Which of the following roles is most commonly responsible for observing system and user activity, looking for violations, trends toward bottlenecks, and attempts to perform violations? a) Network administrators b) Support supervisors c) Senior management d) Auditors

Answers

Answer 1

The role most commonly responsible for observing system and user activity, looking for violations, trends toward bottlenecks, and attempts to perform violations is d) Auditors.

Auditors play a crucial role in ensuring the security, compliance, and proper functioning of systems and user activities within an organization. They are specifically tasked with monitoring and examining the organization's systems, processes, and user behavior to identify any irregularities, violations, or potential risks. By conducting audits and assessments, auditors can identify security vulnerabilities, operational inefficiencies, and potential areas of improvement. They analyze system logs, user activity logs, and other relevant data sources to detect any suspicious or unauthorized activities, identify trends that may lead to performance bottlenecks, and assess compliance with internal policies and external regulations.

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Related Questions

A pulse site at the neck is the ____. A) carotid B) temporal C) popliteal D) femoral

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A pulse site at the neck is the carotid. The carotid artery is one of the major arteries in the body and is located on both sides of the neck. It supplies oxygenated blood to the brain, head, and neck. So option A is the correct answer.

The carotid pulse is commonly used to assess the strength and regularity of the heartbeat. It can be palpated by gently pressing the fingertips against the soft area just to the side of the windpipe in the neck. The carotid pulse is often easy to locate and has a distinct pulsation.

Healthcare professionals may check the carotid pulse during various medical procedures, including physical examinations, cardiac assessments, and in emergency situations to assess the circulation and detect abnormalities.

Overall, the carotid pulse is an important site for assessing the heartbeat and is often used for clinical evaluation and emergency interventions. So the correct answer is option A) carotid.

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Your network has 2 sites as shown in the graphic. You want to designate Computer1 as a preferred bridgehead server. Which object's properties would you edit to do this?

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To designate Computer1 as a preferred bridgehead server for your network with 2 sites, you should edit the properties of the Site object associated with Computer1.

In order to edit the properties of the Site object associated with Computer1 follow the given steps :

1. Identify the site where Computer1 is located (let's call it Site A).
2. Open the Active Directory Sites and Services management console.
3. Expand the "Sites" folder to locate Site A.
4. Click on Site A to view its properties.
5. In the Site A properties, navigate to the "Preferred Bridgehead Servers" tab.
6. Click "Add" to add a new preferred bridgehead server.
7. Select Computer1 from the list of available servers and click "OK".
8. Click "Apply" and then "OK" to save the changes to Site A's properties.

By following these steps, you have successfully designated Computer1 as a preferred bridgehead server for the network with 2 sites.

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composed of clients and services, protocols, and network drivers is called?

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The term "Protocol Stack" is used to describe a network architecture composed of clients and services, protocols, and network drivers.

A Protocol Stack, also known as a Network Protocol Stack or Network Stack, is a software framework or architecture that defines how networking protocols and services are organized and interact within a computer network. It is composed of multiple layers, each responsible for specific functions related to network communication.

The Protocol Stack consists of three main components: clients and services, protocols, and network drivers. Clients and services represent the applications or programs that initiate or consume network services. Protocols refer to the set of rules and conventions that govern how data is formatted, transmitted, received, and interpreted across the network. Network drivers, also known as network interface controllers or NICs, are the software components that facilitate communication between the computer's operating system and the physical network hardware.

The Protocol Stack follows a layered approach, with each layer building upon the functionalities provided by the layer below it. Common examples of protocol stacks include the TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) stack, which is the foundation of the Internet, and the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model, a conceptual framework that describes network protocols and their interactions.

In summary, the term "Protocol Stack" refers to the network architecture that encompasses clients and services, protocols, and network drivers. It provides a structured and layered approach to network communication, facilitating the exchange of data between networked devices and enabling the interoperability of different network protocols and services.

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in the opening scenario, it seems there is always something to be done next. when does the information security program end?

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The information security program never truly ends. It is an ongoing process that requires constant vigilance and attention.

While specific tasks and initiatives may be completed or achieved, the overall program is a continuous effort to identify, assess, and mitigate potential risks to an organization's information assets. This includes regularly reviewing and updating policies and procedures, implementing new technologies and controls, conducting training and awareness programs, and monitoring for threats and vulnerabilities. Additionally, as the threat landscape evolves and new risks emerge, the information security program must adapt and adjust accordingly. Therefore, it is important to view information security as an ongoing and never-ending process that requires ongoing commitment and dedication.

