OSHA and NIOSH are both federal agencies responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States.
However, there is a key difference between the two. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is primarily responsible for setting and enforcing workplace safety standards, conducting inspections, and imposing penalties for violations. On the other hand, NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) focuses on research, education, and recommendations for preventing workplace injuries and illnesses. NIOSH conducts research on workplace hazards, develops recommendations for workplace safety, and provides training and education to employers and employees. While both agencies work towards the same goal of ensuring safe and healthy working conditions, OSHA is focused on enforcement and regulation, while NIOSH is focused on research and education.
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Vivian and Anna have contracted for Anna to sew Vivian a new quilt. Anna, however, decides that the pattern that Vivian would want sewn in the quilt would be better sewn by Patty. Vivian agrees to have Patty sew the quilt. This is known as a(n) _______.
This is known as an assignment of contract. An assignment of contract occurs when one party (the assignor) transfers their rights and obligations under a contract to another party (the assignee).
In this case, Anna was the assignor, Vivian was the original party to the contract, and Patty was the assignee. By agreeing to have Patty sew the quilt, Vivian effectively transferred her rights and obligations under the contract with Anna to Patty. The assignment of contract can only occur if the original contract does not explicitly prohibit it and if all parties involved agree to the transfer. It is important to note that the assignor is still responsible for fulfilling any obligations they had under the original contract, even after the assignment takes place.
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which of the following is a moratorium for almost all creditor litigation against a debtor in a chapter 7 bankruptcy proceeding?
A moratorium in the context of Chapter 7 bankruptcy refers to an automatic stay, which is a temporary suspension of creditor litigation against a debtor. When a debtor files for Chapter 7 bankruptcy, an automatic stay comes into effect, providing a moratorium on almost all creditor actions, including lawsuits, wage garnishments, and collection calls.
The primary purpose of this moratorium is to provide the debtor with temporary relief from financial pressures and allow the bankruptcy court to fairly distribute the debtor's non-exempt assets among the creditors. During the automatic stay period, the debtor is protected from creditor actions, while the court-appointed bankruptcy trustee reviews the debtor's financial situation and liquidates non-exempt assets to repay creditors.
However, there are some exceptions to the automatic stay. For example, certain types of debt such as alimony, child support, and certain tax obligations are not subject to the moratorium and may still be collected. In addition, creditors may file a motion to lift the automatic stay if they can prove that the stay is causing undue harm to their interests.
In summary, the moratorium in a Chapter 7 bankruptcy proceeding is the automatic stay, which temporarily suspends most creditor litigation against the debtor, allowing for an orderly liquidation and distribution of the debtor's non-exempt assets.
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A federal agency may obtain information through a summons, a subpoena, or a warrant.
A. True
B. False
True. A federal agency has the authority to obtain information through a summons, a subpoena, or a warrant, depending on the circumstances of the case.
A summons is a legal document that requires a person to appear before a court or administrative agency to provide testimony or documents. A subpoena is similar to a summons, but it may be issued by an attorney or administrative agency, and it may require a person to produce documents or provide testimony outside of a court setting. A warrant is a court order that allows law enforcement to search for and seize evidence that may be used in a criminal investigation. The type of information that can be obtained through these legal tools may vary, and the rules for their use are governed by federal and state laws. In general, federal agencies must follow specific procedures and obtain court approval before issuing a summons, subpoena, or warrant.
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Tower visibility is reported to the surface observer when it changes by one or more reportable values and when
A. the usual point of observation is less than 4SM and twice the tower visibility value
B. the tower visibility is less than 4SM
C. the usual point of observation is less than 4SM, is at least twice the tower visibility value, and is not restricted by obscuring phenomena with tops below the level of the tower
D. either the tower or surface visibility is less than 4SM
Tower visibility is reported to the surface observer when it changes by one or more reportable values and when option C applies. This means the usual point of observation is less than 4SM, is at least twice the tower visibility value, and is not restricted by obscuring phenomena with tops below the level of the tower.
Tower visibility is the visibility measurement from an elevated point, such as a control tower, and is reported to the surface observer when certain conditions are met. According to the Federal Aviation Administration's (FAA) regulations, tower visibility must be reported to surface observers when it changes by one or more reportable values.
