Which of the following does not accurately describe secretion in the digestive tract?
Secretions may stay in the brush border
Secretions may go into the blood near the digestive tract.
Secretions are moved into the lumen only by active transport.
Secretions may act to protect and lubricate the digestive tract

Answers

Answer 1

The statement "Secretions are moved into the lumen only by active transport" does not accurately describe secretion in the digestive tract.

While some secretions may require active transport to be moved into the lumen, not all secretions rely solely on active transport. For example, some secretions such as mucus are passively released and do not require active transport. Additionally, some secretions may be absorbed into the bloodstream near the digestive tract rather than being moved into the lumen. The brush border, a collection of microvilli on the surface of the small intestine, plays a role in absorbing nutrients from the lumen but does not necessarily trap secretions. Secretions such as enzymes and bile may help with digestion while others like mucus may protect and lubricate the digestive tract. Overall, secretion is an important part of the digestive process and involves a variety of mechanisms for delivering substances to where they are needed.

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Related Questions

Why Is Biodiversity Important? Who Cares? Name three social benefits provided by biodiversity.

Answers

Biodiversity helps meet human and societal needs like food and nutrition security, energy, pharmaceutical development, and freshwater, all of which contribute to good health.

Additionally, it encourages leisure activities that enhance well-being and economic opportunities.

Biodiversity is fundamental for the cycles that help all life on The planet, including people. We cannot have healthy ecosystems that provide us with the air we breathe and the food we eat if we do not have a wide variety of animals, plants, and microorganisms. Additionally, people value nature as a whole.

The majority of the fundamental necessities of food, water, clothing, and shelter are provided by biodiversity.

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Answer:

research

education

monitoring

recreation

tourism

cultural values

hen the f1 monohybrids are crossed with each other, we expect a _______ offspring phenotype ratio.

Answers

When the F1 monohybrids are crossed with each other, we expect a 9:3:3:1 offspring phenotype ratio in the F2 generation.

When F1 monohybrids are crossed with each other, we expect a 9:3:3:1 offspring phenotype ratio in the resulting F2 generation. This is known as the dihybrid cross ratio, which is the expected phenotypic ratio when two heterozygous individuals are crossed for two independently assorting traits. The ratio predicts that 9/16 of the offspring will have both dominant traits, 3/16 will have one dominant and one recessive trait, 3/16 will have the other dominant and recessive trait, and 1/16 will have both recessive traits.

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The decision excerpted most directly reflected a

growing belief after the Second World War that

the power of the federal government should be

used to ?

Answers

The decision excerpted most directly reflected a growing belief after the Second World War that the power of the federal government should be used to promote greater racial justice.

After World War II, there was a growing belief among many Americans that the federal government should take a more active role in promoting greater racial justice. This belief was fueled by several factors, including the ongoing struggle for civil rights and the increased awareness of the atrocities committed against minority groups during the war.

As a result, many legal decisions during this time reflected a shift towards using the power of the federal government to promote racial equality, such as desegregation in schools and public spaces. These decisions represented a significant turning point in American history, laying the groundwork for the Civil Rights Movement and ongoing efforts to address issues of racial injustice.

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If carbolfuchsin was omitted from the acid- fast stain, what color would non-acid-fast cells appear?

Answers

If carbolfuchsin was omitted from the acid-fast stain, non-acid-fast cells would appear as a different color compared to acid-fast cells. The acid-fast stain is a differential staining technique used to differentiate between acid-fast and non-acid-fast bacteria.

The acid-fast cells are those that are able to retain the primary stain, carbolfuchsin, even after being treated with an acidic decolorizing agent. Non-acid-fast cells, on the other hand, are not able to retain the primary stain and are therefore decolorized by the acidic agent.In the absence of carbolfuchsin, the non-acid-fast cells would not have any primary stain to retain and would be colorless. However, the counterstain, which is usually methylene blue or basic fuchsin, would still be applied to the cells. This would result in the non-acid-fast cells being stained by the counterstain and appearing a different color than the acid-fast cells.It is important to note that the acid-fast stain is a specific staining technique that is used to identify acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Omitting the primary stain from this technique would make it ineffective for identifying these bacteria. However, it may still be useful for staining other types of bacteria, as it would allow for the differentiation of acid-fast and non-acid-fast cells.