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what is the most significant barrier to effective interpersonal communication?

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The most significant barrier to effective interpersonal communication is the lack of active listening skills. Active listening is a critical component of communication, and it involves the ability to focus on and understand the speaker's message accurately.

Often, people tend to listen passively and only hear what they want to hear, which results in misunderstandings, misinterpretations, and a breakdown in communication.One of the reasons for this barrier is that people are often preoccupied with their own thoughts, ideas, and feelings, which can interfere with their ability to listen actively. Additionally, people may be distracted by external factors such as noise or interruptions, which can also hinder their ability to listen effectively.Another significant barrier to effective interpersonal communication is the use of jargon and technical language. People from different fields may use jargon and technical language that others are not familiar with, leading to confusion and misunderstanding.Other barriers include cultural and language differences, emotional barriers such as anxiety or defensiveness, and physical barriers like distance or technology.To overcome these barriers, individuals need to develop active listening skills, learn to communicate clearly and concisely, and be aware of cultural and language differences. It's also essential to be mindful of distractions and other external factors that may hinder effective communication. By addressing these barriers, individuals can improve their communication skills and build better relationships with others.

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what defenses are possible to prevent an organization’s systems being used as intermediaries in a broadcast amplification attack?

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To prevent an organization's systems from being used as intermediaries in a broadcast amplification attack, the following defenses can be implemented Access Control

Access Control: Implement strict access control measures to prevent unauthorized access to the organization's systems. This includes strong authentication mechanisms,

such as two-factor authentication, and regularly updating and patching software and firmware to mitigate vulnerabilities that can be exploited in amplification attacks.

Network Filtering: Employ network filtering techniques, such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems, to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic.

This helps in identifying and blocking suspicious or malicious traffic that may be associated with amplification attacks. By setting up proper network filtering rules, organizations can prevent their systems from participating in or being used as amplifiers in such attacks.

Rate Limiting: Implement rate limiting mechanisms to control the rate of outgoing traffic from the organization's systems.

By imposing limits on the number of responses that can be sent in response to a single request, organizations can prevent their systems from generating excessive traffic that could be exploited in amplification attacks.

Network Segmentation: Segmenting the network into different security zones can help isolate critical systems from potential attackers and mitigate the impact of an amplification attack.

By implementing separate network segments for public-facing systems and internal infrastructure, organizations can minimize the risk of their systems being used as intermediaries in such attacks.

Monitoring and Response: Implement real-time monitoring and response mechanisms to detect and respond to suspicious activities. This includes monitoring network traffic, system logs, and network behavior to identify signs of amplification attacks or unauthorized use of systems.

Prompt response and mitigation can help prevent further propagation of the attack and protect the organization's systems from being exploited.

By implementing these defenses in combination, organizations can significantly reduce the risk of their systems being used as intermediaries in broadcast amplification attacks and ensure the security and integrity of their network infrastructure.

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how many three-letter words (not necessarily meaningful) can be formed from the word compiler if no letters can be repeated?

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From the word "compiler," a total of 120 three-letter words (not necessarily meaningful) can be formed without repeating any letters.

To determine the number of three-letter words that can be formed from the word "compiler" without repeating any letters, we can use the concept of permutations. A permutation represents the arrangement of objects in a specific order.

In this case, we need to calculate the number of permutations of three letters taken from the word "compiler" without repetition. Since the word "compiler" consists of eight letters, we have eight choices for the first letter, seven choices for the second letter (since one letter has been used already), and six choices for the third letter (two letters have been used already).

Using the formula for permutations, we can calculate the number of three-letter words:

8P3 = 8! / (8-3)! = 8! / 5! = (8 * 7 * 6 * 5!) / 5! = 8 * 7 * 6 = 336.

However, we need to account for the fact that the three-letter words do not necessarily need to be meaningful. Therefore, we divide the result by the number of permutations of the repeated letters, which is 3! (the factorial of 3):

336 / 3! = 336 / 6 = 56.

Therefore, a total of 56 three-letter words (not necessarily meaningful) can be formed from the word "compiler" without repeating any letters.

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is an advantage of cloud-based erp systems quizlet

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Yes, there are several advantages of cloud-based ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) systems:

1. Scalability: Cloud-based ERP systems can easily scale up or down based on the needs of the business, without the need for significant hardware or software upgrades.

2. Accessibility: Cloud-based ERP systems can be accessed from anywhere with an internet connection, allowing for remote work and collaboration.

