which term names what can regulate gene expression in eukaryotes? responses plasmids plasmids lac operons lac operons lipids lipids transcription factors

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Transcription factors

Explanation:

Gene expression can be altered depending on the transcription of genes.

Transcription factors are proteins that can either activate or deactivate genes through the rate of transcription, which is the process of converting DNA to mRNA in order to make more proteins.

Examples of transcription factors are activators and repressors. Activators enable transcription to occur by the use of RNA polymerase binding to DNA, while repressors stop transcription from occurring by blocking RNA polymerase from binding to DNA.

These transcription factors decide whether or not a gene is expressed.

Answer 2

Transcription factors regulate gene expression in eukaryotes.

Transcription factors are proteins that bind to specific regions of DNA, known as promoter regions, to regulate gene expression.

These proteins can either increase or decrease gene expression by binding to the promoter region and affecting how much transcription of the gene occurs.

Plasmids are small, circular pieces of DNA found in some bacteria. Plasmids do not regulate gene expression. Lac operons are gene regulatory systems that help bacteria to process sugar.

Lac operons do not regulate gene expression in eukaryotes.

Lipids are molecules that help form the cell membrane and can also be involved in cell signaling, but they do not regulate gene expression in eukaryotes.

Therefore, the term that names what can regulate gene expression in eukaryotes is transcription factors.

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Related Questions

during the menstrual cycle, what triggers ovulation to occur? question 23 options: a gradual decrease in estrogen levels. inhibin b sharply spikes. a surge in progesterone occurs. activin is released.

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Ovulation is triggered by a surge in progesterone which occurs during the menstrual cycle.

This surge is caused by the follicle stimulating hormone, which is produced by the pituitary gland. The FSH encourages the growth of follicles in the ovaries, which produce estrogen. As the follicle matures, estrogen levels peak. The peak in estrogen causes the brain to secrete luteinizing hormone, which triggers the follicle to rupture and release an egg (ovulation). Activin, inhibin B, and a gradual decrease in estrogen levels are all part of the process that precedes and follows ovulation. Activin is a hormone secreted by the ovaries, which helps to mature follicles.

Inhibin B is a hormone secreted by the ovaries, which is thought to help control the amount of FSH in the body and in turn the number of follicles that mature. A gradual decrease in estrogen levels occurs as ovulation approaches and during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. This decrease in estrogen helps to prepare the body for the next menstrual cycle.

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In humans, how has that term been historically modified?

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In humans, the term "race" has been historically modified. This term has been used to categorize people into different groups based on their physical characteristics such as skin color, hair texture, and facial features.

However, this categorization has been found to be biologically meaningless as there is more genetic variation within these groups than between them. Additionally, this categorization has been used to justify discriminatory practices such as slavery, segregation, and genocide.

Therefore, it is important to recognize the flawed nature of this term and move towards a more inclusive and equitable understanding of human diversity. This can be achieved through promoting cultural awareness, celebrating differences, and recognizing the humanity of all individuals regardless of their physical characteristics.

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when dna probes are used to identify bacterial dna similarities by hybridization, the probe dna is heated and the template dna is treated to separate the 2 strands. why would the probe dna be heated?

Answers

Answer:

The probe DNA is heated to denature or separate the two strands of the double-stranded DNA to make it single-stranded. This is because hybridization, the process of joining two complementary strands of DNA, can only occur between two single-stranded DNA molecules. By heating the probe DNA, it denatures and becomes single-stranded, allowing it to hybridize with the target DNA under specific conditions. The temperature at which the denaturation or melting occurs depends on the base composition of the DNA, specifically the amount of G-C pairs. This is known as the melting temperature or Tm.

fred had chicken pox as a child. which of his cells confer immunological memory to the chicken pox virus?

Answers

Answer:A lymphocyte (B or T cell) that retains a “memory” of a specific pathogen after an infection is over and thus provides immunity to the pathogen.

Explanation:

up to 25% of a cell's atp is used to run sodium-potassium pumps. without the resulting sodium and potassium gradients, neurons and muscles cannot fire properly. if a person is poisoned with cyanide, they cannot generate atp, and die within a few minutes. in relation to the sodium-potassium pump, what specific impact would cyanide have on concentrations across the cell membrane?