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This Kittyguin (kitty/penguin) has many adaptations to survive in the Arctic. Describe what they are and why are they important for survival? Can this Kittyguin use any other adaptations to help it?

(THIS IS A MADE-UP SPECIES FOR A ASSIGMENT!)

Answers

The Kittyguin is a made-up hybrid mammal that doesn't exist in the Arctic or anywhere else in the globe. However, I can think of some potential modifications that a cat-penguin hybrid could need to make in order to exist in such a setting.

The Kittyguin might have developed the following adaptations to survive in the Arctic:

thick feathers and hairSharp, webbed clawsgood hearing and vision

The Kittyguin would need all of these adaptations to survive in the Arctic since they would make it easier for it to stay warm, obtain food, and fend off predators. The Kittyguin may also be able to utilise other adaptations, such as:

HuddlingMigrationBlubber

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Choose the true statement(s) about the evolutionary divergence of horses in North America. Check all that apply. A. Most changes are seen as adaptations for life in grassland habitats.
B. The general trends during horse evolution are increase in body size, lengthening of limbs, reduction of digits on both sets of limbs, and tooth development for a grazing life style.
C. Living lineages of horses show much less diversity than existed in the past.

Answers

The true statement(s) about the evolutionary divergence of horses in North America are:- Most changes are seen as adaptations for life in grassland habitats. The general trends during horse evolution are increase in body size, lengthening of limbs, reduction of digits on both sets of limbs, and tooth development for a grazing life style.

The correct option is :-  A and B.

A. Most changes are seen as adaptations for life in grassland habitats.

B. The general trends during horse evolution are increase in body size, lengthening of limbs, reduction of digits on both sets of limbs, and tooth development for a grazing life style.

Option C is not true. In fact, living lineages of horses (equids) show less diversity than existed in the past. This is because many horse species went extinct over the course of their evolutionary history, and today's living horses are descendants of a few lineages that survived. Therefore, Option C is false.

Horses are believed to have evolved in North America, and their evolutionary divergence is thought to have been driven by adaptations to life in grassland habitats. This includes changes in body size, limb lengthening, reduction of digits (toes) on both sets of limbs, and tooth development for grazing, which allowed horses to thrive in grassland environments.

These changes are generally considered as key evolutionary trends in horse evolution, as evidenced by the fossil record.

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Please fill out the following chart.
1.(Genetic Drift) Allele ______ change by chance
2.(Gene Flow) The _______ of alleles from one ______ to another changes the allele frequencies in each population
3.(Mutation): Write description.

Answers

Genetic drift is allele frequencies change by chance whereas, gene flow is the movement of alleles from one population to another.

Thus, gene flow is the movement of alleles from one population to another which changes the allele frequencies in each population.

Mutation is the introduction of new genetic variation into a population by changing the DNA sequence of an organism. Mutations arise spontaneously or can be induced by environmental factors, which result in changes in protein structure, gene expression or phenotype of an organism.

Mutations can be harmful or beneficial to the gene and provide the base for natural selection. Mutations can lead to evolutionary changes within a population as they accumulate in the population with time.

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which term is used to describe populations that live close enough to interbreed? view available hint(s)for part a which term is used to describe populations that live close enough to interbreed? sympatry polyploidy allopatry speciation

Answers

The term used to describe populations that live close enough to interbreed is sympatry. Sympatric populations are those that inhabit the same geographic area and therefore have the opportunity to interbreed.

This can lead to the formation of hybrids, which may or may not be fertile. In contrast, allopatric populations are geographically separated and therefore do not have the opportunity to interbreed.

Polyploidy is a term that describes the condition in which an organism has more than two sets of chromosomes. This can occur as a result of errors during cell division or through hybridization events between two different species. Polyploidy can play a role in speciation by creating reproductive isolation between the polyploid and its parent species.

Speciation is the process by which new species arise from existing ones. This can occur through a variety of mechanisms, including geographic isolation (allopatric speciation), sympatric speciation, or hybridization.

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label the connective tissues and other structures of whole skeletal muscle by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

Answers

List of the connective tissues and other structures found in a whole skeletal muscle :- Epimysium, Perimysium,  Endomysium, Muscle fiber (cell), Sarcolemma, Sarcoplasmic reticulum.



