units

what is a characteristic of in-band device management?

Answers

In-band device management is characterized by the use of the same network connection for both data traffic and management commands.

In-band device management involves using the same network connection for both data traffic and management commands. This means that management commands are sent over the same network connection as regular data traffic, rather than over a separate network or management interface. In-band management is commonly used for network devices, such as switches and routers, as well as for servers and storage devices.                                                                                            One advantage of in-band management is that it can simplify network architecture by eliminating the need for a separate management interface or network. This can reduce costs and complexity, as well as improve network efficiency. However, in-band management also has some disadvantages, such as the potential for management traffic to interfere with regular data traffic, and the possibility of security vulnerabilities if management commands are not properly secured. To address these concerns, some organizations may choose to use out-of-band management for critical network devices, while still using in-band management for less critical devices.

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the department of transportation dot hazard class 1 consists of

Answers

The Department of Transportation (DOT) Hazard Class 1 consists of materials related to explosives. This class is divided into six divisions:

1.1 - Explosives with a mass explosion hazard
1.2 - Explosives with a projection hazard
1.3 - Explosives with a predominantly fire hazard
1.4 - Explosives with a minor explosion hazard
1.5 - Very insensitive explosives with a mass explosion hazard
1.6 - Extremely insensitive explosive articles

These divisions help categorize the risk associated with transporting different types of explosive materials within the transportation department.

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people over 65 represent what percent of single-person households?

Answers

People over 65 represent approximately 36% of single-person households.

In single-person households, individuals live alone without any other adult members. The percentage of people over 65 within this demographic is around 36%. This figure highlights the significant presence of older adults who choose to live independently or have become widowed or divorced later in life.

There are various reasons contributing to this trend, including longer life expectancy, changes in societal norms, and increased financial independence among older adults. This demographic shift has implications for social and healthcare services, as it requires addressing the unique needs and challenges faced by older individuals living alone, such as isolation, access to healthcare, and support systems to promote healthy aging.

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Use the following figure to answer the question(s) below. Figure: Trade Price Domestic Supply 175 .World Supply +Tarif World Supply 150 Domestic Demand 500 7501,000 1,300 Quantity 1,150 74. (Figur e: Trade) If this figure represents the market for oil and the country imposes no tariffs on international trade, domestic consumption will be A) 500 units. B) 1,000 units. C) 1,150 units. D) 1,300 units.

Answers

At this price level, we can see that Domestic Demand intersects with World Supply at a quantity of 1,000 units. Therefore, domestic consumption will be 1,000 units (Option B).

In the figure provided, if the country imposes no tariffs on international trade, the Trade Price for oil will be equal to the World Supply price, which is 150. If there are no tariffs on international trade, the domestic consumption will be equal to the domestic demand, which is 500 units. This is because the domestic supply of oil is only 175 units, and the world supply plus tariff is only 150 units, which is not enough to meet the domestic demand. Therefore, the country will have to rely on importing oil from the international market to meet its domestic demand.


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true or false: employee engagement can positively impact absenteeism.

Answers

True, employee engagement can positively impact absenteeism. Employee engagement refers to the emotional commitment and involvement an employee has towards their organization and its goals.

When employees are engaged, they are more likely to be satisfied with their work, motivated to perform well, and less likely to be absent from work. Absenteeism is the habitual non-presence of an employee at their job, which can lead to decreased productivity and increased costs for the organization. By fostering a culture of engagement, employers can create a work environment where employees feel valued, heard, and connected to the company's mission. This positive relationship between employee engagement and reduced absenteeism is supported by numerous studies. Engaged employees are more likely to take fewer sick days and demonstrate increased loyalty, leading to reduced turnover rates. Additionally, higher levels of engagement are associated with increased job satisfaction, which can result in improved mental and physical well-being for employees. In conclusion, employee engagement can indeed have a positive impact on absenteeism, as engaged employees are more likely to be present and productive at work. By investing in employee engagement initiatives, organizations can not only reduce absenteeism but also boost overall performance and success.

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You send a purchase order. I send back a timely confirming memo saying, "OK, on the condition that you agree to indemnify me against a lawsuit for harm arising from the chainsaw." Do we have a contract?