Answers

Cyanide depolarizes the peritubular cell layer by +18.8 +/ - 2.3 mV/10 min in the presence and by +4.5 +/ - 0.9 mV/10 min without even a trace of the luminal substrate.

Hydrogen cyanide is a poisonous little nonpolar particle that is delivered by certain plants to discourage herbivores. Cyanide crosses layers and restrains a critical cycle in the breath.

The cyanide particle, CN, ties to the iron molecule in cytochrome C oxidase in the mitochondria of the cells and goes about as an irreversible protein inhibitor. This keeps cytochrome C oxidase from doing what it needs to do, which is to send electrons to oxygen in the electron transport chain of high-impact cell breath.

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There are about __________ species of corals.

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There are about 800 species of corals. Corals are small, soft-bodied organisms related to jellyfish and sea anemones that form coral reefs, which are shallow-water marine ecosystems that support a diverse range of marine species.

Coral reefs are often called the rainforests of the sea due to their high biodiversity.

Corals form colonies made up of hundreds to thousands of individual polyps that secrete a hard exoskeleton of calcium carbonate.

Coral reefs, which are built by corals, are the largest biological structures on the planet and serve as crucial habitats for many marine organisms.

There are two types of corals: soft corals and hard corals, and there are around 800 species of corals found worldwide, with the Indo-Pacific region having the highest diversity.

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Subject: Science


1. Approximately how far away would the formation of Earth be if you used the scale from your timeline?


2. Which events helped life develop on Earth? ''Explain''.

Answers

Because several meteorites have been dated, the Earth's age has increased from 4.55 0.3 billion years in 1956 to 4.55 0.02 billion years. I) The synthesis of nucleotides and amino acids.

How did life on Earth start to appear?

In rocks that are 3.7 billion years old, the oldest known life forms, microbes, have left their imprint. The signals were made up of a specific class of carbon molecules produced by living things.

What process created the Earth?

Formation. Over a period of 4.5 billion years, whenever the solar system was still in its current configuration, the second planet from the Sun—Earth—was created when gravity drew spinning gas and dust in. Earth has a solid crust, a high degree of crystallinity, and a central core, just like its sibling terrestrial planets.

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during conjugation, the donor cell generally retains a copy of the genetic material being transferred. this is termed a blank process

Answers

Answer:

Conservative

Explanation:

During conjugation, the donor cell generally retains a copy of the genetic material being transferred. This is termed a conservative process.

kenyatta is participating in a research study examining the effects of a particular hormone. after she is given the hormone, she engages in behaviors that demonstrate trust in strangers, peer bonding, and group cohesion. kenyatta was

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The hormone that Kenyatta was given is oxytocin as she encounters behavior that indicates trust in strangers and peer bonding.

What is oxytocin?

Oxytocin is often referred to as the "trust hormone" or "bonding hormone" because it plays a role in social behavior and emotional bonding. It is known to promote trust, social bonding, and positive interactions with others.

Oxytocin is released naturally in the body during various social activities such as positive social interactions. In research studies, the administration of exogenous oxytocin has been associated with increased trust, social bonding, and group cohesion, which aligns with the behaviors exhibited by Kenyatta in the study.

Therefore, the hormone that is given to Kenyatta is oxytocin.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the full question is this:

Kenyatta is participating in a research study examining the effects of a particular hormone. after she is given the hormone, she engages in behaviors that demonstrate trust in strangers, peer bonding, and group cohesion. Kenyatta was given which hormone?

why do we think that some cell signaling molecules have a long evolutionary history? select all that apply.

Answers

The conservation of cell signaling molecules across species, their essential roles in various biological processes, and their early emergence in the evolutionary timeline all support the idea that some cell signaling molecules have a long evolutionary history.

