which of the following characteristics of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (hdfn) is not different for abo and rh hdfn?

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Answer 1

Everybody has a blood classification (A, B, Stomach muscle, O), and Rh factor (Rh-positive or Rh-negative), as well as numerous other extraordinary proteins, on the outer layer of the red platelets.

For ABO inconsistency, the impacts are typically gentle and disappear with time, however with Rh contradiction, the outcomes can be intense. A child can be brought into the world with serious jaundice, portrayed by a development of a substance called bilirubin.

In spite of the fact that it is every now and again present in the serum of pregnant ladies, hostile to Lea isn't by and large connected with HDFN for two reasons; hostile to Lea is most frequently IgM and in this manner, it doesn't cross the placenta.

HDFN happens when there is a crisscross (inconsistency) between the mother's and child's blood classification or potentially Rh factor.

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Answer 2

The best way to observe and track the severity of fetal and newborn hemolytic illness is through infant testing (hdfn).

The DAT with Ig G reagent is the most crucial serologic test for the prediction of HDFN. A massive DAT is no longer a diagnosis for HDFN; instead, it reflects sensitization of fetal red cells. The DAT effects need to be understood in the context of science. This enables action to be taken before symptoms appear. Most of the conditions are quite uncommon, but they can be treated if caught early. The kind of new kid screening tests that are conducted vary from country to country. An key tool for identifying is the direct antiglobulin test (DAT).

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is a crucial tool for diagnosing newborn hemolytic disease (HDN) brought on by erythrocyte vaccination. Despite the fact that this test has been in use for many years, there are few accurate insights on its diagnostic capabilities and best application inside the prognosis of HDN. With the help of erythrocyte eluate screening, we evaluated the DAT for HDN in order to gain further insight into its diagnostic capabilities.

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Related Questions

bacteria culture a culture of the bacterium rhodobacter sphaeroides initially has 25 bacteria and t hours later increases at a rate of 3.4657e0.1386t population size after four hours.

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Bacteria culture a culture of the bacterium rhodobacter sphaeroides initially has 25 bacteria and t hours later increases at a rate of 3.4657e0.1386t bacteria per hour, so the population size after four hours is 44.

A procedure for determining if you're suffering from a bacterial infection is a bacteria culture. A sampling of blood, faeces, urine, or spinal fluid may be used for the test. A healthcare professional can choose the best suitable course of therapy utilizing this kind of sample to detect what brought on the infection.

A type of purple bacterium which can produce energy using photosynthesis is called Rhodobacter sphaeroides. In the lack of light, anaerobic phototrophy and aerobic chemoheterotrophy are the optimal development environments for it.

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bacteria culture a culture of the bacterium rhodobacter sphaeroides initially has 25 bacteria and t hours later increases at a rate of 3.4657e0.1386t bacteria per hour. Find the population size after four hours.

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which statement correctly describes the nuclear envelope of a eukaryotic cell? view available hint(s)for part a which statement correctly describes the nuclear envelope of a eukaryotic cell? plasmodesmata in the nuclear envelope permit the exchange of macromolecules between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. the nuclear envelope is a single membrane, consisting of a phospholipid bilayer. the outer layer of the nuclear envelope is lined with a lamina. the nuclear envelope is continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum. all of the proteins of the cell are synthesized on ribosomes bound on the nuclear envelope.

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The statement which is true for a eukaryotic cell's nuclear envelope is a phospholipid bilayer makes up the whole membrane that makes up the nuclear envelope .

Eukaryotic cells have a more sophisticated structure than prokaryotic cells, which should be obvious by this time. Organelles enable multiple processes to take place simultaneously in the cell. Let's first explore the plasma membrane and the cytoplasm of the eukaryotic cell before talking about the roles of the organelles within the cell  Plasmonic Membrane Eukaryotic cells, like prokaryotes, have a plasma membrane that is composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins and serves to separate the inside of the cell from the external environment. A phospholipid is a lipid molecule made up of a phosphate group, a glycerol backbone, and two fatty acid chains. In order to maintain internal conditions, the plasma membrane actively brings in or removes some substances while actively regulating the passage of others, such as organic molecules, ions, and water.