1. Epimysium - the outer layer of connective tissue that surrounds the whole muscle.


2. Perimysium - the connective tissue that divides the muscle into bundles called fascicles.


3. Endomysium - the connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber (cell).


4. Muscle fiber (cell) - the contractile unit of the muscle.


5. Sarcolemma - the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber.


6. Sarcoplasm - the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber.


7. Myofibril - the structure within the muscle fiber that contains the contractile proteins (actin and myosin).


8. Sarcomere - the basic unit of the myofibril, consisting of actin and myosin filaments.


9. Z-line - the boundary between two adjacent sarcomeres.


10. A-band - the region of the sarcomere containing thick (myosin) filaments.


11. I-band - the region of the sarcomere containing thin (actin) filaments.


12. H-zone - the region of the sarcomere containing only thick (myosin) filaments.


13. M-line - the region of the sarcomere in the center of the A-band where myosin filaments are anchored.


14. T-tubules - invaginations of the sarcolemma that allow for the spread of action potentials throughout the muscle fiber.

15. Sarcoplasmic reticulum - a specialized type of endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium ions required for muscle

contraction.

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Find the false statement about the reagents required to carry out a PCR reaction. a) requires two primers b) requires only a small amount of starting DNA c) requires deoxyribonucleotides d) requires a heat resistant DNA polymerase such as Taq e) requires a thermocycler to alternate between temperatures f) the DNA to be amplified needs to contain an origin of replication

Answers

The false statement about the reagents required to carry out a PCR reaction is f) the DNA to be amplified needs to contain an origin of replication.

PCR does not require the DNA to have an origin of replication because it is an in vitro process that does not involve the replication of the entire genome. Instead, PCR relies on the use of two primers that are complementary to the target DNA sequence, a small amount of starting DNA, deoxyribonucleotides (dNTPs) that provide the building blocks for DNA synthesis, a heat-resistant DNA polymerase such as Taq, and a thermocycler to alternate between different temperatures to facilitate the various steps of the PCR cycle.

The polymerase chain reaction amplifies the target DNA sequence by repeatedly cycling through a series of high and low temperatures, during which the DNA strands are denatured, annealed with primers, and extended by the DNA polymerase. The resulting PCR product is a copy of the target DNA sequence that can be used for various applications, such as sequencing, cloning, or detection. The false statement about the reagents required to carry out a PCR reaction is f) the DNA to be amplified needs to contain an origin of replication.

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Please help me with this question.

Answers

All the given events occur during cross-bridge cycling. These events occur during muscle fiber contraction in which actin and myosin play a crucial role. Therefore option B is correct.

The events that occur in cross-bridge cycling are:

High energy state: Myosin has a large amount of potential energy coming from ATP. The influx of binding ions is triggered which exposes the binding sites for actin.

Power stroke step: The bond between actin and myosin becomes stronger, and as the energy stored in organic phosphate is released, a change in the conformation of the myosin head occurs. This leads to the pulling of actin filaments.

Detached stage: in this stage, the ATP binds to the myosin head which causes a change in head positioning. This leads to detachment of actin and myosin.

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A molecule made up of many repeating units linked together is called a(n) ________, while the repeating units are called _______.

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A molecule made up of many repeating units linked together is called a polymer, while the repeating units are called monomers. Polymers are formed through a process called polymerization.


A polymer is a large molecule composed of many smaller, similar molecules called monomers. Monomers are the basic building blocks that combine to form a polymer through a process called polymerization.Polymerization is a chemical  reaction where monomers bond together to create a polymer. Polymers can have various properties and structures depending on the type of monomers used and the way they are bonded together.

In the process of polymerization, monomers are linked together through chemical bonds to form a long chain of repeating units. The properties and characteristics of a polymer are determined by the type and arrangement of monomers within the chain. Polymers have a wide range of applications, from plastics and fibers to adhesives and coatings.

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staining allows for the visualization of bacterial cells because it increases contrast during microscopic imaging. true or false?

Answers

True, staining is a technique used to enhance the contrast and visualization of bacterial cells during microscopic imaging. It involves applying a colored dye, or a stain, to a bacterial sample.