Additionally, tower visibility must be reported when the usual point of observation is less than 4 statute miles (SM) and at least twice the tower visibility value, as long as there are no obscuring phenomena with tops below the level of the tower. In other words, the tower visibility is considered significant when it is a potential hazard to air traffic and requires communication between the tower and surface observers to ensure safe operations.
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Damages may be awarded under the Federal Tort Claims Act for false imprisonment by federal law enforcement officers.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) allows private individuals to sue the United States government for damages caused by the negligence or wrongful acts of federal employees acting within the scope of their employment. The Act specifically includes false imprisonment as a type of tort for which damages may be awarded, provided that the plaintiff can prove that the federal law enforcement officers acted wrongfully or negligently in their actions leading to the false imprisonment.
A. True Damages may be awarded under the Federal Tort Claims Act for false imprisonment by federal law enforcement officers.
The Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA) is a law that grants American citizens the right to sue the federal government or its employees for damages resulting from their negligence or wrongful acts. The FTCA waives the government's sovereign immunity in cases where individuals have been harmed by the actions of government employees acting within the scope of their employment. Under the FTCA, claimants must follow a specific process for filing a claim and must exhaust all administrative remedies before filing a lawsuit. The government has the option to settle the claim or allow the case to proceed to trial. The FTCA is an important tool for holding the federal government accountable for its actions and protecting the rights of citizens.
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Federal administrative agencies typically follow the same rules of evidence in adjudication proceedings as federal courts follow in trials.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Federal administrative agencies are not required to follow the same strict rules of evidence as federal courts. Instead, they may use a more flexible standard of evidence that allows them to consider a wider range of information in making decisions. However, they are still required to provide parties with notice and an opportunity to be heard before making a decision.
B. False Federal administrative agencies do not typically follow the same rules of evidence in adjudication proceedings as federal courts follow in trials.
Federal administrative refers to the branch of government responsible for implementing and enforcing federal laws and regulations. In the United States, federal administrative agencies are created by Congress to carry out specific tasks and responsibilities within the federal government. Examples of federal administrative agencies include the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), and the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). These agencies have the power to promulgate rules and regulations, conduct investigations, and adjudicate disputes in their respective areas of jurisdiction. The administrative process is designed to be transparent and accountable, with opportunities for public comment and judicial review. However, it has also been criticized for its complexity and potential for bureaucratic inefficiency.
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What is the concept of advocacy?
The concept of advocacy refers to the act of promoting or supporting a particular cause, idea, or policy. It involves communication, persuasion, and collaboration to bring about positive change and achieve desired outcomes. Advocates work to influence public opinion, policy decisions, and resource allocation in favor of their cause, ultimately aiming to improve the well-being of individuals or communities.
Advocacy refers to the act of supporting or promoting a cause or idea in order to bring about change or raise awareness. It involves speaking up on behalf of oneself or others, often in situations where they may not have a voice or the ability to speak up for themselves. Advocacy can take many forms, such as lobbying for policy change, public speaking, or simply raising awareness through social media or other platforms. It is an important aspect of social justice and can help bring about positive change in communities and society as a whole.
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A suspension of licenses previously granted may be reviewed by a court of law.
A. True
B. False
It is True that a suspension of licenses previously granted may be reviewed by a court of law. The court has the authority to review the suspension to ensure that it complies with relevant laws and regulations.
They can also determine if the suspension was justified based on the evidence presented. When a license is suspended, the licensee has the right to appeal the decision to a court of law.
The court will review the evidence presented and make a decision on whether the suspension is warranted or not. This is to ensure that the suspension is lawful and not arbitrary. Therefore, a suspension of licenses previously granted may be reviewed by a court of law.
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Administrative hearing officers generally must have the same qualifications as federal judges.
A. True
B. False
True/False: Little's law says there is a long-term relationship among the inventory, throughput, and flow time of a production system in steady state
True. According to Little's law, inventory, throughput, and flow time have a connection in a steady-state production system that may be written as Inventory = Throughput x Flow time.
According to Little's law, there is a basic connection between an average production system's inventory, flow rate, and flow time. The flow time is the average amount of time an item spends in the system on average. Any production system that is operating in a steady state, which means that it is free from significant fluctuations, is subject to this law.