3. Cost-effective: Cloud-based ERP systems typically have lower upfront costs and can reduce ongoing maintenance and IT costs.

4. Automatic updates: Cloud-based ERP systems typically receive automatic updates and patches, reducing the need for manual updates and reducing the risk of security vulnerabilities.

5. Flexibility: Cloud-based ERP systems can be customized to meet the unique needs of the business, allowing for greater flexibility and agility in responding to changing business needs.

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how do you do a mail merge in word 2013

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Answer:

STEP 1- Open an existing Word document , or create a new one.

STEP 2- From the Mailings tab, click the Start Mail Merge command and select Step by Step Mail Merge Wizard from the drop-down menu. 3 . In the Mail Merge pane, select Letters as the document type and click Next: Starting document.

STEP 3- Select Use the current document to start the merge and click Next: Select recipients.

STEP 4- Choose either the Use an existing list or Type a new list option to select or create a data source for the recipient information and click Browse or Edit to locate or modify the data source.

STEP 5- Click OK to close the Select Data Source dialog box and customize the recipient list as necessary using the Replace field names and Edit recipient list commands in the Mail Merge pane.

STEP 6- Click Next: Write your letter to create or modify the main document, and click More items to insert merge fields from the recipient list as needed.

STEP 7- Click Next: Preview your letters, select the current record or use the Previous or Next buttons to navigate through the recipient list, and click Edit recipient list or Filter if you need to make adjustments.

STEP 8- When the letters look as you want them to, click Next: Complete the merge and then click Print or Email to send them or click Edit individual documents to review and edit each one before printing or sending.

To do a mail merge in Word 2013, you need to have a data source ready, such as an Excel spreadsheet or Outlook contacts list. First, open a new Word document and click on the Mailings tab. Then, select Start Mail Merge and choose the type of document you want to create, such as letters or envelopes.

Next, select recipients and choose your data source. You can then customize your document by inserting fields from your data source, such as names and addresses. Finally, preview your document and complete the merge by clicking Finish & Merge. This will allow you to print or email your personalized documents to all recipients in your data source.

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Which statement displays the address of the variable num1?
a) cout << num1;
b) cout << *num1;
c) cin >> &num1;
d) cout <<&num1;
e) none of these

Answers

The statement that displays the address of the variable num1 is: d) cout << &num1;.

The symbol '&' before a variable name in C++ gives the memory address of that variable. So, the statement "cout << &num1;" will display the address of the variable num1. Option a) "cout << num1;" will display the value of the variable num1, not its memory address. Option b) "*num1" is invalid syntax because num1 is not a pointer variable. Option c) "cin >> &num1" will take the user input and store it in the memory location of num1, not display its address. Therefore, option d) is the correct choice as it will display the address of the variable num1. Finally, option e) is incorrect as one of the options given is the correct answer.

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if we know that 100 elements have been allocated to a two-dimensional array named myarray, which of the following is not a possible way to declare myarray?

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If we know that 100 elements have been allocated to a two-dimensional array named myarray, then the following declaration options are not possible:

These options are not possible because they do not allocate 100 elements in total for the two-dimensional array. Option A declares a 10x10 array, which allocates 100 elements, so it is a possible declaration. Option B declares a 5x20 array, which allocates 100 elements, so it is a possible declaration. Option C declares a 4x25 array, which allocates 100 elements, so it is a possible declaration.

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you have configured a virtual network that includes the following virtual components:
-four virtual machines (virtual OS1, Virtual OS2, etc.)
-One virtual switch
the virtual switch is connected to a physical network to allow the virtual machines to communicate with the physical machines out on the physical network.
given the port configuration for the virtual switch and the physical switch in the table below, click on all of the virtual and physical machines that virtual OS1 can communicate with.

Answers

I can help you understand which machines virtual OS1 can communicate with.

How the virtual network would communicate

If virtual OS1 is connected to the virtual switch, and the virtual switch is connected to the physical network, virtual OS1 can communicate with the machines that are connected to the same physical network as the virtual switch.

Therefore, virtual OS1 can communicate with the physical machines on the physical network.

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Consider the code snippet below:
try {
statement1;
statement2;
statement3;
}
catch (Exception1 ex1) {
statement4;
} catch (Exception2 ex2) {
statement5;
}
finally {
statement6;
}
statement7;
Suppose statement1 caused an exception of type Exception2. Which of the above statements will be executed. Write it in the correct order using only the numbers and no spaces in between (e.g., 12345).

Answers

The correct order of execution for the given code snippet, assuming statement1 caused an exception of type Exception2, is: 4526.

