which species are moving to higher elevations of 36 feet per decade and higher latitudes of 10 miles per decade, due to warming temperatures

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Answer 1

The species that are moving to higher elevations of 36 feet per decade and higher latitudes of 10 miles per decade, due to warming temperatures, are a variety of plant and animal species. This is a phenomenon known as climate-induced range shifts.


In this regard, the species that are most likely to move to higher elevations and latitudes include those that are adapted to colder climates, as they are forced to migrate due to the increase in temperature. Some of the species that have been observed to be moving to higher elevations and latitudes due to warming temperatures include the American pika, the Adelie penguin, the Atlantic salmon, the chinook salmon, the emperor penguin, and the moose, among others.

Additionally, certain plant species are also moving to higher elevations and latitudes, such as the Engelmann spruce, the whitebark pine, and the alpine forget-me-not.

This shift in habitat is attributed to the fact that these species require cool temperatures, which are becoming increasingly scarce as the earth's temperature rises. As such, the species are forced to move to higher elevations and latitudes, where the temperature is cooler, to survive. Global warming is causing a shift in the habitats of various species, and this is evident through the migration of certain animals, insects, and plants to higher elevations and latitudes, where the temperature is cooler.

Overall, climate change is causing a wide variety of species to move to higher elevations and latitudes in order to find more suitable living conditions. Species are shifting their ranges of 36 feet per decade and 10 miles per decade due to the warming temperatures caused by climate change.

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Related Questions

Fill-In The Blank: Replication, RNA, and Transcription


DNA Structure Word Bank: You can use a term more than once.

Backbone DNA ligase cytosine deoxyribose DNA DNA polymerase

double helix hydrogen helicase nitrogenous base nucleotides 5’ to 3’ Okasaki fragments protein parent strands purines making proteins

3’ to 5’ pyrimidines ribose RNA 2 identical

single strand storing thymine uracil lagging strand

leading strand nucleus cytoplasm mRNA RNA Polymerase


DNA must replicate as part of cell division. The enzyme that causes DNA to unwind is called (1) helicase. It breaks the hydrogen bonds between the complementary nitrogenous base pairs, separating the double helix into two _(2)______________________. Each of these parent strands serves as a template for new DNA. The enzyme that connects complementary bases of free nucleotides is called (3)________________________. The new complementary strands are made in the (4)_______________direction. Thus, the parent strand is read in the (5) ___________direction. The (6) _________________is made in one continuous strand and follows in the same direction as helicase. The (7) ____________ is created in pieces, called (8) ____________. To connect these pieces, (9) __________ is used to insert the missing nucleotides. The end result is (10) ______________ copies of the original DNA molecule. This entire process takes place in the (11) _________________.

Ribose nucleic acid, (12)__________________ for short, is composed of the same subunits as DNA, except that the thymine bases are replaced with (13)______________________ bases and the sugar backbone is composed of a (14)______________________ sugar. RNA forms a (15)____________________________ structure. While DNA is responsible for (16)______________________ the genetic code, RNA uses the genetic code for _(17)_______________________________.

The process of transcription occurs in the _(18)____________. The purpose of this process is to copy a specific code in the DNA (called a gene) into (19)___________. Transcription begins when an enzyme called (20)_____________ opens DNA and reads the DNA in a (21) ______________ direction. As it does so, it creates an mRNA strand in the (22)___________ direction. When this process is completed, mRNA will eventually leave the (23)__________. MRNA will carry the DNA code on how to make a specific (24) ________

Answers

DNA must replicate as part of cell division. The enzyme that causes DNA to unwind is called helicase.

It breaks the hydrogen bonds between the complementary nitrogenous base pairs, separating the double helix into two single strands.

Each of these parent strands serves as a template for new DNA. The enzyme that connects complementary bases of free nucleotides is called DNA polymerase.

The new complementary strands are made in the 5' to 3' direction.