The law, which is frequently applied in the domains of operations management and industrial engineering to optimise production processes, may be formally written as Inventory = Throughput x Flow time.
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Under the UCC, since both Leyland and Melanie are merchants, when Leyland sends his acceptance to Melanie's contract terms, when would his acceptance be effective?
Under the UCC, when Leyland sends his acceptance to Melanie's contract terms, his acceptance would be effective at the moment when his response is sent, as long as it is sent within a reasonable time frame.
This is because both parties are merchants, and the UCC provides for a "battle of the forms" scenario, where the terms of the contract are determined by the conduct of the parties rather than by a specific agreement. This means that the terms of the contract are based on the exchange of forms and responses, and whichever terms are not explicitly agreed upon will be governed by the UCC's default provisions. Therefore, if Leyland sends his acceptance with additional or different terms, these terms will be considered part of the contract unless Melanie objects within a reasonable time. However, if Melanie's contract terms are expressly stated to be the only terms, Leyland's acceptance with additional terms would be considered a counteroffer, and Melanie would need to accept or reject it. Ultimately, the timing and effectiveness of Leyland's acceptance will depend on the specific circumstances of the exchange and the language used in the parties' communication.
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A creditor beneficiary is the third-party beneficiary who is in the strongest legal position to enforce a contract. true/false
True. A creditor beneficiary is a third-party beneficiary who has legal interest in the performance of a contract between two other parties. In other words, the creditor beneficiary stands to benefit financially from the fulfillment of the contract.
As a result, they are in the strongest legal position to enforce the terms of the contract. This is because they have a direct financial stake in the outcome of the agreement. If either of the contracting parties fails to uphold their obligations, the creditor beneficiary has legal recourse to pursue enforcement of the contract. Therefore, it is accurate to say that the creditor beneficiary is in the strongest legal position to enforce a contract.
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frank suffers from a mental impairment due to a brain injury from a airplane accident. he contracts with glena to purchase her dining room furniture. a month later, he tries to void the contract. if he is unable to return the furniture, a court will not rescind the agreement unless frank can show that glena acted in bad faith.
Frank's situation with the contract and the dining room furniture:Frank suffers from a mental impairment due to a brain injury from an airplane accident.
He entered into a contract with Glena to purchase her dining room furniture. A month later, he tries to void the contract but is unable to return the furniture.
In this case, a court will not rescind the agreement unless Frank can demonstrate that Glena acted in bad faith.
To show bad faith, Frank must provide evidence that Glena knowingly took advantage of his mental impairment during the contracting process or purposely misrepresented information about the furniture.
If Frank successfully proves that Glena acted in bad faith, the court may rescind the contract and provide a remedy for Frank.
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_______ is when someone has some sort of mental or physical defect that prevents him or her from being able to enter into a legally binding contract.
The term you are looking for is "incapacity". Incapacity refers to the inability of an individual to make informed decisions due to some kind of mental or physical defect. This incapacity can be temporary or permanent and can affect an individual's ability to understand the nature of a contract, its terms, and its implications.
In the context of contract law, incapacity means that the affected individual is not legally competent to enter into a contract, and any contract entered into by them may be considered void or unenforceable.
Mental incapacity can arise due to a variety of factors such as mental illness, cognitive impairment, intellectual disability, and even intoxication. Physical incapacity can arise due to factors such as injury, illness, or disability. In such cases, a court may appoint a legal guardian or conservator to act on behalf of the incapacitated individual and make legal decisions for them.
It is important to note that the determination of incapacity is not always straightforward and may require a formal evaluation by a medical or legal expert. The law generally seeks to protect individuals with mental or physical incapacity from being exploited or taken advantage of, especially in contractual relationships. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of these issues when entering into any contractual agreement.
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Indenpendent agencies are not subject to the same type of judicial review as are executive agencies.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Independent agencies are subject to the same types of judicial review as executive agencies. Both types of agencies are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), which allows for both substantive and procedural review of agency actions. The level of deference given to an agency's decision may differ depending on whether the agency is considered an expert or political agency, but the basic types of review are the same.
False.Indenpendent agencies are not subject to the same type of judicial review as are executive agencies.