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are visual pigments that respond to different wavelengths of light and allow for color vision in vertebrates. tetrapods vary in the wavelengths to which they are sensitive because they have different numbers and variants of these pigments. we can infer from this phylogeny that the tetrapo

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Visual pigments in vertebrates emerged approximately 500 million years ago, prior to the crucial evolutionary step of jaw development.

Through gene duplication, four spectrally distinct classes of cone opsin evolved, followed by the rod opsin class, which arose from the duplication of the middle-wave-sensitive cone opsin. Many modern teleost fish, reptiles, and birds have all four cone types, while one or more classes have been lost in primitive fish, amphibians, and mammals. Because of gene duplication within the cone classes, particularly in teleosts, numerous opsins are available during development, both temporally and geographically.

Humans have four distinct vision pigments, with maximum wavelengths of 414, 497, 530, and 560 nm. Lights in the 400-700 nm range are thus considered.

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Invertebrates first developed visual pigments around 500 million years ago, before the creation of the jaw, which was a key evolutionary step for vertebrates.

Four spectrally diverse classes of cone opsins developed by gene duplication, which was followed by the emergence of the rod opsin class from the duplication of the middle-wave-sensitive cone opsin. In contrast to archaic fish, amphibians, and mammals, many modern teleost fish, reptiles, and birds have all four cone kinds.

Numerous opsins are accessible during development, both temporally and spatially, as a result of gene duplication within the cone classes, especially in teleosts. Maximum wavelengths of the four different vision pigments in humans are 414, 497, 530, and 560 nm. Thus, lights between 400 and 700 nm are taken into account.

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For each scenario below, decide if it is describing a theory or a hypothesis and classify it accordingly. Hypothesis Theory Research has demonstrated that all living things have a common ancestor. Years of evidence have demonstrated that all living things are comprised of cells. Book Print ferences A scientist notices that a certain mold is Inhibiting bacterial growth and suggests that the mold is producing antibiotic substances A researcher notices that her plant has stopped growing and wonders if it could be because of a lack of sunlight These are plausible explanations for a single natural event These are accepted explanations for how the world works

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A hypothesis in a logical setting is a testable assertion about the connection between at least two factors or a proposed clarification for some noticed peculiarity.

Straightforward speculation is something said to mirror the connection between precisely two factors. One autonomous and one ward. Consider the model, "Smoking is an unmistakable reason for the cellular breakdown in the lungs." The reliant variable, cellular breakdown in the lungs, is subject to the free factor, smoking.

Hypothesis expresses your expectations about what your exploration will find. It is a provisional solution to your exploration question that has not yet been tried. For some examination projects, you could need to compose a few speculations that address various parts of your exploration question.

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what types of cells can viruses infect? please list and give a description of what each of those cells are.

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Bacteria, archaea, fungi, plants, mammals, and even bacterial cells are all susceptible to virus infection. Living things develop, metabolise, and generate offspring. Viruses are able to multiply only with the assistance of their host cells.

The only place a virus can multiply is inside the live cells of a creature. Viruses are submicroscopic infectious agents. Animals, plants, and microorganisms such as bacteria and archaea are all susceptible to virus infection. Since Dmitri Ivanovsky's 1892 publication revealing a non-bacterial disease affecting tobacco plants and Martinus Beijerinck's 1898 discovery of the tobacco mosaic virus, more than 9,000 virus species have been characterised in detail out of the millions of different types of viruses in the environment. The most prevalent category of biological organism, viruses can be found in practically all ecosystems on Earth. Virolology, a branch of microbiology, is the study of viruses. A host cell is frequently compelled to create thousands of copies of the original virus quickly after becoming infected.