Answers

Yes, if you send a purchase order and the other party sends back a timely confirming memo with a condition attached, then a contract has been formed. The condition that the other party added, to indemnify them against a lawsuit for harm arising from the chainsaw, is a counteroffer.

However, since they responded in a timely manner, the counteroffer becomes a part of the contract.

An indemnity clause is a common provision in contracts that allocates risk between parties. It essentially means that if someone is sued for something related to the product or service being provided, the other party will step in and pay any damages awarded.

In this case, if harm arises from the chainsaw, you would be responsible for any resulting lawsuit.

It is important to note that the terms of a contract are binding, so it is crucial to read and understand all conditions before agreeing to them. In this scenario, if you do not agree to the indemnity clause, then there is no contract and the other party would not be obligated to fulfill the purchase order.

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what do auditing standards require the auditor to consider when assessing the risk of material misstatements in revenue?

Answers

When assessing the risk of material misstatements in revenue, auditing standards require the auditor to consider several factors.

Industry and Entity-specific Factors: The auditor should have an understanding of the industry in which the entity operates and the specific risks associated with revenue recognition in that industry. This includes considering the nature of the entity's products or services, the complexity of its revenue transactions, and any unique accounting requirements or practices. Internal Control Environment: The auditor evaluates the effectiveness of the entity's internal controls over revenue recognition. This includes assessing the design and implementation of controls, identifying any control deficiencies or weaknesses, and determining their impact on the risk of material misstatements in revenue.

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he market value of the adelakun corporation just declined by 5 percent. analysts believe this decrease in value was caused by recent legislation passed by congress. which type of risk does this illustrate?

Answers

This scenario illustrates systematic risk, which is also known as market risk.

Systematic risk is the type of risk that affects the overall market or economy and cannot be diversified away.

In this case, the decline in the market value of the Adelakun Corporation was caused by a factor outside of the company's control, which was the recent legislation passed by Congress.

This risk affects all companies in the market and cannot be eliminated through diversification.

Therefore, it is a systematic risk.

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[6 Points] In question (d) what is agent B exactly selling to agent C? A verbal description is enough. [2 Points] f) Compare the amount agent B can consume ...

Answers

In question (d), Agent B is selling a good or service to Agent C. The specific nature of the good or service is not provided, but it can be understood that Agent B is engaged in a transaction where they offer something to Agent C in exchange for payment or some form of compensation.

In question (d), the details of the transaction between Agent B and Agent C are not explicitly mentioned. However, it is stated that Agent B is selling something to Agent C. Therefore, it can be inferred that Agent B is involved in a commercial exchange where they offer a good or service to Agent C in return for some form of payment or compensation.

The specific nature of the good or service being sold is not provided in the question. It could vary depending on the context and the nature of the business or transaction between Agent B and Agent C. It could be a physical product, such as a manufactured item, or an intangible service, such as consulting or software development. The details of the transaction, including the pricing, terms, and conditions, would depend on the specific arrangement between Agent B and Agent C.

Without further information, it is not possible to determine the exact nature of the product or service being sold, but it can be understood that Agent B is engaging in a commercial transaction where they are offering something to Agent C in exchange for some form of payment or compensation.

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Why are sedentary senior adults more at risk for heat stress?
Select one:
a. They tend to have a higher core body temperature to start with.
b. Because working muscles do not receive enough blood flow.
c. They tend to sweat less and have less blood flow to the surface of the skin.
d. They tend to sweat more and have greater blood flow to the surface of the skin.

Answers

Sedentary senior adults are more at risk for heat stress because-  C.  they tend to sweat less and have less blood flow to the surface of the skin.

What does it do?

This makes it harder for the body to regulate its temperature and cool down when exposed to high temperatures.

Additionally, the lack of physical activity can lead to a higher risk of dehydration, which further increases the risk of heat stress.

It is important for sedentary seniors to stay hydrated, stay in cool environments, and gradually increase physical activity to help prevent heat-related illnesses.

Hence, option c. is correct.

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what is one way to quantify the value of a good or service?

Answers

One way to quantify the value of a good or service is by determining its price in the market.

Price is a common indicator used to assess the value of a product or service because it reflects the amount that consumers are willing to pay for it. The price is influenced by various factors, including supply and demand dynamics, production costs, competition, perceived quality, and brand reputation.