This stain binds to specific cellular components, making the cells more visible and distinguishable under a microscope. Staining is particularly important when studying transparent or translucent cells, as it helps to distinguish their structures and differentiate between different types of cells. There are various staining techniques, such as the Gram stain, which is commonly used to categorize bacteria as Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on their cell wall properties. Overall, staining is a crucial tool in microbiology for improving the visualization and study of bacterial cells.

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The âG for a particular enzyme-catalyzed reaction is -20 kcal/mol. If the enzyme is removed, what will be the âG for the noncatalyzed reaction?
A) -40 kcal/mol
B) -20 kcal/mol
C) 0 kcal/mol
D) +20 kcal/mol
E) +40 kcal/mol

Answers

The correct answer is D) +20 kcal/mol. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur.

The âG value for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction reflects the change in free energy that occurs during the reaction with the enzyme present.
When the enzyme is removed, the reaction will proceed by a noncatalyzed pathway, which typically has a higher activation energy and therefore a higher âG value. In this case, the noncatalyzed reaction will have an âG value that is 20 kcal/mol higher than the enzyme-catalyzed reaction, meaning the âG for the noncatalyzed reaction will be +20 kcal/mol.

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the dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. which of the following is true about the role they play? a) they contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens. b) they contract to allow ejaculation. c) they are responsible for penile erection. d) they regulate the temperature of the testes. d) they regulate the temperature of the testes relaxin is a h

Answers

The dartos and cremaster muscles play an important role to the integrity of the male reproductive system by regulating the temperature of the testes. Answer is d).

These muscles help maintain an optimal temperature for sperm production by contracting or relaxing in response to temperature changes. The dartos muscle is found in the scrotum, and the cremaster muscle surrounds the spermatic cord. When the temperature is too low, they contract to bring the testes closer to the body for warmth. Conversely, when the temperature is too high, they relax to allow the testes to move away from the body and cool down.

The dartos and cremaster muscles are responsible for regulating the position of the testes in order to maintain the optimal temperature for sperm production. They contract and relax in response to changes in temperature and other stimuli, helping to prevent damage to the delicate sperm cells. The correct answer is d).

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ound the mid-1850s, mendel crossed true-breeding purple-flowered pea plants with true-breeding white-flowered pea plants. the results of his research provided us with the basic principles of heredity. drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. not all terms will be used. resethelp every gene is a sequence of blank at a specific position along a chromosome called a blank.target 1 of 6target 2 of 6 diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes, one set inherited from each parent, that form blank.target 3 of 6 the homologs of a chromosome pair contain the same genetic loci. therefore, each genetic locus is represented blank in a diploid cell.target 4 of 6 variations in inherited characteristics is due to the presence of blank, which are alternative versions of blank.

Answers

Mendel's cross of true-breeding purple-flowered pea plants with true-breeding white-flowered pea plants demonstrated the fundamental principles of heredity, as the offspring showed consistent patterns of inheritance for flower color. His research laid the foundation for our understanding of how genes and alleles determine an organism's traits.

Every gene is a sequence of DNA at a specific position along a chromosome called a locus. Diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes, one set inherited from each parent, that form homologous pairs. The homologs of a chromosome pair contain the same genetic loci. Therefore, each genetic locus is represented twice in a diploid cell. Variations in inherited characteristics is due to the presence of alleles, which are alternative versions of a gene.
Hi! I'm here to help you with your question about Mendel's research and the basic principles of heredity. Mendel's experiments led to the understanding of the principles of inheritance in organisms.

Every gene is a sequence of nucleotides at a specific position along a chromosome called a locus. Diploid cells have two sets of chromosomes, one set inherited from each parent, that form homologous pairs. The homologs of a chromosome pair contain the same genetic loci. Therefore, each genetic locus is represented twice in a diploid cell. Variations in inherited characteristics are due to the presence of alleles, which are alternative versions of genes.

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What is formed from dead cells and only found in hairless areas like the palms of hands and soles of feet?

Answers

The answer is "epidermal ridges," also known as "dermal ridges" or "friction ridges." They are formed by the folds and valleys of the epidermis and dermis and help improve grip and sensitivity in hairless areas.