Independent agencies are subject to the same type of judicial review as executive agencies. Both types of agencies are subject to review by the federal courts to ensure that their actions are consistent with the Constitution and the laws passed by Congress.
Under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), courts may review agency decisions for a variety of reasons, including whether the agency acted within its statutory authority, whether the agency's decision was supported by substantial evidence, and whether the agency's decision was arbitrary and capricious.
The APA sets out the procedures that agencies must follow in conducting their rulemaking and adjudicative functions, and provides for judicial review of agency actions in federal court. Independent agencies, like executive agencies, must comply with the APA and are subject to judicial review under its provisions.
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The federal funds rate is established on a semiannual basis by the board of governors of the Federal Reserve. state true/false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The federal funds rate is actually established by the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC), which is a committee within the Federal Reserve System. The FOMC meets several times a year to determine monetary policy, including the target federal funds rate.
False. The federal funds rate is not established on a semiannual basis by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve. The federal funds rate is the interest rate at which banks and credit unions lend reserve balances to other depository institutions overnight. It is determined by the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC), which meets eight times per year, not semiannually.
The FOMC's primary responsibility is to conduct monetary policy in order to promote maximum employment, stable prices, and moderate long-term interest rates in the U.S. economy. The federal funds rate serves as a benchmark for other short-term interest rates and influences the availability and cost of credit in the economy.
During FOMC meetings, the committee members review economic and financial conditions, assess the risks to their long-run goals of price stability and sustainable economic growth, and determine the appropriate stance of monetary policy. The committee then decides on the target range for the federal funds rate, which may be adjusted up or down based on the prevailing economic conditions. The Federal Reserve employs various tools, such as open market operations, to influence the federal funds rate and keep it within the target range.
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Which of the following is an accurate comparison of the expressed powers of the president and the powers of Congress?1.) Comparison BPresidential Powers - Presenting the State of the UnionCongressional Powers - Impeaching officials2.) Comparison BPresidential Powers - Negotiating treatiesCongressional Powers - Ratifying treaties3.) Comparison cPresidential Powers - Nominating ambassadorsCongressional Powers - Declaring war
The accurate comparison of the expressed powers of the president and the powers of Congress is option 2, Comparison B.
The presidential powers include negotiating treaties while the congressional powers include ratifying treaties. This shows how both branches work together in the foreign affairs process. Another example would be that the powers of the president include presenting the State of the Union while the powers of Congress include impeaching officials. It is important to note that while the president has some unique powers, the Constitution grants many powers to Congress as well.
A statute may be subject to the President's veto in the executive branch, but with enough votes, the legislative branch can override the veto. The legislative branch has the authority to ratify presidential appointments, manage the budget, and impeach the president and force their resignation. The President has the authority to veto measures passed by Congress or to sign them into law. However, Congress can override a veto with a two-thirds majority in both houses.
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_______ is the term used for debts incurred in an initial contract.
"Liabilities" is the term used for debts incurred in an initial contract. These financial obligations must be fulfilled by the party responsible for repaying the debts according to the terms agreed upon in the contract.
Liabilities refer to financial obligations or debts that a person or organization owes to others. They can be either current, such as accounts payable and short-term loans, or long-term, such as mortgages and bonds. Liabilities can arise from a variety of sources, including purchases on credit, salaries and wages owed to employees, loans taken out for investments, or legal judgments against a person or organization. In accounting, liabilities are recorded on the balance sheet and are offset by assets to determine a company's net worth or equity. It is essential for individuals and businesses to manage their liabilities effectively to ensure they can meet their financial obligations and avoid defaulting on their debts.
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Explain the obligation and rights of employer and employees under the Employees Compensation Act 1923
The Employees Compensation Act of 1923 requires employers to provide benefits to employees who are injured or killed on the job.
The Employees Compensation Act of 1923 was enacted to compensate workers who were injured in the course of their employment due to an accident. It applies to all employees, including those who work part-time, temporarily, or casually.
This act assures that laborers' rights are protected even if they suffer disability or death as a result of an accident at work. The Act also includes provisions for medical and other benefits, such as reimbursement of medical expenses, provision of artificial limbs, and payment of a gratuity.