Thus, the parent strand is read in the 3' to 5' direction.

the leading strand is made in one continuous strand and follows in the same direction as helicase.

The lagging strand is created in pieces, called Okazaki fragments.

To connect these pieces, DNA ligase is used to insert the missing nucleotides.

The end result is 2 identical copies of the original DNA molecule.

This entire process takes place in the nucleus.

Ribose nucleic acid, RNA for short, is composed of the same subunits as DNA, except that the thymine bases are replaced with uracil bases and the sugar backbone is composed of a ribose sugar.

RNA forms a single-stranded structure.

While DNA is responsible for storing the genetic code, RNA uses the genetic code for making proteins.

The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus.

The purpose of this process is to copy a specific code in the DNA (called a gene) into mRNA.

Transcription begins when an enzyme called RNA polymerase opens DNA and reads the DNA in a 3' to 5' direction.

As it does so, it creates an mRNA strand in the 5' to 3' direction.

When this process is completed, mRNA will eventually leave the nucleus.

MRNA will carry the DNA code on how to make a specific protein.

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Just need the answers

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The muscles engaged when pushing against a wall are labeled in the attachment.

What are the muscles engaged when pushing against a wall?

When pushing against a wall, several muscles in your upper body and lower body are engaged. The specific muscles involved depend on your body position, the force of the push, and the duration of the activity.

However, some of the main muscles that are commonly engaged when pushing against a wall include:

Chest muscles (Pectoralis major): These muscles are located in the front of your upper body and are responsible for bringing your arms across your chest.Shoulder muscles (Deltoids): The deltoid muscles are located on the upper part of the shoulder and are responsible for moving your arms away from your body.Triceps: The triceps muscles are located at the back of your upper arms and are responsible for extending your arms.Core muscles: When pushing against a wall, your core muscles, including your abdominal muscles and lower back muscles, are engaged to stabilize your torso and prevent injury.Leg muscles: Your leg muscles, including your quadriceps, hamstrings, and glutes, provide the power to push against the wall and maintain your body position.

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Complete question:

What are the muscles engaged when pushing against a wall?

which of the following plant proteins is a complete source of protein? question 29 options: quinoa kidney beans sunflower seeds oats

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Quinoa is the only complete source of protein among the given plant proteins.

Proteins are made up of amino acids, some of which cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained from the diet. A complete protein source contains all the essential amino acids in the right proportions needed by the body.

Quinoa is a pseudocereal that contains all nine essential amino acids, making it a complete source of protein. It is also high in fiber, vitamins, and minerals, making it a nutritious addition to a plant-based diet. Kidney beans and oats are incomplete sources of protein as they lack some of the essential amino acids, while sunflower seeds are a good source of protein but do not contain sufficient amounts of one or more of the essential amino acids to be considered a complete protein source.

Hence, the correct option is "quinoa".

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which biome receives too little water to support the growth of trees? responses deciduous forest deciduous forest grassland grassland rain forest rain forest taiga

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The biome that receives too little water to support the growth of trees is the grassland biome. Grasslands receive very little rainfall, so trees are unable to grow in these regions. This is why grasslands are also known as savannas.

The grassland biome receives too little water to support the growth of trees. A biome is a large area of the Earth's surface with comparable weather, fauna, and flora. The tundra, grassland, savanna, deciduous forest, boreal forest, and aquatic are examples of major terrestrial biomes. The grassland biome receives too little water to support the growth of trees. Because the grassland biome is dominated by grasses and other herbs, they don't grow tall enough to be classified as trees. As a result, grasslands have a lot of grasses and shrubs but few trees.

The savanna is an example of a grassland biome. The grassland biome receives between 25 and 75 cm of precipitation per year. Because they receive little precipitation, they are susceptible to drought. As a result, fires are common in this region as well.

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Answer:

Grasslands

Explanation: Grasslands have too little water to support trees as it does not rain very often in more temperate

suppose another organism, organism x, is discovered. suggest how scientists would use dna comparison to classify organism x?