1. statement4 will not be executed because the catch block for Exception1 is skipped since the exception type is Exception2. 2. statement5 will be executed because it matches the exception type (Exception2) thrown by statement1. 3. statement2 and statement3 are skipped because the exception occurred before reaching them. 4. statement6 will be executed as part of the "finally" block, which always runs regardless of whether an exception occurred or not. 5. statement7 will be executed after the "finally" block.

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Which of the following is not a character encoding standard?
a. EBCDIC
b. ASCH
c. CISC
d. Unicode

Answers

The correct answer is c. CISC.

CISC (Complex Instruction Set Computer) is not a character encoding standard. It refers to a type of computer architecture that emphasizes a large set of complex instructions for the processor.

On the other hand, the other options are all related to character encoding:

a. EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code) is a character encoding standard used primarily on IBM mainframe and midrange computer systems.

b. ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is a widely used character encoding standard that represents characters using 7 or 8 bits and is commonly used in computers and communication systems.

d. Unicode is a character encoding standard that aims to provide a universal character set, encompassing characters from various scripts and languages worldwide. It uses a variable-length encoding scheme, allowing it to represent a vast range of characters.

Therefore, the correct answer is c. CISC.

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when a two-dimensional array is passed as an actual parameter, the number of columns of the actual and formal arrays must match
T/F

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True. When a two-dimensional array is passed as an actual parameter, the number of columns of the actual and formal arrays must match.

When passing a two-dimensional array as an actual parameter to a function or method, it is important for the number of columns in the actual array and the formal array to match. This ensures that the function correctly accesses and processes the elements of the array.

In C and other programming languages, the size of the array, including the number of rows and columns, is usually specified in the array declaration or passed as a separate parameter. When passing a two-dimensional array, the formal parameter declaration should include the number of columns to correctly define the array shape.

If the number of columns in the actual and formal arrays does not match, it can lead to incorrect indexing and access of array elements. This can result in accessing memory out of bounds, causing unpredictable behavior or runtime errors like segmentation faults.

Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the number of columns in the actual and formal arrays match when passing a two-dimensional array as an actual parameter to maintain correct and safe array access within the function or method.

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what was the fingerprint generated with your kleopatra certificate?

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The fingerprint generated with Kleopatra certificate is a unique identifier created using a cryptographic hashing algorithm. A cryptographic hash function takes the contents of the certificate and produces a fixed-size hash value that uniquely represents the certificate.

The fingerprint is derived from the public key and other information in the certificate, ensuring the authenticity and integrity of the certificate. When using Kleopatra, a certificate management tool, you can view and verify fingerprints to ensure secure communication between parties.

The fingerprint serves as a unique identifier for the certificate and is commonly used for verification and identification purposes. It allows users to verify the integrity of the certificate by comparing the fingerprint with the expected value.

By comparing the fingerprint of a certificate with the expected value, users can ensure the certificate has not been tampered with and verify its authenticity.

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Which is faster an eSATA-600 port or a firewire 800 port? eSATA-600 at 6.0 Gbps while FireWire runs at 1.2 Gbps

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The eSATA-600 port is faster than the FireWire 800 port. The eSATA-600 has a transfer rate of 6.0 Gbps (gigabits per second) while FireWire 800 has a transfer rate of 1.2 Gbps. Therefore, the eSATA-600 port is more suitable for transferring large files and data quickly.

The eSATA-600 port has a transfer rate of 6.0 Gbps, which means it can transmit data at a speed of 6.0 gigabits per second.

In contrast, the FireWire 800 port has a transfer rate of 1.2 Gbps, making it slower in comparison.

The higher transfer rate of the eSATA-600 port enables faster data transmission, which is beneficial when transferring large files or a significant amount of data.

It reduces the time required for data transfer and improves overall efficiency in scenarios where speed is crucial, such as multimedia editing or backup processes.

Therefore, the eSATA-600 port is a more suitable choice when speed and efficient data transfer are important requirements.

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In a security review meeting, you are asked to implement a detective control to ensure enhanced security during an attack. Explain what actions you should take to implement a detective control.

Answers

To implement a detective control for enhanced security during an attack, start by identifying key security events and indicators that can help detect potential threats or breaches.

To implement a detective control in a security review meeting, take the following actions:

1. Identify key security events and indicators.

2. Implement logging and monitoring systems.

3. Configure alerts for suspicious activities.

4. Establish incident response procedures.

5. Conduct regular log analysis and audits.

To implement a detective control for enhanced security during an attack, start by identifying key security events and indicators that can help detect potential threats or breaches. Next, implement logging and monitoring systems that can capture and store relevant security logs and data. Configure alerts within these systems to notify responsible personnel when suspicious activities are detected.