Therefore, the obligation and rights of employer and employees under the Employees Compensation Act 1923 is mentioned above.
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Even though a reviewing court reverses an administrative action in a case, that judicial decision may not change the agency's general policies in relation to future cases.
A. True
B. False
B. False,when a reviewing court reverses an administrative action in a case, the decision has a binding effect on the agency and may require the agency to change its general policies and practices in relation to future cases.
The court's decision provides guidance for the agency in how it should interpret and apply the law in similar situations. The agency is required to follow the court's decision unless and until it is overruled by a higher court or the agency changes the relevant policy through formal rulemaking procedures. In summary, a reviewing court's decision can have a significant impact on an agency's policies and practices, and can influence how the agency will act in future cases. This is an important mechanism for maintaining accountability and ensuring that agencies comply with the law and protect the rights of individuals and communities.
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Discuss at least three points that qualify an organization, a domestic terror group.
An organization is known as domestic terror group if it uses violence or threats of violence to intimidate civilians or the government for political or ideological purposes.
What qualifies as a domestic terror group?These domestic terror group are groups tat often operate within the country where they seek to cause harm and promote fear among the population. The use of violence is often a key factor in distinguishing domestic terrorism from other forms of political activism or protest.
It is important to note that classification of organization as a domestic terror group is a legal designation and must meet specific criteria established by law enforcement and government agencies.
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While testifying on the stand in his breach of contract suit, Constantine admitted that he sold land to Felipe. This is known as a(n) _______.
While testifying on the stand in his breach of contract suit, Constantine admitted that he sold land to Felipe. This is known as admission.
An admission is a statement made by a party to a lawsuit, which is against their own interest, and can be used as evidence against them in court. In this case, Constantine's admission that he sold land to Felipe may be used as evidence that he breached a contract, if one existed between the two parties, and that Felipe is entitled to damages as a result. Admissions can be made verbally, in writing, or even implied through the actions of a party. They are a powerful tool in litigation and can often be the deciding factor in a case. It is important for parties to be careful in what they say or do, as any admission made can have significant consequences in court.
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the first court to hear a criminal case involving a violation of state law is called a(n) court. group of answer choices supreme trial advisory appellate
Answer:
The first court to hear a criminal case involving a violation of state law is called a trial court.
The first court to hear a criminal case involving a violation of state law is usually known as a trial court. It hears all the evidence and arguments from both parties. Different types of courts, such as appellate or supreme courts, serve other functions.
Explanation:The first court to hear a criminal case involving a violation of state law is often called a trial court. In the American legal system, the trial court is the first court that takes up a case and hears all the evidence and arguments presented by both sides. It is different from appellate courts which hear appeals of decisions made by the trial courts. Supreme courts are typically the highest appellate court in a jurisdiction and advisory courts provide advice rather than ruling on actual cases.
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T/F----One of the primary goals as written in our Constitution is to secure employment, there by providing a means to secure and improve the lives of our members and their families.
False. While the Constitution does address the need to provide for the general welfare of its citizens, including the promotion of domestic tranquility and the common defense, it does not explicitly state that securing employment is a primary goal.
However, various policies and initiatives put forth by the government, such as job creation programs and labor protections, aim to support and improve the lives of workers and their families through employment opportunities. Overall, the Constitution provides a framework for governing the country and protecting the rights and freedoms of its citizens, but it is up to the government and society as a whole to work towards creating a thriving and equitable economy that benefits all members.
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What term is required in an enabling act before a reviewing court will enforce formal rulemaking procedures?
The term "formal rulemaking procedures" is required in an enabling act before a reviewing court will enforce the rulemaking process. This ensures that the agency follows the proper steps in creating regulations and allows for the reviewing court to ensure that the process was followed correctly.
The term required in an enabling act before a reviewing court will enforce formal rulemaking procedures is "substantive rules" or "legislative rules." These rules have the force of law and are typically created through a formal rulemaking process, which includes public notice and comment. When an agency creates substantive rules, it is exercising the authority granted to it by the enabling act. A reviewing court will enforce these rules if they are properly promulgated and within the scope of the agency's authority.
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A state law creates a duty of care upon person (natural or legal). A person violates the state law and damages another person. The state has criminal liability. What special negligence doctorine is this?
