Which equation represents the data in the table?

Answer:

F=8

Step-by-step explanation:

6f=48

Divide each side by 6

f=8

Substiuite

8x6=48??

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplifying 6f = 48 Solving 6f = 48 Solving for variable 'f'. Move all terms containing f to the left, all other terms to the right. Divide each side by '6'. f = 8 Simplifying f = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 4

2x + 3y = 6

1) 2x + (3 x 4) = 6

2) 2x + 12 = 6

3) 2x = -6

4) x = -3

Answer:

1. 2x + 3(4) = 6, 2. 2x + 12 = 6, 3. 2x = -6, 4. x = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: 2x + 3(4) = 6
Step 2: 2x + 12 = 6
Step 3: 2x = -6
Step 4: x = -3

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

The quotient of these numbers is 1.7 × 10⁴

Scientifically in the notion, these would be the correct numbers.

The quotient of the given numbers is 1.7×10⁴.

Scientific notation is a method for expressing a given quantity as a number having significant digits necessary for a specified degree of accuracy, multiplied by 10 to the appropriate power such as 1.56×10⁷.

The given numbers are 7.14×10⁷ and 4.2×10³.

Here, quotient = 7.14×10⁷ ÷ 4.2×10³

= 1.7×10⁴

Therefore, the quotient of the given numbers is 1.7×10⁴.

To learn more about the Scientific notation visit:

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Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

Given in comment:

5,4,3,2 = Spinner

Thus, there are 4 possible answer

Given:

If you spin the spinner twice, what is the probability that the spinner will land on 5 on the first spin and 2 on the second spin?

1/16

3/16

1/8

1/4

Solve:

Knowing that there only One 5 and One 2 on the spinner.

Thus, in fraction form - 1/4 and 1/4

Probability land on 5 = 1/4

Probability land on 2 = 1/4

Because there are 4 possible solution and one of each is 5,4,3,2

Now, multiply then together:

1/4 × 1/4 = {1 ×1 = 1 and 4 × 4 = 16}

Put Together:

1/16

Hence, the answer is " The Probability that the spinner will land on 5 on the first spin and 2 on the second spin is 1/16  

~Lenvy~

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

so, per your additional information the "spinner" has 4 possible results : 5, 4, 3 ,2

I guess, they are like the six numbers on a die equally probable.

that means the probabilty to get one of the 4 possible answers is 1/4 (desired outcomes over all possible outcomes).

now, to make the experiment twice and link the results as one desired outcome (like a 5 and a 2, or two 4s, or ...), we can multiply the probabilities as combined events without overlapping.

why ?

similar to a die with 6 possible results, we have here for every one of the 4 possible results of the first spin, we have 4 possible results of the second spin.

so, the probability of one particular set of 2 results is

1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16

in other words, it is 1/4 to get 5 on the second spin, and 1/4 to get 2 on the second spin. because we want both to happen as one desired result, both events have to happen as combination (and not as "or"). hence the multiplication.

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

What is 1 half (1/2) multiplied by (4+8) equal?

1/2*(8+4) <== add the number in the parenthesis

1/2*12 <== multiply the numbers, half of 12 is 6

6 <== final answer

Hope this helps!

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope the pic will help

Answer:

1.6 × [tex]10^{10}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

( 4 × [tex]10^{5}[/tex] )( 4 × [tex]10^{4}[/tex] ) = ( 4 · 4 ) × ( [tex]10^{5}[/tex] · [tex]10^{4}[/tex] ) = 16 × [tex]10^{4+5}[/tex] = ( 1.6 × [tex]10^{1}[/tex] ) × [tex]10^{9}[/tex] = 1.6 × [tex]10^{10}[/tex]

Answer:

- 16f - 12

Step-by-step explanation:

- 4(4f + 3) ← multiply each term in the parenthesis by - 4

= - 16f - 12

Hello!

In order to simplify this expression, we should use the Distributive Property and distribute -4:

-4(4f+3)

-16f-12

Note:

[tex]\square[/tex] A negative times a negative is a positive.

Hope everything is clear.

Let me know if you have any questions!

#KeepOnLearning

Answer:

ice cream 3

coffee 5

................

Answer:

coffee is $5 each and $3 for ice cream

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

We already know that Joslynn makes $8.25 per hour.

Equation:

123.75 divided by 8.25= worked hours

123.75 divided by 8.25 = 15 hours

So last week Joslynn worked 15 hours to make $123.75.

Hey there!

-6×2×9y = 7y-4+4-690

=> Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

(((−6)(2))(9))(y)=7y−4+4−690

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

(((−6)(2))(9))(y)=7y−4+4−690

−108y=7y+−4+4+−690

−108y=(7y)+(−4+4+−690)(Combine Like Terms)

−108y=7y+−690

−108y=7y−690

Step 2: Subtract 7y from both sides.

−108y−7y=7y−690−7y

−115y=−690

Step 3: Divide both sides by -115.

−115y/−115 = −690/−115

y=6

Answer:

y=6

Therefore, the value of y = 6

Answer:

y=6

Step-by-step explanation:

(((−6)(2))(9))(y)=7y−4+4−690

−108y=7y+−4+4+−690

−108y=(7y)+(−4+4+−690)

−108y=7y+−690

−108y=7y−690

Subtract 7y from both sides.