Epidermal ridges, also known as friction ridges or dermal ridges, are formed by the folds and valleys of the epidermis and dermis. They are only found in hairless areas of the body such as the palms of hands and soles of feet. Epidermal ridges serve as a structural adaptation to improve grip and sensitivity in these areas. They are responsible for creating the unique patterns that form fingerprints and footprints. These patterns are used for identification purposes in forensic science and have helped to solve many crimes.

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what layer containing sacs filled with fatty material or keratin subunits

Answers

The layer you are referring to is most likely the stratum corneum, which is the outermost layer of the epidermis. The stratum corneum is composed of flattened, dead cells that are filled with a protein called keratin.

These cells, also known as corneocytes, are tightly packed together and form a protective barrier that helps to prevent water loss and protect the skin from external damage.In addition to keratin, the stratum corneum also contains other materials such as lipids and other proteins. These lipids, also known as ceramides, are important for maintaining the barrier function of the skin. They help to keep moisture in and keep irritants and other harmful substances out.Overall, the stratum corneum is a complex and dynamic layer that plays an important role in maintaining the health and integrity of the skin. Its subunits, such as the corneocytes and lipids, work together to form a barrier that protects the skin from damage and helps to keep it hydrated and healthy. The layer you are referring to is the stratum corneum, which is the outermost layer of the epidermis, the skin's outer covering. It contains sacs filled with fatty materials and keratin subunits that help protect the underlying layers of skin and maintain the skin's barrier function. The stratum corneum plays a crucial role in maintaining hydration and preventing external factors, such as bacteria and environmental pollutants, from entering the body.

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Does a protozoa cyst go out and seek nutrients or ingest food?

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"A protozoa cyst not go out and seek nutrients or ingest food."

Protozoa cysts are actually in a dormant state and do not actively seek nutrients or ingest food. When conditions become favorable for growth, the cyst will germinate and transform into an active feeding stage that can ingest food.

A protozoa cyst does not actively seek nutrients or ingest food. When a protozoan forms a cyst, it enters a dormant state with a protective outer layer. In this state, the protozoan does not carry out its typical functions, including seeking nutrients or ingesting food.

Once it returns to its active, non-cyst state (called a trophozoite), it can then seek and ingest nutrients again.

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9) Anaerobic respiration involves the use of molecules other than oxygen as the final electron __________ in an electron transport chain.

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Anaerobic respiration involves the use of molecules other than oxygen as the final electron acceptor in an electron transport chain.

This is because, during anaerobic respiration, cells need to generate energy in the absence of oxygen. The electron transport chain is a series of proteins embedded in the cell membrane that transfers electrons from one protein to another, ultimately generating ATP (energy) for the cell.

In the absence of oxygen, cells must use other molecules as the final electron acceptor to continue producing ATP. Some examples of these alternative acceptors are sulfate, nitrate, or even organic molecules, depending on the organism and its specific metabolic pathways. By using these alternative molecules, cells can maintain energy production under anaerobic conditions.

In summary, anaerobic respiration involves using molecules other than oxygen as the final electron acceptor in an electron transport chain to ensure energy production can continue in the absence of oxygen.

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What causes trauma and stressor-related disorders?

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Trauma and stressor-related disorders are caused by exposure to traumatic or stressful events, which overwhelm an individual's ability to cope and lead to persistent symptoms such as anxiety, avoidance, and hyperarousal.

Trauma and stressor-related disorders are caused by exposure to events that are traumatic or stressful, such as physical or sexual assault, natural disasters, accidents, or combat. These events can overwhelm an individual's ability to cope and trigger a range of psychological and physiological responses, such as feelings of helplessness, fear, and horror. If these responses persist, they can lead to persistent symptoms such as anxiety, avoidance, and hyperarousal, which can interfere with daily life. Additionally, the presence of other risk factors, such as a history of trauma or mental health problems, can increase the likelihood of developing a trauma and stressor-related disorder.

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The _____ artery supplies blood to the little-finger side of the arm.
A) posterior tibial
B) ulnar
C) radial
D) anterior tibial

Answers

The artery that supplies blood to the little-finger side of the arm is the ulnar artery (option B).