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To classify organism X, scientists would compare its DNA with that of other known organisms. They would look at the sequence of bases in the DNA and measure the similarities and differences between the two organisms.

The classification of organisms is based on the similarities and differences in their DNA, which is used to infer the evolutionary relationships between different organisms.The following are some of the ways in which scientists would use DNA comparison to classify organism X:By comparing the nucleotide sequences of DNA from organism X to those from other organisms, scientists could determine the degree of similarity between the sequences.

This similarity could be used to infer the degree of evolutionary relatedness between organism X and other organisms.By analyzing the genomic structure of organism X, scientists could identify the presence of specific genes that are associated with certain functions or characteristics.

These genes could be used to infer the evolutionary relationships between organism X and other organisms with similar genomic structures.By comparing the gene expression profiles of organism X to those of other organisms, scientists could identify similarities and differences in the patterns of gene expression.

These similarities and differences could be used to infer the evolutionary relationships between organism X and other organisms with similar gene expression patterns.In conclusion, DNA comparison is an essential tool for classifying organisms, and it has revolutionized the field of biological research.

By using DNA comparison, scientists can infer the evolutionary relationships between different organisms, and they can better understand the mechanisms that underlie the diversity of life on Earth.

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f pcr is carried out on a sample using primers specific for hpv 16 and no dna is amplified, can a person assume that they are hpv-free?

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No, a person cannot assume that they are HPV-free solely based on the result of a PCR test using primers specific for HPV 16.

This is because there are many different types of HPV, and a negative result for one type does not necessarily mean that the person is negative for all types of HPV.

Additionally, PCR tests have limitations in terms of sensitivity and specificity, which means that false negative results can occur. Therefore, it is important to understand the limitations of any test and to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for HPV testing and prevention.

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The question is -

If PCR is carried out on a sample using primers specific for HPV 16 and no DNA is amplified, can a person assume that they are HPV-free?

why do you think tactilce meissner corpuscles are located relativley close to the surface of the skin rather than deep within the dermis

Answers

The primary reason for tactilce meissner corpuscles's location close to the surface of the skin is because the cells need to be exposed to the external environment to be able to detect pressure and other forms of stimuli.

Tactile Meissner corpuscles are mechanoreceptors located near the surface of the skin. They are small and sensitive structures that allow the body to detect touch, pressure, and vibration. The Meissner corpuscles have a small and cylindrical shape that allows them to pick up any slight changes in pressure. They also have a dense network of nerve fibers that help them quickly and accurately relay information about touch sensations to the brain. Because of their relatively close proximity to the surface of the skin, the tactile Meissner corpuscles can sense very slight changes in pressure and help the body respond appropriately.

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In some parts of the world, there is a concern that supplies of clean fresh water are not sufficient. One response to this has been to develop technologies for desalination, or the removal of salt from seawater. After salt is removed, the seawater is suitable for people, livestock, and plants. The salt that is removed is returned to the sea. What action would be most important for policy makers to undertake before deciding whether to build desalination plants in a region?

investigate the effect of increased salt concentrations on coastal ecosystems

investigate the mineral-level differences between groundwater and desalinated water

investigate the effect of the possible increase in people and livestock in the region based on increased water supply

investigate the relative cost and effectiveness of different water transport systems to carry water from the desalination plant

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Answer: The answer is D: investigate the relative cost and effectiveness of different water transport systems to carry water from the desalination plant

investigate the relative cost and effectiveness of different water transport systems to carry water from the desalination plant

Explanation:

Its D because if you as the scientist investigate the cost and both effectiveness of what your doing, it help make a better decision on how effective it is.

The "most important" action for policymakers to undertake before making a decision, it can be  say that investigating the effect of increased salt concentrations on coastal ecosystems is the most critical step.

What are desalination plants ?

Desalination plants are facilities that remove salt and other minerals from seawater, brackish water, or other types of water that are too salty or contaminated for human use.