Establish clear incident response procedures to ensure a swift and effective response to any security incidents. Regular log analysis and audits should be conducted to identify patterns, anomalies, or potential weaknesses in the security infrastructure. By implementing these actions, an organization can proactively detect and respond to security threats, minimizing potential damage and enhancing overall security posture.

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a four-core i7 has a 8 mb l3 cache 16-way set associative of block size 64 bytes. it uses 30-bit block address (36-bit physical address, 6-bit block offset). what is the addressing organization of l3?

Answers

The L3 cache addressing organization consists of a 13-bit tag, 11-bit cache index, and 6-bit block offset.

The addressing organization of the L3 cache for a four-core i7 with an 8 MB cache, 16-way set associative, and a block size of 64 bytes can be explained as follows:

With a 30-bit block address and 6-bit block offset, we can calculate the cache index and tag bits.

Since there are 64 bytes in a block, 2^6 = 64, making the offset 6 bits.

The cache size is 8 MB or 8 * 2^20 bytes, and there are 16 sets per block, which means there are (8 * 2^20) / (64 * 16) = 2^11 sets in the cache.

Therefore, the cache index is 11 bits.

Finally, the tag bits can be calculated as 30 - 6 - 11 = 13 bits.

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who proposed that intelligence is a single entity?

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The psychologist Charles Spearman proposed the theory that intelligence is a single entity. Spearman's theory, known as the "g factor" theory, suggests that intelligence is a general cognitive ability that underlies various specific mental abilities. According to this view, individuals who perform well in one cognitive task are likely to perform well in other tasks as well, indicating a common underlying factor of general intelligence.

Spearman's theory was based on statistical analyses of intelligence test scores, where he observed positive correlations among different cognitive tasks. He proposed that these correlations could be explained by a single factor, the g factor, which represents the general intelligence common to all tasks.

It's worth noting that Spearman's theory has been debated and alternative theories of multiple intelligences have also been proposed, such as Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, which suggests that intelligence can be divided into different domains or modalities.

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rfid is commonly used to transmit information between networked computers. true or false

Answers

False. RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) is a technology used for wireless communication between a tag (or transponder) and a reader.

It is commonly used for tracking and identifying objects, animals, and people in various industries, including retail, logistics, healthcare, and security. RFID tags can be attached to or embedded in objects and can store data that can be read by an RFID reader. However, RFID is not commonly used to transmit information between networked computers. Instead, other wireless technologies such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and Ethernet are used for this purpose.

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network needs to support 3 customers each of which needs 600 ip addresses. what is a reasonable address allocation?

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A reasonable address allocation for the network would be to use the Class B network address space, which provides 65,536 total IP addresses.

Each customer would be allocated a /19 subnet, which would provide 8,190 usable IP addresses per subnet.

The Class B network address space ranges from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. A /19 subnet mask would have a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which provides 8,190 usable IP addresses per subnet. This allocation would allow each customer to have 600 IP addresses with room for growth, while also providing a sufficient number of subnets to support additional customers if necessary.

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What is true about the following lines? leave=no while [ $leave = no ] a. The script name is while b. The script will never execute c. The script will run as long as the variable leave=no d. The script name is leave

Answers

The correct answer is: c. The script will run as long as the variable leave=no

The given lines are part of a while loop construct in a script. The condition for the while loop is checking if the variable "leave" is equal to "no". As long as the condition is true, the script will continue to execute. Once the condition becomes false, the script will exit the loop and continue with the rest of the program.

a. The statement "The script name is while" is incorrect. The given lines do not indicate the script name.

b. The statement "The script will never execute" is incorrect. The execution of the script depends on the condition specified in the while loop.

d. The statement "The script name is leave" is incorrect. The given lines do not indicate the script name.

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describe tcp and how it provides reliability of packet delivery.

Answers

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable transmission of data packets over IP networks.

It operates by establishing a connection-oriented session between two hosts and provides a reliable and ordered delivery of data packets.

TCP ensures reliability of packet delivery through the use of various mechanisms such as sequence numbers, acknowledgments, and retransmissions. When a sender transmits a data packet, it assigns it a unique sequence number.

The receiver sends an acknowledgment (ACK) message back to the sender indicating the successful receipt of the packet. If the sender does not receive an ACK message within a specific timeout period, it retransmits the packet.