In a competitive market, the price is typically determined by the interaction of supply and demand forces. If the demand for a good or service is high relative to its supply, the price tends to increase, indicating that consumers perceive a higher value for it. Conversely, if the supply exceeds the demand, the price may decrease, suggesting a lower perceived value.

However, it is important to note that price alone does not capture the entire value of a good or service. Other factors, such as quality, functionality, convenience, and customer experience, also contribute to its overall value.

Therefore, considering a combination of price and these additional factors provides a more comprehensive understanding of the value proposition of a good or service.

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Which of the following is NOT an FCC regulation aimed at reducing the potentially negative effects of media messages?
A. Media activism
B. Fairness doctrine
C. V-chip
D. Equal time rule

Answers

A. Media activism is not an FCC regulation aimed at reducing the potentially negative effects of media messages.
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) is an independent agency of the United States government that regulates communication by wire and radio in the United States.

The FCC has implemented various regulations to reduce the potentially negative effects of media messages on the public. These regulations include the fairness doctrine, the V-chip, and the equal time rule. The fairness doctrine was a policy of the FCC that required broadcasters to present both sides of controversial issues. The policy was in effect from 1949 to 1987, and its purpose was to ensure that the public had access to a variety of viewpoints on important issues.

The V-chip is a technology that allows parents to block television programming based on its rating. The technology was mandated by the Telecommunications Act of 1996, and its purpose is to give parents greater control over the television programming that their children are exposed to. The equal time rule is a policy of the FCC that requires broadcast stations to provide equal opportunities to all candidates for political office. The policy is designed to ensure that the public has access to a variety of viewpoints on political issues and that no one candidate receives an unfair advantage in terms of exposure to the public. In conclusion, media activism is not an FCC regulation aimed at reducing the potentially negative effects of media messages. Media activism is a term used to describe efforts by individuals or groups to promote their own interests or agendas through the media. The term that is NOT an FCC regulation aimed at reducing the potentially negative effects of media messages is: The other options, B. Fairness Doctrine, C. V-chip, and D. Equal Time Rule, are all FCC regulations designed to address potential negative effects of media messages.

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financial leverage affects , whereas operating leverage affects . a. eps; ebit. b. ebit and eps; only ebit. c. only eps; ebit and eps. d. ebit; eps.

Answers

Option (a), Financial leverage affects EPS (earnings per share), whereas operating leverage affects EBIT (earnings before interest and taxes).

Financial leverage refers to the use of debt to finance a company's operations. By using debt, a company can amplify its earnings, but it also increases the risk of financial distress if it cannot make its debt payments. This risk affects EPS because higher levels of debt increase interest expense, which reduces net income and therefore lowers EPS.

Operating leverage, on the other hand, refers to the relationship between a company's fixed and variable costs. If a company has high fixed costs, then it has high operating leverage. This means that a small change in sales can have a large impact on EBIT, since the fixed costs do not change. This affects EBIT because if sales increase, the company's profits will increase by a larger amount than if it had lower operating leverage. However, if sales decrease, the company's profits will decrease by a larger amount than if it had lower operating leverage.

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which individuals violating the rational decision maker, assumption of utility maximization? a. John purchases a used refrigerator even though he preferred a new one and his budget allowed. b. Susan purchases generic shampoo when shopping even though she can afford the name brand shampoo, becouse she thinks the price of the name brand shompoo is too high. c. Samuel plans to purchase a new motorcycle even though his budget does not allow him to
d. Andrea decided to buy a new poir of jeans, even though the price was higher than she would normally pay, because her grandmother offered to purchose them for her.

Answers

Among the individuals mentioned, John and Samuel violate the assumption of utility maximization. Susan's decision to purchase generic shampoo and Andrea's decision to buy expensive jeans due to her grandmother's offer are not necessarily violations of utility maximization.

The assumption of utility maximization in rational decision-making suggests that individuals strive to maximize their utility or satisfaction based on their preferences and constraints. In the given scenarios, John's decision to purchase a used refrigerator instead of a new one, even though he prefers the latter and has a budget that allows for it, goes against utility maximization. He is not choosing the option that would provide him with the highest satisfaction, indicating a violation of the assumption.