The process of desalination involves removing the dissolved salts and minerals through various methods, such as reverse osmosis, distillation, or electrodialysis.

All of the options mentioned are important factors to consider when deciding whether to build desalination plants in a region.

However, given that the question asks for the "most important" action for policymakers to undertake before making a decision, it can be say that investigating the effect of increased salt concentrations on coastal ecosystems is the most critical step.

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for your botany lab report, you need to sketch guard cells in a leaf section. how can you identify them?

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On the pore size of the per guard cell, there is a thin cuticle to the side. The light side of the cell grows like a balloon when water enters it, drawing the thick side with it to form a crescent; The set of crescents forms the pore's slot.

Gas diffusion is controlled by guard cells, pairs of epidermal cells that regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pores. Like other types of plant cells, guard cells are surrounded by a three-dimensional extracellular network of wall polymers based on polysaccharides.

Another type of plant single-cell model known as guard cells are used to investigate the early signal transduction and stress tolerance mechanisms of plants. In the leaf epidermis, guard cells are surrounded by stomatal pores. Monitor cells individually to control the deluge and efflux of CO2 and water from leaves.

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For a certain type of plant, the gene for red flower color is dominant while
the gene for yellow flower color is recessive. Two plants with red flowers
produce an offspring with yellow flowers. Which best describes the genes
of the parent plants?
O both parents carry one recessive gene
Oneither parents carry a recessive gene
O one parent carries two recessive genes, but the other does not
one parent carries the recessive gene, but the other does not

Answers

The right response is: One recessive gene is carried by each parent.

This indicates that both parents contain one recessive allele for yellow flowers and are heterozygous for the flower color gene (Rr), with the dominant allele for red flowers (R) manifested in their phenotypic (r).

There is a 25% probability that when they have a child, the child will inherit the recessive allele from each parent and have the recessive phenotype (yellow flowers).

Mendel genetics: What is it?Gregor Mendel's experiments from the middle of the 19th century served as the basis for the study of inheritance patterns in organisms, which is known as Mendel genetics. Mendel developed his rules of inheritance, which are still used to comprehend genetic inheritance in all organisms, using pea plants to analyze the inheritance of traits.Mendel's laws of inheritance include the laws of segregation and independent assortment. The laws of segregation and independent assortment indicate that pairs of genes separate throughout the development of gametes and that genes for various traits are inherited independently of one another. These laws clarify how features are passed down from parents to children and how populations develop genetic diversity.

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Autoimmunity can result when the body fails to eliminate or silence ______ that would respond to and attack normal body tissues.

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Answer:

Autoimmunity can result when the body fails to eliminate or silence T CELLS that would respond to and attack normal body tissues.

when the action potential reaches the end of the axon, it triggers a release of chemical molecules called:

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When the action potential reaches the end of the axon, it triggers the release of chemical molecules called neurotransmitters.

Neurotransmitters are chemicals that are released from one neuron and bind to receptors on other neurons. They can either excite or inhibit the receiving neuron, depending on the type of neurotransmitter released. Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse and, when they bind to their receptors, an electrical or chemical signal is sent to the receiving neuron.

This can lead to the formation of a new action potential, which can travel down the receiving neuron's axon and lead to further chemical reactions.

The overall process of neurotransmitter release, receptor binding, and electrical or chemical signals between neurons is what allows neurons to communicate with each other, resulting in the formation of memories, emotions, and responses to various stimuli.

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information flow can be altered by mutation. describe three different types of mutations and their effect on protein synthesis

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Mutations can alter the information flow in a cell and have a dramatic effect on protein synthesis. Point mutations, frameshift mutations, and insertions/deletions can all result in the production of a misfolded or non-functional protein, and they can also affect gene expression.

Mutations are changes in the genetic material of a cell, and they can alter the flow of information and affect protein synthesis. There are three main types of mutations that affect protein synthesis: point mutations, frameshift mutations, and insertions/deletions.