We think that some cell signaling molecules have a long evolutionary history because of the following reasons:
1. Conservation across species: Cell signaling molecules are found to be conserved across a wide range of species, from simple organisms like bacteria to more complex organisms like humans. This conservation suggests that these molecules have been maintained throughout evolution due to their importance in cellular communication and function.
2. Essential roles in biological processes: Cell signaling molecules play crucial roles in various biological processes, such as cell growth, differentiation, and response to environmental stimuli. These processes are essential for the survival and reproduction of organisms, so it is likely that cell signaling molecules have evolved to optimize these functions over time.
3. Early emergence in the evolutionary timeline: Some cell signaling molecules are thought to have emerged early in the evolutionary timeline, which supports the idea that they have a long evolutionary history. For example, certain signaling molecules are found in ancient single-celled organisms, indicating that they have been present in life forms since the early stages of evolution.
In summary, the conservation of cell signaling molecules across species, their essential roles in various biological processes, and their early emergence in the evolutionary timeline all support the idea that some cell signaling molecules have a long evolutionary history.

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Please help quick I’ll mark brainly
Why does the Northern hemisphere produce more CO2 overall? Why does it absorb more CO2 certain times of year?

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Answer:

The Northern Hemisphere produces more CO2 overall for several reasons. One main reason is that it contains more land area and therefore more vegetation that undergoes photosynthesis, which takes in CO2. However, during the winter months, when the temperature drops, the vegetation goes dormant and stops absorbing CO2. At the same time, human activity, such as burning fossil fuels and heating buildings, tends to increase during the winter months, which leads to an increase in CO2 emissions. As a result, the Northern Hemisphere experiences seasonal variations in CO2 levels, with higher levels during the winter months and lower levels during the summer months when vegetation is actively growing and absorbing CO2. Additionally, the Northern Hemisphere experiences more seasonal variation in general, with more extreme temperatures and weather patterns that can affect the balance of CO2 in the atmosphere.

which name is given to the phase of the hair growth cycle where the hair falls out?

Answers

The phase of the hair growth cycle where the hair falls out is Telogen phase.

The hair growth cycle is the process by which hair grows and falls out, and it involves three stages. The three stages are the anagen, catagen, and telogen phases. The hair growth cycle is a natural process that happens in three stages.

The three stages are:

Anagen phase: The anagen phase is the active growth phase of the hair follicle. It is the period during which the hair grows actively. The anagen phase lasts between 2 and 7 years and is different for each individual.

During the anagen phase, the hair root is firmly implanted in the scalp, and it receives nutrients and oxygen through the blood vessels.

Catagen phase: The catagen phase is the transitional phase of the hair growth cycle. This phase typically lasts between 2 and 3 weeks and is a period of transition from the anagen phase to the telogen phase.

During the catagen phase, the hair stops growing, and the follicle shrinks.

Telogen phase: The telogen phase is the resting phase of the hair growth cycle. During this phase, the hair is fully formed and does not grow.

The telogen phase lasts between 2 and 4 months, and at the end of this phase, the hair falls out.

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Which best describes a hurricane?
A
a low-pressure weather system
B
a high-pressure weather system
C
a cold front
D
a stationary front

Answers

Answer:

your answer is: A hope this helps

Explanation:

I believe the answer is B

During crossing over, when the invading strand uses the invaded DNA as a _____, this automatically results in an extra copy of the invaded sequence at the expense of the invading sequence, thus explaining the departure from the expected _____ ratio.

Answers

The correct answer is: During crossing over, when the invading strand uses the invaded DNA as a template, this automatically results in an extra copy of the invaded sequence at the expense of the invading sequence, thus explaining the departure from the expected 1:1 ratio of crossing over.

Explanation:

DNA is replicated through the process of crossing over, which involves the exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes. During the process, one of the homologous chromosomes acts as the invading sequence, while the other acts as the invaded DNA. When the invading strand uses the invaded DNA as a template, it results in an extra copy of the invaded sequence at the expense of the invading sequence, thus explaining the departure from the expected 1:1 ratio of crossing over.
What is crossing over?

Crossing over is a process during meiosis where the chromosome arms of maternal and paternal homologous chromosomes swap DNA sections (recombination) to produce new allelic combinations of traits. The crossing-over process starts with the breakage of two homologous chromosomes, the migration of the broken ends toward each other, and the formation of crosslinks by the formation of single crossovers.

These crosslinks are eventually converted to chiasmata that keep the chromosomal arms connected until metaphase I. During this process, one chromosome might lose genetic material while the other might acquire genetic material. This event results in unique combinations of genes that might not be present in either parent. The frequency of crossovers is affected by the distance between the gene and the centromere. Chromosomes that are nearer to the centromere are less likely to cross over than those that are further away. Explaining the departure from the expected Mendelian ratio.