This is an example of criminal negligence. Criminal negligence is a legal concept that refers to conduct that is so careless or reckless that it constitutes a criminal offense.
The person who violated the state law and caused harm to another person would be considered criminally negligent because their behavior was so reckless or careless that it rose to the level of criminal activity. Under criminal negligence, a person can be held criminally liable for their actions, which means that they may face criminal charges and potential penalties, such as fines or imprisonment. Criminal negligence is often used in cases involving serious injury or death, as the consequences of the negligence can be severe. In contrast, civil negligence is a legal concept that refers to conduct that falls below the standard of care expected of a reasonable person and results in harm to another person. Civil negligence can result in a civil lawsuit, in which the injured party can seek compensation for their damages.
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What did the Democratic Peace thesis find?
The Democratic Peace thesis is a theory in international relations that suggests that democracies are less likely to go to war with one another compared to non-democracies.
The thesis finds that democracies are more peaceful and cooperative with each other because of shared norms, institutions, and practices that promote peaceful conflict resolution, such as diplomatic negotiation and international law.
Empirical studies have provided evidence to support the Democratic Peace thesis. For example, research has shown that democratic states are more likely to resolve disputes with each other through peaceful means, such as negotiations and mediation, and are less likely to initiate military conflicts. However, the theory does not suggest that democracies are inherently peaceful or that they are immune to conflict.
Critics of the Democratic Peace thesis argue that it oversimplifies the complex causes of war and ignores the role of other factors, such as economic interests, strategic considerations, and historical grievances. Nevertheless, the theory has become an influential idea in international relations and has contributed to the promotion of democracy and peace around the world.
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What must you prove in a successful promissory estoppel case?
In a successful promissory estoppel case, you must prove that there was a clear and definite promise made by one party to another and that the promise relied on that promise to their detriment.
.
Promissory estoppel is a legal principle that allows a party to recover damages for relying on a promise made by another party, even if the promise was not supported by consideration or a binding contract. In a promissory estoppel case, the party seeking damages must prove that the other party made a clear and definite promise, that the promisee relied on the promise to their detriment, and that injustice would result if the promise were not enforced. A well-known example of a promissory estoppel case is the case of Hoffman v. Red Owl Stores, Inc., where a court found that a grocery store had made a clear and definite promise to a franchisee that they would provide guidance and assistance and that the franchisee had relied on this promise to their detriment. The court ordered the grocery store to compensate the franchisee for their losses.
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bill is introduced in either house of the florida legislature step 2 the bill is sent to committee, which reports favorably step 3 the bill is discussed and approved by a majority of the house step 4 ? step 5 the bill is sent to the governor for signature.
After understanding the process you've described, here's the complete sequence of steps for a bill in the Florida Legislature: Step 1: A bill is introduced in either house of the Florida Legislature. Step 2: The bill is sent to a committee, which reports favorably, other steps are ahead:
Step 3: The bill is discussed and approved by a majority of the house in which it was introduced. Step 4: The bill is sent to the other house of the Florida Legislature for review, discussion, and approval by a majority vote. Step 5: The bill is sent to the governor for signature.
The bill is sent to the governor for signature. If the governor signs the bill, it becomes law. If the governor vetoes the bill, it can still become law if two-thirds of both houses vote to override the veto. If the governor takes no action on the bill for a certain period of time (usually 7-10 days), the bill automatically becomes law without the governor's signature.
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True or False? The United States has implemented a version of the DMCA law called the Database Right, in order to comply with Directive 95/46/EC.
False. The United States has not implemented a version of the DMCA law called the Database Right in order to comply with Directive 95/46/EC.
The DMCA (Digital Millennium Copyright Act) is a United States copyright law that criminalizes production and dissemination of technology, devices, or services intended to circumvent measures (commonly known as Digital Rights Management or DRM) that control access to copyrighted works. The Database Right, on the other hand, is a European Union directive that provides legal protection to databases. While both laws deal with intellectual property, they are separate and distinct laws with different purposes and provisions. It is worth noting that the United States and the European Union have different approaches to data protection and intellectual property rights, and compliance with one jurisdiction's laws does not necessarily mean compliance with the other's.
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