Point Mutations occur when a single base pair in the DNA is altered. This can result in an incorrect amino acid being incorporated into the protein, leading to a misfolded protein or a non-functional protein. Point mutations can also change the regulatory sequences, which can result in decreased or increased expression of a gene.

Frameshift Mutations happen when a single base pair is deleted or inserted into the DNA, resulting in the reading frame of the codon being shifted. This can drastically alter the protein that is produced, leading to a misfolded or non-functional protein.

Insertions/Deletions occur when one or more base pairs are added or removed from the DNA, respectively. This can result in the production of a truncated protein, or a non-functional protein. Insertions and deletions can also affect the regulatory sequences of the gene, which can lead to decreased or increased expression of a gene.

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Helppp
Which statement is generally true of secondary succession but not of primary succession? (4 points)
O The end result is a mature forest community.
The pioneer community contains soil as opposed to barren rock.
O The process begins when lichens cause physical and chemical weathering.
The changes are triggered by natural disasters such as earthquakes and forest fires.

Answers

Answer:

The pioneer community contains soil as opposed to barren rock.

Explanation:

which of the following vitamins and supplements is an essential amino acid found in meat and dairy, used to manufacture proteins, and has no direct influence on metabolic pathways in the body? multiple choice question. taurine riboflavin tyrosine phenylalanine malic acid

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The following vitamins and supplements is an essential amino acid found in meat and dairy, used to manufacture proteins, and has no direct influence on metabolic pathways in the body is taurine.

Taurine is found in a wide range of foods such as seafood, meat, and dairy products, and is also available as a dietary supplement. It plays an important role in many physiological processes such as stabilizing cell membranes, protecting cells from damage, aiding in the digestion of fats and lipids, and helping to regulate electrolyte balance. Taurine differs from other essential amino acids as it does not act as a building block of proteins or have any direct influence on metabolic pathways in the body. Instead, it functions as an organic osmolyte, helping to maintain cellular osmotic pressure and stabilizing cell volume. Taurine also helps to regulate neurotransmission, glucose levels, and blood pressure.

In addition to its role in the body, taurine is also important for infants as it helps in the development of their brain and nervous system. Taurine deficiencies can cause an array of health issues such as impaired vision, learning disabilities, and impaired coordination. Overall, taurine is an essential amino acid that is found in a variety of foods and is important for many physiological processes in the body. It does not act as a building block of proteins or have any direct influence on metabolic pathways in the body, but instead helps to maintain cellular osmotic pressure and regulate neurotransmission, glucose levels, and blood pressure.

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race is a made-up classification with no actual bearing in science group of answer choices true false

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Answer: Race is a made-up classification with no actual bearing in science. This statement is true.

What is race?

Race is a social construct that categorizes people based on physical characteristics such as skin color, hair texture, and facial features. Although it has no biological basis, it has been used as a means of segregating individuals and determining their social status.

However, biologically, the concept of race has been discredited. There is no genetic basis for the categorization of individuals into races. People's genetic makeups differ significantly, regardless of their race. In the human genome, there are no unique genetic markers that correspond to particular racial categories, according to geneticists.

Thus, race is a made-up classification with no actual bearing in science. While it is socially important, its creation and impact have no scientific basis.



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the regeneration of rubp typically limits the rate of photosynthesis under low light intensities. this is because:

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The regeneration of RuBP usually limits the rate of photosynthesis under low light intensities. This is because it is a light-dependent process that occurs in the presence of sunlight. Therefore, the correct option is photosynthetic rates are dependent on the light reaction of photosynthesis.

What is Photosynthesis?

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy stored in sugar molecules such as glucose. In photosynthesis, energy from light is used to power the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to glucose and oxygen. The overall reaction can be written as follows:

6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2

The reaction occurs in two stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, light energy is absorbed by pigments in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, and this energy is used to generate ATP and NADPH, which are used to power the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, carbon dioxide is fixed into glucose by a process called the Calvin cycle.