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fill in the blank. wilkins and franklin studied the structure of dna using___, a technique to examine molecules, and helped watson and crick determined that the shape of the molecule was a .

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Wilkins and franklin studied the structure of dna using X-ray diffraction, a technique to examine molecules, and helped watson and crick determined that the shape of the molecules was a Double Helix.

X-rays diffraction through the molecule yielded a shadow picture of the molecule's structure by the X-rays bounced off its component parts.In 1953, this technique was discovered by Watson and Crick about DNA that marked a milestone of science and gave rise to modern molecular biology.

X-ray diffraction  is defines as a widely used technique to assess the crystallinity and structure of solid samples. The process of scattering in which X-rays are scattered by the electrons of atoms present in the sample without changing the wavelength.It is the optical power instrument's ability to produce separate images of two adjacent points.

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Which describes the gyres in the northern hemisphere

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Answer:

The gyres in the northern hemisphere describe the large systems of rotating ocean currents that flow clockwise in the Atlantic and counterclockwise in the Pacific and Indian Oceans.

in achieving stable molecular configurations, which of these five atoms will bond with the fewest number of hydrogen atoms, and which will bond with the most? oxygen will bond with the fewest number of hydrogen atoms (2); phosphorus will bond with the most (5). both oxygen and sulfur will bond with the fewest number of hydrogen atoms (2); carbon will bond with the most (4). both phosphorus and sulfur will bond with the fewest number of hydrogen atoms (2); nitrogen will bond with the most (5). nitrogen will bond with the fewest number of hydrogen atoms (3); sulfur will bond with the most (6).

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Carbon will bond with the majority of hydrogen atoms, whereas oxygen and sulphur will bond with the least (2).

(4). Chemical bonds, also known as electrical forces, may be categorised into five different groups: ionic, covalent, metallic, van der Waals, & hydrogen bonds. Two oxygen atoms are bound together by a covalent connection to form the diatomic molecule known as molecular oxygen (O2). Many organic compounds contain the carbon-hydrogen bond (C-H bond), which is a chemical link between hydrogen and carbon atoms. Since there is just one covalent link present, up to four hydrogen atoms can share the outer valence electrons that belong to carbon. Hydrogen bonds develop between nearby oxygen and hydrogen of adjacent water molecules in the case of water.

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Which of the following reaction elements can be changed by an enzyme?

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The activation energy. (An enzyme lowers the amount of energy required to get the reactants to the transition state.)

The application of the comparative method in his research in Papua New Guinea led coauthor Robert Welsch to focus on

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Robert Welsch, a coauthor, focused on mask collectors, villagers, and museum collections as a result of using the comparative approach during his research in Papua New Guinea. Therefore, option b is right.

In anthropology, the comparative method helps the researcher to test hypotheses about the relations between the aspects of cultural systems by using data and information from other societies. This helps them to make comparisons between people and their past and present culture, related species, and fossils. This helps to understand one's customs and culture by studying their cultural background.

By speaking with village elders in several villages, reading published and unpublished descriptions of mask collectors who visited various villages, and examining museum collections, the coauthor Robert Welsch can understand the villagers in Papua New Guinea.

The complete question -

The application of the comparative method in his research in Papua New Guinea led coauthor Robert Welsch to focus on

(a) published and unpublished accounts of mask collectors who visited different villages

(b) all of the answers are correct

(c) interviews of village elders in different villages

(d) museum collections

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Based on Roe v. Wade, the second trimester of a pregnancy involves ______. a state's right to regulate abortion procedure in ways reasonably related to.

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Based on Roe v. Wade, the second trimester of a pregnancy involves a state's right to regulate abortion procedure in ways reasonably related to.

it stated that for the first trimester of Pregancy, the decision for abortion can be taken by the physician or the women itself.