−108y−7y=7y−690−7y

−115y=−690

Step 3: Divide both sides by -115.

−115y      -690

−115         -115

y=6

I hope this helped!! If so please mark brainliest and rate my answer <33

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Their angles are the same and the shapes are similar.

Answer:

Yes they do.

Step-by-step explanation:

All of the angles are the same shape and size therefore are equal to each other.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 3 buses

Step-by-step explanation:

40 divided by 14 is 2.85714285714 buses well you cant have 3/4 of a bus so you round it up to 3 buses

Some examples of he most common types of retirement accounts are:

The 401 (k) is a type of requirement plan that allows employees to contribute a percentage of their wages to individual accounts. Some of it's features are:

The term 401(k) is derived from the section of the US Internal Revenue Code that established the 401(k) retirement plan.

SEP is the accronym for Simplified Employee Pension. SEP IRA is a retirement savings plan a sort of domesticated plan that employers created to the advantage of themselves and their employees.

The advantages of the SEP IRA are:

Learn more about Retirement Plans at:
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Answer:

4 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

the 9 part of the ratio relates to 18 feet , then

18 ÷ 9 = 2 feet ← value of 1 part of the ratio , then

2 parts = 2 × 2 feet = 4 feet ← length on scale drawing

Answer: 4.25

Step-by-step explanation:

First day: 60 × 5.5 = 330

Second day: 585 - 330 = 225 ÷ 60 = 4.25

Answer:

s so you're going to divide when you going to divide 95 why you take it to the other side it will become 95 * 450 equals to 42750 / 9 when we divide 42750 / 9 to give you 4750 that is your answe

Answer:

12 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

19 - 4 = 15

15/1.25 = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

common ratio is usually used for geometric sequences.

every term is created by multiplying the previous term by a certain constant factor (= common ratio).

this factor or common ratio is in our case 4.

such a sequence is a function f(x) for x being whole numbers.

a0 = 1

a1 = a0×4 = 1×4 = 4

a2 = a1×4 = 4×4 = 16

...

an = 4^n

as general function that is then

f(x) = 4^x

a horizontal shift right by 6 units means that now the functional value of x is the same as it was for (x-6) before the shift.

e.g. f_new(6) = f_old(0)

so, the function is

f(x) = 4^(x - 6) or (4^x)/4⁶

Answer:

3x+4<13

Answer:The solution is in the attached file

Step-by-step explanation:

The length of the bridge is 12.12 feet.

The length the dog swam is 32.36 feet.

The situation forms a right angle triangle.

A right angle triangle has one of its angles as 90 degrees. Therefore, the sides and angle can be found using trigonometric ratios.

The length of the bridge is the opposite side of the triangle and the length the dog swim is the hypotenuse side of the triangle.

Therefore,

Let's find the length of the bridge as follows:

tan 68° = opposite / adjacent

tan 68° = 30 / l

cross multiply

l = 30 / tan 68

l = 12.1212121212

length of the bridge = 12.12 ft

The length the dog swim is as follows:

sin 68°= opposite / hypotenuse

sin 68° = 30 / h

h = 30 / sin 68

h = 32.3561767942

The distance the dog swimmed = 32.36 ft

learn more on right triangle here: https://brainly.com/question/22734914

Answer:

54.98 cm squared

To find the area of the shaded region, we first need to know the area of the entire figure and the area of the circle.

To find the area of the circle, we use the formula pi times r^2

r is the radius, which can be found by multiplying the diameter by 1/2

1/2 x 16 = 8

Now we have pi times 8^2

8^2 = 64

Now we have pi times 64

Let's say that pi = 3.141 in this situation. We could be more exact and say 3.14159265... but that is probably not what your teacher wants.

64 x 3.141 = 201.024

So, we have the area of the circle.

Now we need the area of the entire figure.

Well, that's just length times width.

16 x 16 = 256

So, to find the area of the shaded region, we just have to find the difference between 256 and 201.024

256 - 201.024 = 54.976

We can round that to 54.98, or if you want, to 55.

[tex]p = 2(l + w)[/tex]

[tex]p = 2(2x - 2 + 2x + 2)[/tex]

[tex]p = 2(4x)[/tex]

[tex]p = 8x[/tex]

Answer: 12 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$0.22/foot

Step-by-step explanation:

Setting up the equation:

⇒ 6 yards of aluminum wire costs $3.96

⇒ 6 yards = $3.96

Simplifying the equation in cost/foot:

⇒ 6 yards = 6(3) feet = 18 feet = $3.96                                  (1 yard = 3 feet)

⇒ 18 feet = $3.96

⇒ 1 foot = $3.96/18 = $0.22

Answer:

$0.22

Step-by-step explanation:

6 yards costs $3.96

Therefore, to find the cost of 1 yard, divide the cost of 6 yards by 6:

⇒ 1 yard = $3.96 ÷ 6

              = $0.66

1 yard = 3 feet

Therefore, to find the cost of 1 foot, divide the cost of 1 yards by 3:

⇒ Price per foot = $0.66 ÷ 3

                           = $0.22

Answer:

y intercept:(0,-13)
x intercept: (13/5,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

The way we find intercepts (both x and y) is to plug in zero.

x int:

We set y to 0:

0=5x-13

add thirteen to both sides

13=5x

x=13/5

y int:

set x to zero

y=5(0)-13

y= - 13