Similarly, Samuel's plan to purchase a new motorcycle despite his budget limitations is also a violation of the assumption. Since his budget does not permit such an expense, choosing to proceed with the purchase disregards the principle of utility maximization. Samuel's decision may be driven by factors other than maximizing his satisfaction, such as personal desires or emotional attachment to owning a new motorcycle.

On the other hand, Susan's decision to purchase generic shampoo instead of the name brand due to considering the price too high does not necessarily violate the assumption of utility maximization. It is possible that Susan's preference for saving money outweighs the perceived benefits of the name brand shampoo, resulting in a higher level of utility from the generic option.

Similarly, Andrea's decision to buy expensive jeans, even though the price is higher than what she would normally pay, because her grandmother offered to purchase them for her, may not be a violation of utility maximization. While the price may be higher, the added benefit of receiving a gift from her grandmother could outweigh the extra cost, leading to a higher overall level of utility.

In summary, John and Samuel's decisions appear to violate the assumption of utility maximization as they do not choose the options that align with their preferences and constraints. Susan and Andrea's decisions, however, can still be consistent with utility maximization, as they may have different factors influencing their perceived utility beyond the immediate costs.

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a blank plan gives employees the opportunity to buy the company's shares at a previously fixed price.

Answers

the plan you are referring to is called an Employee Stock Purchase Plan (ESPP). An ESPP allows employees to purchase company stock at a discounted price, typically up to 15% below market value. The price is fixed at the beginning of the offering period, which is usually six months.

An ESPP is a type of stock option plan that companies use to motivate and retain employees by giving them an opportunity to own a stake in the company. The plan operates by allowing employees to set aside a portion of their paycheck to purchase company stock at a discount. This provides a financial incentive for employees to work hard and contribute to the company's success. Additionally, since the purchase price is fixed at the beginning of the offering period, employees have the potential to benefit if the stock price rises above the purchase price during the offering period.

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select the correct answer. why is gossiping at the workplace unprofessional? a. it creates a lot of commotion. b. it disturbs others. c. it is an attention-seeking behavior. d. it wastes a lot of productive time and spreads false rumors.

Answers

Gossiping at the workplace is unprofessional as it wastes a lot of productive time and spreads false rumors. Thus the correct option is D.

What is gossiping?

Gossiping is the act of idle or informal conversation, usually in a negative or speculative way, regarding another person's private life or personal concerns. Workplaces, social events, and social circles are just a few places where gossip may happen.

The most harmful feature of gossiping is its propensity to waste time and spread inaccurate information, which may hurt relationships and harm reputations. Gossiping can certainly cause a commotion, bother people, and be an attention-seeking behavior.

Coworker collaboration and efficient communication may be hampered by gossip, which can also lower morale at work and create a hostile work environment.

Therefore, option D is appropriate.

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at what rate of interest does investment demand become totally inelastic?

Answers

Investment demand becomes totally inelastic when the rate of interest equals the expected rate of return on investment.

At this point, any change in the rate of interest would not affect the level of investment, as the expected return is exactly equal to the cost of borrowing. This means that businesses are indifferent to changes in the interest rate because the profitability of their investments remains the same. However, it's important to note that in practice, investment demand is influenced by various factors other than just the interest rate, such as business confidence, market conditions, and government policies. Therefore, the concept of investment demand becoming totally inelastic is more theoretical, and in reality, investment decisions are influenced by a range of factors beyond the interest rate alone.

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When would designated COOP personnel relocate to an alternate work location?
A.Before COOP plan activation
B.Never
C.Once the COOP plan is activated
D.After the emergency situation has ended

Answers

Designated COOP personnel would relocate to an alternate work location once the COOP plan is activated(C).

COOP (Continuity of Operations) plans are put in place to ensure that an organization can continue to function during and after an emergency situation or crisis. These plans are activated when the primary worksite becomes unavailable due to a natural disaster, terrorist attack, or any other disruptive event. Designated COOP personnel are essential staff members who have been identified as critical to the organization's continued operations. When the COOP plan is activated, these personnel will relocate to an alternate work location to ensure that the organization can continue to provide its services and meet its mission. This alternate work location may be a backup facility, a remote work location, or any other suitable site that can support the organization's operations during the emergency. It is important to note that designated COOP personnel should be trained and prepared to relocate to the alternate work location as quickly and efficiently as possible to minimize any disruptions to the organization's operations.