From the second trimester, the decision of abortion is usually taken on the basis of health of women before and after abortion or the faced consequences.

as for the second trimester, the state could regulate (but not outlaw) abortions in the interests of the mother’s health. as the fetus is viable, if the mother life is in danger there is a need to preserve life.

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FILL IN THE BLANK the plants that will be able to reach the interior of the pumice plain first are likely to be seeds with cotyledons and have ______dispersed seeds.

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Answer:

The plants that will be able to reach the interior of the pumice plain first are likely to be seeds with cotyledons and have wind dispersed seeds.

match the phrases to the term thy describe to test understanding of the structure of antibody molecule

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The correct phrase with the term to test the understanding of the structure of antibody molecule:

1. The two arms that bind to antigen: Fab

2. Part of antibody involved in binding to various cells and molecules of the immune response: Fc

3. Region between Fab and Fc that allows swivelling of the Fab: H-inge region

4. Holds polypeptide chains together: Disulfide bonds

Аn аntibody, аlso known аs аn immunoglobulin, is а Y-shаped structure which consists of four polypeptides - two heаvy chаins аnd two light chаins. This structure аllows аntibody molecules to cаrry out their duаl functions: аntigen binding аnd biologicаl аctivity mediаtion.

Eаch function is cаrried out by different pаrts of the аntibody: frаgment аntigen-binding (Fab frаgment) аnd frаgment crystаllizаble region (Fc region).

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your question can see in the Attachment.

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which of the following statements is most correct? (mito: mitochondria) the electron transport chain -

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In chloroplasts, protons are pumped into the stroma in the direction of the thylakoid space by the electron transport chain.

Pyruvate is promoted into the Krebs cycle within the inner mitochondrial membrane when oxygen is present. Protons are removed during the Krebs cycle and then injected back into the intermembrane gap of the mitochondria against its gradient. Pumping protons (hydrogen ions) through the intermembrane gap is the fundamental goal of moving electrons along the electron transport chain. As a result, the cell preferentially permits hydrogen ions to re-enter the mitochondrial matrix, where it utilises the gradient created to produce ATP.

Consequently, a final proton pump is developed, which directly pumps two protons into the mitochondria through the matrix and cytochrome complex IV.

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which of the following distinguishes a human cell in metaphase of mitosis from a human cell in metaphase ii of meiosis?

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The differences between human cell in metaphase of mitosis from a human cell in metaphase ii of meiosis are

Meiosis's metaphase differs from that of mitosis. Only metaphase-I allows for observation of the difference. The appearance of metaphase-II is comparable to that of mitosis.

When in metaphase II and the metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes only reside on one plate near the equator. Metaphase I and the mitosis-related metaphase are the same.

The above stated statements are differences between human cell in metaphase of mitosis from a human cell in metaphase ii of meiosis

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which of the following are characteristics shared by all living things, a fact that supports the conclusion of common ancestry?

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Similarities between biological molecules, like structural homologies, can reveal shared evolutionary ancestry. At their most fundamental level, all living things share: similar genetic makeup (DNA) genetic sequences that are identical or very close.

What does ancestry mean?

Ancestry is the term used to describe a person's ethnic background , descent, "roots," or ancestry, as well as the place of the person's birth, the birthplace of their parents, or the birthplace of their ancestors before they immigrated to the United States. Therefore, the phrase "genealogical ancestry" refers to forebears who may be identified in a family tree and pedigree. It is frequently quantified; for instance, if one of your eight great-grandparents belongs to X, you would refer to yourself as "one eighth X."

What does ancestry check for?

These tests examine a person's complete genome and a huge number of individual changes (also known as single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs). To assess a person's ethnic heritage, the outcomes are compared to related SNPs in a testing database.

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What are your thoughts on the concept of citizen science, and what projects/activities from SciStarter caught your eye? Would you say you personally connect more with the idea of doing scientific research, doing citizen science, or none of the above? Why?