The ratio of offspring created by a cross that exhibits the dominant and recessive traits that Mendel observed is referred to as the Mendelian ratio. Crossing over might result in new allelic combinations of genes that deviate from the Mendelian ratios. This is because the transmission of genes is no longer controlled by a single gene pair on a chromosome. Chromosome segregation is disturbed in one way or another by crossovers.

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what is the role of the 5' cap on a eukaryotic mrna molecule? multiple select question. it facilitates the exit of mrna from the nucleus. it allows the mrna to bind to a ribosome for translation. it is recognized by rna polymerase to allow the initiation of transcription. it enables the spliceosome to identify the first exon.

Answers

The answer to the question is A and B - it facilitates the exit of mRNA from the nucleus and it allows the mRNA to bind to a ribosome for translation.

The role of the 5' cap on a eukaryotic mRNA molecule is to allow the mRNA to bind to a ribosome for translation and it facilitates the exit of mRNA from the nucleus. The 5' cap is a necessary feature of eukaryotic mRNA molecules that aids in their translation. The 5' cap, which is a chemically modified nucleotide added to the 5' end of the mRNA during RNA processing, provides a variety of benefits for the mRNA molecule.

The 5' cap helps to shield the mRNA molecule from RNA-degrading enzymes in the cytoplasm, as well as to promote the ribosome's binding to the mRNA molecule. It also aids in the initiation of protein synthesis by facilitating the formation of a complex between the mRNA, ribosome, and initiator tRNA.

Finally, the 5' cap aids in the process of splicing the mRNA molecule to remove non-coding introns. The 5' cap of eukaryotic mRNA also helps to distinguish between self and non-self RNA. By identifying the 5' cap, host cells may differentiate between their own mRNA and foreign mRNA.

Thus, the 5' cap serves as a molecular "passport" that identifies the mRNA molecule as genuine and necessary for the cell's normal functions.

Therefore, the correct option is A and B.

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how are rnai feeding strains of bacteria different from the op50 bacteria which are grown on plain ngm plates

Answers

RNAi feeding strains of bacteria differ from OP50 bacteria in several ways. RNAi feeding strains can be used to study gene expression, while OP50 bacteria are used for maintenance of Caenorhabditis elegans.


RNAi feeding strains of bacteria are different from the OP50 bacteria which are grown on plain NGM plates because RNAi feeding strains of bacteria are designed to provide double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) to organisms to induce RNA interference (RNAi). On the other hand, the OP50 bacteria which are grown on plain NGM plates are used as food for the nematode worms in a laboratory.

RNA interference (RNAi) is a natural biological process that occurs in eukaryotic organisms such as nematode worms, plants, and mammals. RNAi acts as a defense mechanism against the invasion of viruses or the activity of transposons that can induce mutations or chromosomal rearrangements.To provide dsRNA to organisms to induce RNAi, feeding strains of bacteria have been genetically modified. These bacterial strains express the target gene dsRNA, which can be ingested by the nematodes or other organisms.

Feeding of dsRNA to organisms can lead to the degradation of the target mRNA and therefore a reduction of protein expression and function.OP50 bacteria grown on plain NGM plates, on the other hand, are used as a food source for nematode worms. The bacteria, E. coli strain OP50 is not modified to express dsRNA to induce RNAi. Instead, they are a good source of nutrition for nematode worms and are often used as an auxiliary food source in worm cultures.

First, RNAi feeding strains are designed to express a certain gene, while OP50 bacteria are wild-type, meaning that they do not have any extra genetic components. Second, RNAi feeding strains are usually grown on nutrient-rich plates, while OP50 bacteria are grown on plain NGM plates.

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growth hormone, secreted by the gland, stimulates growth of bones and muscle by activating intermediary proteins called

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Growth hormone, secreted by the pituitary gland, stimulates the growth of bones and muscle by activating intermediary proteins called growth factors. Growth factors are molecules that bind to receptors on the surface of target cells.


What are growth hormones?