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Michelle Payne deposited $12,000 in a savings account paying 6.25% simple interest. How long (in years) will it take for her investment to amount to $18,000?

Answers

It will take Michelle Payne 8 years for her investment to amount to $18,000 in a savings account paying 6.25% simple interest. It will take Michelle approximately 8 years for her investment to amount to $18,000 in the savings account.

Hi! Michelle deposited $12,000 in a savings account with a 6.25% simple interest rate. To find out how long it will take for her investment to reach $18,000, we can use the simple interest formula:

Interest = Principal x Rate x Time

In this case, the interest earned is the difference between the final amount ($18,000) and the initial principal ($12,000), which is $6,000. We can plug in the values into the formula and solve for time:

$6,000 = $12,000 x 6.25% x Time

To solve for Time, divide both sides by $12,000 and 6.25% (or 0.0625 as a decimal):

Time = $6,000 / ($12,000 x 0.0625)
Time ≈ 8 years

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complete the following table related to the structure of financial markets.
direct finance indirect finance
savers borrowers they can be filled by; hoard cash, sell securities, take out loans, buy securities, make deposits

Answers

The table related to the structure of financial markets can be completed as follows:

| Structure of Financial Markets | Direct Finance | Indirect Finance |

| ----------------------------- | --------------| ----------------|

| Savers                        | Hoard cash, sell securities | Make deposits |

| Borrowers                     | Take out loans, issue securities | Buy securities |

Direct finance refers to the process by which savers provide funds directly to borrowers, without the intermediation of financial institutions. Examples of direct finance include lending money to friends or family, buying stocks or bonds issued by corporations, or investing in real estate.

Indirect finance, on the other hand, involves the intermediation of financial institutions, such as banks, insurance companies, or mutual funds. In this case, savers deposit their funds with these institutions, which then use the funds to provide loans or purchase securities issued by borrowers.

For savers, the choice between direct and indirect finance depends on factors such as risk tolerance, investment knowledge, and access to financial markets. Those who prefer direct finance may be willing to accept higher risks and take a more active role in managing their investments, while those who prefer indirect finance may prioritize convenience, diversification, or professional expertise.

For borrowers, the choice between direct and indirect finance depends on factors such as the availability of financing, the cost of borrowing, and the level of regulatory oversight. Borrowers who have access to financial markets and can issue securities directly may be able to obtain lower financing costs and more flexible terms, while those who rely on financial intermediaries may benefit from the convenience and expertise of these institutions.

In summary, both direct and indirect finance play important roles in the structure of financial markets, and the choice between them depends on the needs and preferences of savers and borrowers.

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2. which of the following would increase the interest rate for a loan? a) poor credit rating b) higher down payment c) expected lower inflation d) lower consumer prices e) short time to maturity

Answers

All of these factors would increase the interest rate for a loan poor credit rating,  higher down payment, expected lower inflation , lower consumer prices and correct answers are option a ,b,c,d

Another factor that could increase the interest rate for a loan is a lower down payment. When a borrower provides a smaller down payment, the lender is assuming more risk. A larger down payment, on the other hand, reduces the lender's risk, and the borrower may be offered a lower interest rate.

Expected lower inflation and lower consumer prices would not typically lead to an increase in the interest rate for a loan. In fact, lower inflation rates could lead to lower interest rates since there is less pressure on lenders to offset the effects of inflation.

Finally, the time to maturity can affect the interest rate for a loan. Generally, shorter maturities will have lower interest rates compared to longer maturities. This is because lenders face greater uncertainty  correct answers are option a ,b,c,d

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Lars Corporation shows the following information in the stockholders' equity section of its balance sheet: The par value of common stock is $5, and the total balance in the Common Stock account is $225,000. There are 13,000 shares of treasury stock.
Required:
What is the number of shares outstanding?

Answers

To find the number of shares outstanding for Lars Corporation, we need to first determine the number of shares issued, which can be calculated using the total balance in the Common Stock account and the par value of the common stock.

Then, we will subtract the treasury stock from the issued shares to get the shares outstanding.
Total balance in Common Stock account: $225,000
Par value of the common stock: $5
Number of shares issued = Total balance in Common Stock account / Par value of common stock
= $225,000 / $5
= 45,000 shares issued
Number of treasury stock: 13,000
Shares outstanding = Shares issued - Treasury stock
= 45,000 - 13,000
= 32,000 shares outstanding

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what advantages do strong brands provide an organization?