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Citizen science is an innovative concept that involves the participation of members of the public in scientific research. This concept can be beneficial for both the public and the scientific community.

By involving the public in scientific research, citizen science can increase scientific literacy, foster a sense of community, and provide valuable data that would be difficult or impossible to obtain through traditional scientific methods.

Yes, I Would say that I personally connect more with the idea of doing scientific research, doing citizen science, as it will help to ring about safe research.

What is the citizen science?

eBird: This project allows people to submit observations of birds they've seen and heard. These observations are then used to track bird populations, migration patterns, and distribution.

Project BudBurst: This project allows people to observe and record the timing of leafing, flowering, and fruiting of plants in their local area. This information is then used to study the effects of climate change on plant phenology.

In conclusion, citizen science can be an effective way to engage the public in scientific research and promote scientific literacy. It can also provide valuable data that would be difficult or impossible to obtain through traditional scientific methods.

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Organisms such as coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, and alpha streptococcus species are all found on the skin and represent normal skin flora. All of the following are functions of normal skin flora EXCEPT?
A. They provide substances that are toxic to other organisms
B. They inhibit growth of more harmful microorganisms
C. They provide a level immunity to protect against the formation of infections
D. They aid in the transmission of nosocomial infections

Answers

All of the following are functions of normal skin flora EXCEPT They aid in the transmission of nosocomial infections i.e. option(D)

Nosocomial infections, or infections acquired in a healthcare setting, are not often linked to the transmission of normal skin flora. Instead, healthy skin flora contributes to skin health by preventing the growth of harmful microbes, competing with them for nutrients and space, and creating enzymes and other compounds that can aid in the breakdown and removal of dead skin cells and other surface detritus.

Therefore, functions of normal skin flora EXCEPT They aid in the transmission of nosocomial infections i.e.option(D)

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please helppp
and please put numbers beside it so it's in order thank you, ​

Answers

Answer:

A - throposphere, B - stratosphere, C - mesosphere, D - thermosphere

Explanation:

red line shows temperature change

Two parents who are each known to be carriers of an autosomal recessive allele have four children. None of the children has the recessive condition. What is the probability that two or more of the children are carriers of the recessive allele?

Answers

The likelihood that one or more of the children is a carrier is equal to the sum of all probabilities minus the likelihood that none of the children is a carrier. The correct answer is 0.988.

Because both parents are carriers, they are heterozygous.

aa* aa —à AA, aa, aa

The likelihood of becoming Aa is 2/3. (because one is recessive)

The likelihood of not being a carrier is = 1/3.

The likelihood that one or more of the four offspring are carriers of the recessive gene (meaning at least one) is = 1 - (probability of none of the children is a carrier)

= 1 – (1/3)^4 = 0.988

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flower position, stem length, and seed shape are three characters that mendel studied. each is controlled by an independently assorting gene and has dominant and recessive expression as follows:

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flower position, stem length, and seed shape are three characters that mendel studied. each is controlled by an independently assorting gene and has dominant and recessive expression as follows:

Character            Dominant                Recessive

Flower                 Position Axial (A)    Terminal (a)

Stem Length       Tall (T)                      Dwarf (t)

Seed Shape         Round (R)                Wrinkled (r)

Different genes independently separate from one another when reproductive cells develop, according to the Principle of Independent Assortment. When Gregor Mendel originally studied genetics in pea shops in 1865, he discovered the independent multifariousness of genes and the rates that go on with them. Mendel conducted trihybrid crosses, which are unions of organisms that vary in two traits. When he crossed different organisms, he set up that the particularity combinations in the get didn't inescapably correspond to the particularity combinations in the maternal organisms. He created the Principle of Independent multifariousness using the information he had. As of moment, we're apprehensive that in eukaryotes, meiosis is when this different collection of separate genes happens.