TCP also uses flow control mechanisms to prevent congestion and avoid packet loss. The receiver advertises its buffer size to the sender, and the sender adjusts its transmission rate to avoid overwhelming the receiver. This ensures that packets are delivered at a rate that the receiver can handle.

Overall, TCP provides reliable packet delivery by ensuring that packets are transmitted in sequence, and lost or damaged packets are retransmitted. It also provides flow control mechanisms to avoid congestion and prevent packet loss, ensuring that data is delivered reliably and efficiently over IP networks.

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full backups are time-consuming, so most organizations only do full backups and supplement them with partial backups. a. monthly; weekly b. quarterly; monthly c. annually; quarterly d. weekly; daily

Answers

Full backups are time-consuming, so most organizations only do full backups and supplement them with partial backups is: d. weekly; daily.

Full backups are comprehensive and create a complete copy of all data in an organization's system. However, they are time-consuming and can take a significant amount of time to complete. This is why most organizations supplement full backups with partial backups.

Partial backups are backups that only backup specific parts of the system, such as changes that have occurred since the last backup or specific files and folders. These backups are quicker to perform and require less storage space than full backups. So the answer is d)weekly.

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what object can you create to organize registry preference items?

Answers

To organize registry preference items, you can create a Group Policy Object (GPO).

A Group Policy Object is a container object in the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows administrators to manage various settings and configurations for users and computers within an Active Directory domain. GPOs can be used to define and deploy registry preference items, among other configuration settings. With a GPO, you can create and organize registry preference items by defining specific registry keys, values, and data that you want to enforce across targeted systems. These registry preferences can include creating, modifying, or deleting registry keys and values, setting permissions, configuring preferences for specific user or computer groups, and more.

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text found in an email to indicate an attached file is called __

Answers

The text found in an email to indicate an attached file is typically referred to as an "attachment indicator" or "attachment notation." This text serves as a visual cue or description within the email message, informing the recipient that there is a file attached to the email.

It is commonly represented by phrases such as "Please find attached," "Attached is," or "See attached." This indication helps the recipient identify and locate the attached file easily.

It is important to include a clear and concise attachment indicator to ensure that the recipient recognizes the presence of the attached file and can access it accordingly.

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why might a company ban use of the corporate network and desktop software for personal communications? * 20 points the company might be held responsible it could be an violation of privacy it could increase security risk all of the above

Answers

A company might ban the use of the corporate network and desktop software for personal communications to avoid potential legal issues and security risks.

By using company resources for personal purposes, the company might be held responsible for any inappropriate or illegal activity. Additionally, it could violate employee privacy rights, which could lead to legal consequences.

Finally, personal use of corporate resources could increase the risk of cyberattacks or data breaches, which could compromise sensitive company information.

Therefore, to protect both the company and its employees, it is essential to set clear guidelines and policies regarding the use of company resources for personal communication.

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Which of the following storage devices has the largest potential capacity?
a.Compact disc
b.Thumb drive
c.Bluray disc
d.Mechanical hard drive

Answers

Mechanical hard drive has the largest potential capacity among the given storage devices.

Mechanical hard drives are traditional hard drives that use rotating disks and magnetic heads to store and retrieve data. These drives are capable of storing large amounts of data, with some models offering capacities of up to 16 terabytes or more.  In comparison, compact discs and thumb drives have much smaller capacities, with CDs typically storing up to 700 MB and thumb drives commonly ranging from 2 GB to 256 GB. Blu-ray discs, which are designed for high-definition video and data storage, have a maximum capacity of 100 GB. However, it is worth noting that solid-state drives (SSDs), which use flash memory instead of rotating disks, are becoming increasingly popular due to their faster read and write speeds and improved durability. While their capacity is still somewhat limited compared to mechanical hard drives, newer models are offering larger capacities of up to 30 terabytes.

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What type of database replication relies on centralized control that determines when replicas may be created and how they are synchronized with the master copy? a distributed database model b. traditional database replication c. enterprise replication d. local database model

Answers

The type of database replication that relies on centralized control to determine when replicas may be created and how they are synchronized with the master copy is option c: enterprise replication.

Enterprise replication involves a centralized control mechanism where a designated authority or system manages the creation and synchronization of replicas in a database environment. Option a, distributed database model, refers to a different concept where data is distributed across multiple nodes or sites. Option b, traditional database replication, is a broad term that can encompass different replication methods, not necessarily relying on centralized control. Option d, local database model, is not directly related to replication but could refer to a database model where data is stored locally on a single system.

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