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Strong brands provide several advantages to organizations. Strong brands contribute to increased customer loyalty, premium pricing, competitive advantage, flexibility for brand extensions, employee engagement, and resilience in the face of challenges, all of which contribute to the long-term success and profitability of the organization.

Here are some key advantages:

Customer Loyalty: Strong brands build customer loyalty and trust. Customers are more likely to choose and remain loyal to brands they recognize and perceive as reliable, consistent, and of high quality. This loyalty leads to repeat purchases, increased customer retention, and positive word-of-mouth recommendations.

Premium Pricing: Strong brands have the ability to command premium prices for their products or services. Customers are often willing to pay a higher price for a brand they perceive as superior or prestigious. This premium pricing contributes to higher profit margins and financial success.

Competitive Advantage: A strong brand provides a competitive edge in the marketplace. It differentiates the organization from competitors, making it easier to attract customers and stand out in a crowded market. It creates barriers to entry for new competitors and strengthens the organization's market position.

Brand Extensions and Diversification: Strong brands can successfully extend their product or service offerings into new markets or categories. Customers are more likely to trust and try new offerings from a brand they already know and love, reducing the risk associated with new product launches.

Employee Pride and Engagement: A strong brand creates a sense of pride and identity among employees. Employees feel connected to the brand's values and mission, leading to higher engagement, motivation, and productivity. They become brand ambassadors, positively representing the organization to customers and stakeholders.

Resilience in Times of Crisis: During challenging times or crises, organizations with strong brands tend to fare better. The established trust and goodwill associated with the brand help the organization weather negative events or public perception challenges more effectively.

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As a _____ I will provide my update at the Daily Scrum meeting every day so that the entire team is aware of what I am working on and if I have any issues. Select one. a Team Member (developer/tester) b Product Owner c Scrum Master

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As a team member (developer/tester), I will provide my update at the Daily Scrum meeting every day so that the entire team is aware of what I am working on and if I have any issues.

As a Team Member (developer/tester), it is crucial to provide daily updates during the Daily Scrum meeting to keep the entire team informed about the progress of the project.The daily update should include what tasks have been completed, what tasks are currently being worked on, and any issues or roadblocks that may be encountered. This ensures that the team stays aligned with the overall goal and can help resolve any issues as they arise. By doing this, the entire team can work collaboratively and avoid any potential delays or setbacks.


The Daily Scrum meeting is a key part of the Agile methodology that promotes transparency and collaboration within the team. As a Team Member, it is essential to attend the meeting and provide a detailed update to the entire team about the work progress. This helps in identifying potential issues and resolving them quickly. In a fast-paced development environment, regular communication and updates are necessary to keep everyone on the same page and working towards a common goal. By participating in the Daily Scrum meeting, a Team Member can showcase their work and ensure that they are meeting the team's expectations.


as a Team Member (developer/tester), providing regular updates during the Daily Scrum meeting is an essential part of the Agile methodology. By doing so, the entire team stays informed and aligned with the project's progress. This ensures that any issues or roadblocks are identified and resolved quickly, which can help avoid potential delays or setbacks. Regular communication and collaboration are necessary for the success of any project, and the Daily Scrum meeting is an excellent way to achieve this.

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tracking error is defined as group of answer choices the variance of the return difference between the portfolio and the benchmark the difference between the returns on the overall risky portfolio versus the benchmark return the variance of the return of the actively managed portfolio the variance of the return of the benchmark portfolio

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Tracking error is a measure of how closely an investment portfolio follows the performance of a benchmark index.

It is defined as the variance of the return difference between the portfolio and the benchmark. Essentially, tracking error measures the deviation of an investment portfolio's returns from its benchmark index. A higher tracking error means that the portfolio is deviating more from the benchmark, which may indicate higher risk or an active management approach. On the other hand, a lower tracking error implies that the portfolio is more closely tracking the benchmark. Monitoring tracking error is important for investors because it provides insight into the performance of their investment strategy. By analyzing tracking error, investors can assess whether their portfolio is generating returns in line with expectations or whether they need to make changes to their investment strategy.

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