What are RuBP and Photosynthetic Rates?

RuBP is a short form of Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate. It is an organic compound present in photosynthetic organisms. Rubisco, or ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase, is a vital enzyme in photosynthesis that catalyzes the carbon fixation reaction. Photosynthetic rates are the rates at which plants perform photosynthesis. It is dependent on light intensity and several other environmental factors. It is the process by which plants produce glucose and oxygen from carbon dioxide and water. The photosynthetic rate is also limited by the regeneration of RuBP. The reason being, RuBP is required to regenerate the organic compound used in the carbon fixation reaction.

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Do you think the genetic change that resulted in the segmented nose occurred in the DNA of body cells or the DNA of reproductive cells? Why?

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Answer: The emergence of segmented noses in various species happened due to genetic changes that were selected for through natural selection. These genetic alterations could have occurred in either the body or the reproductive cells. Nevertheless, for the genetic transformation to be inherited by future generations, it must occur in the DNA of reproductive cells, such as egg or sperm cells, which transmit genetic information to offspring. Consequently, the genetic mutation leading to the segmented nose probably appeared in the DNA of reproductive cells.

Explanation: ^^

Answer:

See below, please.

Explanation:

In general, genetic changes that result in physical traits can occur in either the DNA of body cells or the DNA of reproductive cells.

Mutations or changes in DNA can happen spontaneously during DNA replication or as a result of exposure to environmental factors such as radiation or chemicals, among other reasons. These changes can occur in any type of cell, including reproductive cells (sperm and egg cells) or body cells (such as skin cells).

If a genetic change occurs in a reproductive cell, it can be passed on to offspring and can become part of the population's genetic makeup over time. However, if a genetic change occurs in a body cell, it will not be passed on to offspring but may still affect the individual's physical traits.

Finally, without further context about the specific genetic change that resulted in the segmented nose, it is difficult to determine whether it occurred in the DNA of body cells or reproductive cells.

the construction of production strains by targeting only genes of interest for mutagenesis is also known as

Answers

The construction of production strains by targeting only genes of interest for mutagenesis is also known as targeted mutagenesis or site-directed mutagenesis. This is a molecular biology technique that allows scientists to introduce specific changes in the DNA sequence of a gene to create a desired mutation.

Targeted mutagenesis is widely used in biotechnology and genetic research to study the function of specific genes, create genetic models, and develop industrial strains for the production of valuable products such as biofuels, pharmaceuticals, and other chemicals. The technique involves the use of specific enzymes, such as nucleases or polymerases, to modify the DNA sequence at a precise location, usually by inserting, deleting, or replacing specific nucleotides.

The key advantage of targeted mutagenesis is its precision, which allows for the modification of only the gene of interest, without affecting other genes in the organism. This results in a more controlled and accurate assessment of the functional consequences of the introduced mutations, compared to random mutagenesis methods.

In summary, targeted mutagenesis is a powerful and widely used technique in molecular biology that allows for the precise modification of specific genes  to study their function, create genetic models, and develop industrial strains for various applications. It offers a high level of control and accuracy compared to other methods, making it an essential tool for modern genetic research and biotechnology.

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spinocerebellar tracts . a) terminate in the spinal cord b) carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum c) give rise to conscious experience of perception d) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord

Answers

The spinocerebellar tracts are nerve fibers that connect the spinal cord to the cerebellum.

They are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord and are divided into two pathways: the direct pathway and the indirect pathway. The direct pathway carries information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum, while the indirect pathway carries information about proprioception, such as movement and position. The spinocerebellar tracts terminate in the spinal cord and do not give rise to the conscious experience of perception.