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in drosophila, gray body color (g) is dominant over ebony body color (g), while long wings (l) are dominant over vestigial wings (l). work the following crosses through the f2 generation, and determine the genotypic and phenotypic ratios for each generation. the cross we're using is gray, long x ebony, vestigial (both homozygous)

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The cross being used is gray, long x ebony, vestigial (both homozygous).

F1 generation:

All offspring will be gray and long-winged (GgLl) because gray (G) and long wings (L) are dominant over ebony and vestigial wings.

F2 generation:

The genotypic ratio for the F2 generation will be 1GgLl : 2Ggl : 2Ggl : 1ggllThe phenotypic ratio for the F2 generation will be 3 gray, long-winged: 1 gray, vestigial-winged: 1 ebony, long-winged: 1 ebony, vestigial-winged

The F1 generation will be all gray and long-winged because gray and long wings are dominant. The F2 generation will have a 3:1 ratio of gray, long-winged to gray, vestigial-winged, and a 1:1 ratio of ebony, long-winged to ebony, vestigial-winged.

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exercise sigma bonding question content area sigma bonds can form between different types of orbitals. the main criterion for sigma bond formation is that the two bonded atoms have valence orbitals with lobes that point directly at each other along the line between the two nuclei. the images below show the shapes of two orbitals on adjacent atoms. choose all of the combinations that will lead to formation of a sigma bond. (select all that apply.)

Answers

The none of these combination provided in the option can form sigma bond since its bonded atoms have valence orbitals with lobes that point directly at each other along the line between the two nuclei.

Which orbitals constitute the sigma bond?

A covalent relationship known as a sigma bond is established when atomic orbitals and/or hybrid orbitals overlap one another on the bond axis (i.e., along a line connected the two bonded atoms). The overlap of two 1s orbitals, one from each hydrogen atom, leads to the formation of the sigma bond in a hydrogen molecule (shown in red).

Can two sp3 orbitals form sigma bonds?

These sp3 hybrid orbitals serve as the foundation for all bonding. The overlap of the sp3 hybrid orbitals with the hydrogen 1s atomic orbitals leads to the creation of the C-H and O-H sigma bonds. The sp3 hybrid orbitals on every atom overlap to create the CC and CO sigma bonds.

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Exercise sigma bonding question content area sigma bonds can form between different types of orbitals. the main criterion for sigma bond formation is that the two bonded atoms have valence orbitals with lobes that point directly at each other along the line between the two nuclei. the images below show the shapes of two orbitals on adjacent atoms. choose all of the combinations that will lead to formation of a sigma bond. (select all that apply.)

Options are marked to be A,B,C,D,E,F based on figure.

assuming independent assortment, why did mendel expect a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes for each of the three traits in the trihybrid cross? assuming independent assortment, why did mendel expect a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes for each of the three traits in the trihybrid cross? mendel predicted that when inherited together, the three traits in the trihybrid cross would always sort dominant allele with dominant allele and recessive allele with recessive allele. for these three traits, mendel observed that plants always produced progeny in a 3:1 ratio regardless of the genotypes and phenotypes of the parents. mendel predicted a 3:1 ratio because he was performing a trihybrid cross. the word root tri- means 3. mendel predicted that independently assorting traits in a trihybrid cross would behave the same way that they would if monohybrid crosses were conducted separately for each trait. submitrequest answer

Answers

Mendel predicted a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes for each of the three traits in the trihybrid cross based on the principle of independent assortment.

This principle states that genes for different traits are inherited independently of each other and are passed on to offspring in a random manner. In a trihybrid cross, each trait has two possible alleles, one dominant and one phenotypes recessive. Mendel assumed that each allele traits had an equal chance of being passed on to the offspring, and that the alleles for each trait would be inherited independently of one another. Therefore, the probability of inheriting a specific combination of dominant and recessive phenotypes alleles for the three traits would be (1/2)^3 = 1/8. With 3 dominant alleles and 1 recessive phenotypes  allele, this results in a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes.