The ulnar artery is one of the two main arteries in the forearm, along with the radial artery. It originates from the brachial artery and runs along the ulnar side of the forearm, providing blood supply to the muscles and other tissues in this area. In contrast, the radial artery (option C) supplies blood to the thumb side of the forearm.
The other two options, posterior tibial (option A) and anterior tibial (option D), are arteries located in the lower leg and are not involved in supplying blood to the arm. The posterior tibial artery is responsible for providing blood supply to the posterior compartment of the leg, while the anterior tibial artery supplies blood to the anterior compartment of the leg. In summary, the ulnar artery (option B) is the correct answer as it is the artery that supplies blood to the little-finger side of the arm.

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In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria. 1. Wildtype + No Amp: Lawn 2. Wildtype + Amp: No growth 3. Plasmid + No Amp: Lawn 4. Plasmid + Amp: Colonies Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include which of the following? A. I only B. III only C. IV only D. I and II

Answers

In the transformation experiment involving E. coli bacteria and a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr), plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include option C, IV only.

Here's a summary of the results and why IV only has ampicillin-resistant bacteria:


1. Wildtype + No Amp: Lawn - This plate contains wildtype E. coli without the plasmid, so all bacteria can grow without ampicillin.


2. Wildtype + Amp: No growth - This plate contains wildtype E. coli without the plasmid, so they cannot grow in the presence of ampicillin.


3. Plasmid + No Amp: Lawn - This plate contains transformed E. coli with the plasmid, so all bacteria can grow without ampicillin.


4. Plasmid + Amp: Colonies - This plate contains transformed E. coli with the plasmid, so only ampicillin-resistant bacteria can grow in the presence of ampicillin, making it the correct choice.

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A collection of similar cells that perform a particular function is called:
A) an organism
B) tissue
C) a body system
D) an organ

Answers

A collection of similar cells that perform a particular function is called tissue. So the correct option is : B) tissue.

Tissue is a group of cells that work together to perform a specific function in the body. This functional grouping of cells is organized in a way that allows them to work together to perform a particular task. Tissues can be found in both plants and animals and are essential to the overall function and structure of an organism. Different types of tissues can be found in various parts of the body, including muscle tissue, nervous tissue, epithelial tissue, and connective tissue. These tissues can be further organized into larger structures such as organs, which are composed of multiple tissues that work together to perform a more complex function.

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consider a hypothetical food chain consisting of grass, rabbits, and foxes. the primary productivity of the grass is 200 units. what is the maximum amount of energy that we should expect to be recycled from the fox trophic level back to the grass trophic level?

Answers

The maximum amount of energy that we should expect to be recycled from the fox trophic level back to the grass trophic level will be 2 units.

The maximum amount of energy that we should expect to be recycled from the fox trophic level back to the grass trophic level can be estimated using the 10% rule.

According to this rule, only 10% of the energy available at each trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. The rest of the energy is lost as heat during metabolic processes.

So, if the primary productivity of the grass is 200 units, we can expect that the maximum amount of energy available at the rabbit trophic level would be 20 units (10% of 200 units). Similarly, the maximum amount of energy available at the fox trophic level would be 2 units (10% of 20 units).

Therefore, the maximum amount of energy that we should expect to be recycled from the fox trophic level back to the grass trophic level would be 0.2 units (10% of 2 units).

This amount of energy is relatively low compared to the primary productivity of the grass, indicating that most of the energy that enters the food chain is lost as it moves through the trophic levels.

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In glycolysis, as in all the stages of cellular respiration, the transfer of electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors plays a critical role in the overall conversion of the energy in foods to energy in ATP. These reactions involving electron transfers are known as oxidation-reduction, or redox, reactions.Drag the words on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.1) Oxidized2) Reduced3) Glucose4) Pyruvate5) NAD⁺6) NADH

Answers

Answer:n glycolysis, as in all the stages of cellular respiration, the transfer of electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors plays a critical role

Explanation:

In glycolysis, a critical stage of cellular respiration, oxidation-reduction (redox) reactions play a crucial role in converting energy from food into ATP through electron transfers between electron donors and acceptors.