In summary, the spinocerebellar tracts are nerve fibers that connect the spinal cord to the cerebellum. They are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord and are divided into two pathways, the direct pathway and the indirect pathway. The direct pathway carries information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum, while the indirect pathway carries information about proprioception. The spinocerebellar tracts terminate in the spinal cord and do not give rise to the conscious experience of perception.

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If you were studying the functions of skeletal muscle, you would be studying all of the following except:
protecting internal organs.
movement.
holding the head erect.
production of blood cells.
helping maintain a constant body temperature.

Answers

Answer:

Helping maintain a constant body temperature

Explanation:

The skeletal muscle does not maintain body temperature

It aids movement

It serves as a form of protection for the internal organs for example rib cage for the liver

The bone marrow produces red blood cells

But the skeleton doesn't maintain the body temperature

how many barr bodies would you expect to find in humans with the following abnormal compositions of sex chromosomes? a. xxy b. xyy c. xxx d. x0 (a person with just a single x chromosome)

Answers

In humans, there would be no Barr bodies in individuals with the following abnormal compositions of sex chromosomes: a. xxy, b. xyy, and d. x0 (a person with just a single X chromosome).

However, for individuals with the abnormal composition of sex chromosome c. xxx, there would be one Barr body.

The Barr body is an inactivated X chromosome that is found in cells of female organisms. This process of inactivation occurs during the early stages of embryonic development, so that the two X chromosomes found in female organisms are not expressed.

In individuals with two X chromosomes, one of the chromosomes is inactivated and becomes the Barr body. Since individuals with the abnormal composition c. xxx have three X chromosomes, one of the X chromosomes is inactivated and becomes the Barr body.

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the presence of endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm is first seen in the ______ stage. the presence of endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm is first seen in the ______ stage. morula fetal gastrula blastocyst

Answers

The presence of endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm is first seen in the gastrula stage.

The process by which a blastula transforms into a gastrula with the formation of three embryonic germ layers is called gastrulation. The three germ layers produced during gastrulation are the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.The gastrula is an embryonic phase in which the embryo, called a blastula, is transformed. During gastrulation, the embryo's single-layered blastula transforms into a three-layered structure. The three germ layers produced during gastrulation are the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm

Gastrulation is the embryonic stage at which the three germ layers, the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm, develop. The formation of the blastula and its three germ layers is the first significant step in embryonic development, which is aided by the development of gastrulation. During gastrulation, a number of movements happen that result in the creation of a group of cells that will become the embryo. The cells that make up the embryo, on the other hand, have now been classified into three distinct layers: the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.

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which of the following is not a function of the sympathetic nervous system? question 3 options: a) dilation of blood vessels in the muscles b) constriction of blood vessels in the muscles c) increases in the heart and respiratory rates d) constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system

Answers

Answer: The answer would be B.

Explanation: The SNS is related to the fight or flight response system, regulated by adrenaline and cortisol. An influx of both would cause more blood flow to muscles, and an increase in heart rate and respiratory rates. The increase allows for the adrenaline to get to important areas of the body quickly.

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Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system is not a function of the sympathetic nervous system. Option d.

The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the autonomic nervous system and its main role is to prepare the body for stressful situations by increasing the heart rate, dilating the pupils, increasing the respiration rate, and raising the blood pressure.

The sympathetic nervous system also increases the flow of blood to the muscles, which is achieved by dilating the blood vessels in the muscles.

However, the sympathetic nervous system does not cause constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system. Instead, this function is performed by the parasympathetic nervous system, which has a calming and relaxing effect on the body.

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which of these is not a human phenotype? select one: a. weight b. blue eyes c. novelty-seeking behavior d. deletion of a 9 basepair fragment of dna

Answers

Deletion of a 9 base pair DNA fragment is not a human phenotype, so the correct answer is choice D.

Physical and behavioral traits of an individual that are determined by their genes are known as phenotypes. Phenotypes can be determined by a single gene or by a group of genes. Phenotype is determined by the interaction between an organism's genetic code and the environment in which it exists.