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Place the following in order from smallest to largest

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Answer:

Tributary

River

River System

A tributary is the smallest followed by the river and the river system is the largest.

Explanation:

Tributary is a small stream of water that flows into a river. A river is a larger stream of water that flows into a lake, sea or another stream. A river system is a group of rivers that discharges water into a lake or a sea.

The main difference between a tributary and a river is that a river is a large stream that carries water from higher areas to lower areas that gets ended up in an ocean while a tributary is a small river that flows into a larger river.

The river system is a drainage basin or a watershed that consists of the river, it's tributaries and groundwater resources. River systems are areas  of important biodiversity and are also a home to endangered wildlife.

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Which of the following characteristics of a red blood cell increases its ability to carry oxygen to the tissues?
1) Lacking mitochondria, RBCs rely exclusively on anaerobic fermentation to produce ATP.
2) The cytoplasm of an RBC consists mainly of a 33% solution of hemoglobin.
3) RBCs lose nearly all organelles during their development.
4) The cytoplasm also contains an enzyme, carbonic anhydrase.
5) Lacking a nucleus and DNA, RBCs also are incapable of protein synthesis and mitosis.

Answers

RBCs lack mitochondria, hence they can only create ATP by anaerobic fermentation.

Red blood cells were designed to carry oxygen. They feature a bi-concave form that optimizes their contact area to absorb oxygen, a thin membrane that allows gases to readily permeate through it, are small & flexible so they may fit through small vessels, and contain haemoglobin, which binds to oxygen. Red blood cells can bend and stretch, they can cling to certain other cells, and they can communicate with immune cells. Their membrane has a variety of effects on this. The composition of the membrane has a significant impact on these functions. The protein that transports oxygen is called haemoglobin, and it is almost exclusively located in red blood cells (RBCs) rather than dispersed in plasma. Relative to a flat disc of the same size, the cell's biconcave shape has a larger surface area.

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The cytoplasm of red blood cells RBC mainly consists of a 33% solution of hemoglobin these features increase the capacity to carry oxygen to tissues. Here option 2 is the correct answer.

Hemoglobin is an iron-containing protein that binds to oxygen and gives red blood cells their characteristic red color.

The high concentration of hemoglobin in the cytoplasm of red blood cells allows them to carry a large amount of oxygen, which they can then transport to the tissues throughout the body. This characteristic is key to the red blood cells' ability to carry oxygen.

All the other options mentioned are correct as well, but they don't have a direct relationship with the ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. Lacking mitochondria, RBCs rely exclusively on anaerobic fermentation to produce ATP, and RBCs lose nearly all organelles during their development.

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A scientist discovers a putative new life form and notes that the creature's body is bilaterally symmetrical and consequently satisfies the criteria for defining life in which of the following categories?
(a) Evolution.
(b) Growth and development.
(c) Order.
(d) None, symmetry is not a basic characteristic of life.

Answers

The correct option is D ; None, symmetry is not a basic characteristic of life.

When an animal's body plan can be divided along a line that separates the animal's body into nearly equal right and left halves, it is said to have bilateral symmetry.

Most animals have a line of symmetry that divides their body into left and right sides, as well as a "head" and "tail" in addition to a top and bottom.

Flatworms, common worms ("ribbon worms"), clams, snails, octopuses, crustaceans, insects, spiders, brachiopods, sea stars, sea urchins, and vertebrates are examples of species with bilateral symmetry. An animal's symmetry is often appropriate for its lifestyle.

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one of the oldest known mammalian fossils belongs to a small furry species, hadrocodium wui, that lived 195 million years ago. for the following 100 million years, only a small number of groups of mammalian fossils are found in the fossil record. by 65 million years ago, the nonavian dinosaurs were extinct. by 55 million years ago, there were 130 mammal genera, including 4,000 different species that occupied a wide variety of habitats. Which of the following best describes the cause of the rapid increase in the number of mammalian species between 65 and 55 million years ago?