1) Oxidized - Glucose is oxidized during glycolysis to form pyruvate.
2) Reduced - NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis.
3) Glucose - Glucose is oxidized during glycolysis to form pyruvate.
4) Pyruvate - Pyruvate is formed from the oxidation of glucose during glycolysis.
5) NAD⁺ - NAD⁺ is a coenzyme that is reduced to NADH during glycolysis.
6) NADH - NADH is a coenzyme that is produced by the reduction of NAD⁺ during glycolysis.

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which of the following is false regarding the phylum platyhelminthes? group of answer choices they are bilaterally symmetrical and contain no true body cavity. they have a complete gastrovascular canal from mouth to anus they consist of both parasitic and free-living forms all of the above are true

Answers

The statement "all of the above are true" is false regarding the phylum Platyhelminthes.

Although it is true that they are bilaterally symmetrical and contain no true body cavity, and they consist of both parasitic and free-living forms, they do not have a complete gastrovascular canal from mouth to anus.

Instead, they have a single opening for both ingestion of food and excretion of waste, called the gastrovascular cavity.

This cavity branches out into smaller channels, but it does not form a complete canal from mouth to anus.

Platyhelminthes are also known for their flattened body shape, which allows for the diffusion of gases and nutrients across their body surface.

Some common examples of Platyhelminthes include tapeworms and flukes, which are parasitic and have complex life cycles involving multiple hosts.

Free-living forms can be found in marine and freshwater habitats and play important roles in aquatic ecosystems. Therefore, the statement "all of the above are true" is false.

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Which ion links excitation to contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?
A. Chloride

B. Potassium

C. Sodium

D. Magnesium

E. Calcium

Answers

E. Calcium ion links excitation to contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber. Calcium ions play a crucial role in muscle contraction, as they bind to the regulatory protein troponin.

Which causes a conformational change that allows the myosin heads to bind to the actin filaments and initiate the sliding of the filaments, which generates force and shortens the muscle fiber. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, a specialized organelle within the muscle fiber, in response to an action potential that travels along the T-tubule system.

The release of calcium ions triggers the contraction process and enables the muscle to generate force. Without calcium ions, muscle contraction cannot occur.

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When holding both any maxillary and mandibular incisors, which characteristic is most likely to apply to the mandibular incisors; but NOT the maxillary incisors??

A.The cingulum is off-center Toward the distal on mandibular incisors
B. The Incisal edge is more likely to be labial to the mid root axis line on mandibular incisors
C. The crown has lingual ridges and fossa that are more prominent on mandibular incisors
D. The root is more likely to be straight than bent to the distal on mandibular incisors
E. From the incisal view, the labiolingual dimension is greater than the mesiodistal dimension on mandibular incisors

Answers

Of the options listed, the characteristic that is most likely to apply to mandibular incisors but not maxillary incisors is B. The incisal edge is more likely to be labial to the mid root axis line on mandibular incisors.

This means that the cutting edge of the mandibular incisors will be tilted towards the lips, whereas the maxillary incisors will be tilted towards the palate. This is due to the fact that the mandibular arch is wider than the maxillary arch, causing the mandibular incisors to have a more labial inclination.
The other options listed either apply to both maxillary and mandibular incisors or are not true for mandibular incisors. For example, option A is not true for mandibular incisors as the cingulum is typically centered, not off-center towards the distal. Option C is true for both maxillary and mandibular incisors, and option D is not consistently true as the roots of mandibular incisors can be straight or bent in different individuals. Finally, option E is not true for mandibular incisors as the labiolingual dimension is typically smaller than the mesiodistal dimension.

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Why would an overactive thyroid cause Krista's weight loss, sweating, and elevated heart rate?

Answers

An overactive thyroid, also known as hyperthyroidism, can cause Krista's weight loss, sweating, and elevated heart rate because it increases the production of thyroid hormones, specifically T3 and T4.

The increased metabolism also leads to increased heat production, causing excessive sweating. Additionally, the increased metabolism can cause the heart to beat faster and harder, leading to an elevated heart rate.

                                     These hormones play a vital role in regulating the body's metabolism, which affects how the body burns calories and uses energy. With an overactive thyroid, the metabolism speeds up, causing the body to burn more calories than usual, resulting in weight loss.  

                                       Overall, an overactive thyroid can cause a range of symptoms due to the disruption of the body's normal metabolic processes.

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