Weight, blue eyes, and novelty-seeking behavior are all examples of human phenotypes. The deletion of a 9 base pair fragment of DNA is not a human phenotype. Deletion of genetic material refers to the removal of genes, chromosomes, or parts of chromosomes from a person's genome.

Deletions may involve a single nucleotide or a large section of a chromosome. Some deletions have little effect on an individual's health or development, while others may lead to serious medical problems or developmental disorders. Therefore, the correct option is D.

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what is scurvy two symptoms of it​

Answers

Answer:

Scurvy is a kind of disease which is caused due to a severe deficiency of Vitamin C or ascorbic acid in the body of an individual.

Explanation: Unavailability of sufficient nutrition or not enough intake of fruits and vegetables may lead to this type of diseases.

The symptoms includes-

1. Bleeding or swollen o f gums

2. Loosening of teeth

3. Bleeding under one's skin

4. Various spots on the skin red, blue colored.

essien is meditating and focusing on his breathing. what changes are occurring in his thoracic cavity when he inhales?

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When Essien inhales, the muscles of the thoracic cavity contract, the rib cage expands, the pressure inside the thoracic cavity decreases, air enters the thoracic cavity, the lungs expand, and the diaphragm contracts, all of which work together to facilitate the inhalation process.

Essien is meditating and focusing on his breathing.

When he inhales, the muscles of the thoracic cavity contract and cause the rib cage to expand. This increases the volume of the thoracic cavity, which results in a decrease in pressure.

As the pressure inside the thoracic cavity decreases, air rushes in through the trachea and into the lungs, allowing oxygen to be delivered to the body.

As air enters the thoracic cavity, the lungs expand, increasing the capacity of the thoracic cavity to hold more air and making the inhalation process more effective. Additionally, the diaphragm contracts, which further increases the capacity of the thoracic cavity to hold air.

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the oxygen exchange between the red blood cells and the alveoli is driven by diffusion. this diffusion is due to the

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The oxygen exchange between the red blood cells and the alveoli is driven by diffusion. this diffusion is due to the lower pressure of oxygen in the red blood cells.

Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, are one of the main types of blood cells in the human body. They are responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues, and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs for removal. Red blood cells are biconcave discs that are small in size, measuring about 7.5 micrometers in diameter.

They contain a protein called hemoglobin, which binds with oxygen and gives the cells their characteristic red color. Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow and have a lifespan of about 120 days. They are constantly being produced and broken down in the body, with the spleen playing a major role in removing old or damaged red blood cells.

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which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (acth)? a. thyrotrophs b. corticotrophs c. somatotrophs d. gonadotrophs e. lactotrophs

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The correct answer is B. Corticotrophs are a type of anterior pituitary cells that secrete Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH).

Corticotrophs are a type of endocrine cell in the anterior pituitary gland that produces and secretes several hormones, including ACTH. ACTH, in turn, stimulates the production and release of cortisol from the adrenal glands, which plays an important role in regulating the body's stress response and metabolism. So this hormone is released when the body is under stress, and it helps to regulate metabolic processes such as metabolism, immune response, and electrolyte balance. Corticotrophs are also involved in the regulation of other hormones such as growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone.  

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which of the following statements is not true? a.a genotype is always expressed in the phenotype. b.environmental factors can alter the effects of genes. c.traits that are determined by the effect of more than one gene are known as polygenic. d.most traits are under the control of more than one gene.

Answers

Answer: A. a genotype is always expressed in the phenotype.

Explanation:

A genotype is not always expressed in the phenotype.

The genotype is an organism's genetic information, whereas a phenotype is the set of observable physical traits.

One example of this is a purple flower.

Suppose that the genotype of a flower is Bb (heterozygous). The phenotype would be the trait observed, in this case, it's the color. The phenotype would be "purple".

If I just gave you the phenotype "purple", you wouldn't be able to know the genotype because there are two possible answers; BB and Bbm which would both lead to a purple-colored flower.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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