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Hadrocodium woo, a little hairy animal that lived 195 million years ago, is the owner of one of the oldest mammalian remains ever discovered. Only a few tiny groups of mammalian fossils are establishing the fossil record for the next 100 million years. Dinosaurs from the Donovan Formation vanished 65 million years ago.

Early mammals were biologically diversified and experimented with gliding, swimming, burrowing, and climbing, according to the fossils. The findings are also beginning to shed light on the evolutionary roots of several of the important characteristics of Mammals,(brain) including breastfeeding, huge brains, and exceptionally acute senses.The majority of China's mammal fossils, which are incredibly detailed, were created when volcanoes buried the creatures in ash. Mammal fossils from the Mesozoic period (252 million to 66 million years ago) typically consist just of teeth and jaw fragments, while Chinese examples frequently include complete skeletons together with internal organs, skin, and fur. According to Meng, "We have a lot of detail to answer scientific questions." For instance, he is curious about the development of the mammalian ear.

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Put the sentences describing DNA replication in prokaryotes in chronological order, with the sentence describing the beginning of the process at the top.

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The sentences that describe DNA replication in prokaryotes are in chronological order:

Regulаtory proteins bind to the stаrting point on the chromosome.Enzymes "unzip" the DNА molecule by breаking hydrogen bonds between bаse pаirs.Replicаtion stаrts from а single point аnd proceeds in two directions until the entire chromosome is copied.The two new chromosomes аre sepаrаted when the cell divides to form two new cells.

DNА is the genetic mаteriаl thаt defines every cell. Before а cell duplicаtes аnd is divided into new dаughter cells through either mitosis or meiosis, biomolecules аnd orgаnelles must be copied to be distributed аmong the cells.

DNА, found within the nucleus, must be replicаted in order to ensure thаt eаch new cell receives the correct number of chromosomes. The process of DNА duplicаtion is cаlled DNА replicаtion. Replicаtion follows severаl steps thаt involve multiple proteins cаlled replicаtion enzymes аnd RNА. In eukаryotic cells, such аs аnimаl cells аnd plаnt cells, DNА replicаtion occurs in the S phаse of interphаse during the cell cycle. The process of DNА replicаtion is vitаl for cell growth, repаir, аnd reproduction in orgаnisms.

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Answer:

The order goes in the following:

Explanation:

Regulаtory proteins bind to the stаrting point on the chromosome.Enzymes "unzip" the DNА molecule by breаking hydrogen bonds between bаse pаirs.Replicаtion stаrts from а single point аnd proceeds in two directions until the entire chromosome is copied.The two new chromosomes аre sepаrаted when the cell divides to form two new cells.

Which of the following characteristics will produce the most desirable smear to be examined using a Gram stain?
A. A single drop of cerebrospinal fluid on a slide
B. Thick, opaque material from an abscess on a slide
C. Thin, monolayer of material from an abscess on a slide
D. Six drops of blood from an EDTA tube on a slide

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Characteristics which produce the smear and examined using a Gram stain is C) Thin, monolayer of material from an abscess on a slide.So,correct option is C.

Gram staining is a bacteriological research center technique used to separate bacterial species into two huge gatherings (gram-positive and gram-negative) in view of the actual properties of their phone walls. Gram staining isn't utilized to order archaea, previously archaeabacteria, since these microorganisms yield generally changing reactions that don't follow their phylogenetic groups.

Gram staining separates microbes by the substance and actual properties of their cell walls. Gram-positive cells have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in the cell wall that holds the essential stain, gem violet. Gram-negative cells have a more slender peptidoglycan layer that permits the gem violet to clean out on expansion of ethanol. They are stained pink or red by the counterstain, regularly safranin or fuchsine. Lugol's iodine arrangement is constantly added after option of gem violet to reinforce the obligations of the stain with the cell film.

Hence, correct option is C.

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