Growth hormone, secreted by the pituitary gland, stimulates the growth of bones and muscle by activating intermediary proteins called STATs (signal transducers and activators of transcription). It has been shown that signaling pathways are crucial to the regulation of growth hormone (GH) in terms of both its secretion and actions.

The signaling pathways used by the GH receptor involve a number of intermediary proteins that interact with the receptor and allow it to carry out its functions. Growth hormone, secreted by the pituitary gland, stimulates the growth of bones and muscle by activating intermediary proteins called STATs (signal transducers and activators of transcription).

These STAT proteins then activate a number of transcription factors that are responsible for the production of various genes that control growth. As a result of this signaling pathway, GH is able to promote growth in both bone and muscle tissues.

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where does hemopoiesis occur? yellow bone marrow epiphyseal line red bone marrow nutrient foramina endosteum

Answers

Answer:

Red bone marrow

Explanation:

Hematopoiesis that occurs in your bone marrow is called medullary hematopoiesis. Blood cells get made in your bone marrow and released into your bloodstream. Less often, hematopoiesis takes place in other parts of your body, like your liver and spleen. Hematopoiesis that occurs outside of your bone marrow is called extramedullary hematopoiesis.

In adults, hematopoiesis of red blood cells and platelets occurs primarily in the bone marrow. In infants and children, it may also continue in the spleen and liver.

a malignant disease characterized by an uncontrolled production of lymphocytes would be abbreviated as

Answers

A malignant disease characterized by an uncontrolled production of lymphocytes would be abbreviated as CLL.

What is CLL?

CLL is the abbreviation for chronic lymphocytic leukemia, which is a blood and bone marrow disease. CLL is a type of cancer that starts in the bone marrow and progresses through the bloodstream into other tissues and organs.

CLL is a slow-growing cancer that affects white blood cells called B-lymphocytes, causing them to multiply uncontrollably.

Leukemia is a cancer of the blood that originates in the bone marrow, the soft, spongy tissue in the center of the bones. The bone marrow produces red blood cells, platelets, and white blood cells, which are necessary for good health.

CLL, like all blood cancers, interferes with the bone marrow's ability to make enough healthy blood cells. It can result in a decrease in the number of red blood cells, causing anemia, as well as a decrease in the number of platelets, resulting in bleeding and bruising.


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Find the amino acid chain that forms from the mRNA sequence DNA
sequence below.
GATCGATACCATTCGGCGCATACTTCG

Answers

Answer:

mRNA= CUA GCU AUG GUA AGC CGC GUA UGA AGC

Amino acid chain=LEU ALA MET VAL SER ARG VAL STOP SER

Explanation:

Find the START codon (AUG). Start reading in groups of 3 and check against a codon table. When you get to a STOP (UAA, UAG, UGA) you’ve got that protein strand’s sequence.

even though sickle cell confers no advantage in the malaria-free u.s., african americans have a relative high incidence of the gene. this is an example of

Answers

Even though sickle cell confers no advantage in the malaria-free U.S., African Americans have a relatively high incidence of the gene. This is an example of genetic drift.

What is genetic drift?

The phenomenon in which gene frequencies shift randomly in small populations is known as genetic drift. A change in the frequency of a gene in a population due to random sampling is referred to as a genetic drift. The loss of one allele and an increase in another is an example of genetic drift.

What are some examples of genetic drift?

Some examples of genetic drift are as follows:

When a small community splits off from a larger population and forms a new colony, the original gene pool is typically not represented in the new colony's gene pool.

When a tiny group of animals is forced to cross a natural obstacle like a river, the animals that survive are often genetically distinct from the original population.

Generally speaking, genetic drift has a more significant impact on smaller populations than on larger populations. There are two types of genetic drift: founder effects and population bottlenecks.

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the provided structure is an aldehyde substrate derivative that specifically inhibits elastase. which elastase active site residue forms a covalent bond with the aldehyde inhibitor?

Answers

The aldehyde substrate derivative that specifically inhibits elastase forms a covalent bond with a serine residue in the active site of elastase.

Aldehydes are a class of organic compounds that have a carbonyl group at the end of their carbon chains, denoted as -CHO. Aldehydes have a polar carbonyl group and a nonpolar hydrocarbon region, making them highly reactive. Aldehydes are classified as primary, secondary, or tertiary based on the degree of substitution of the carbon atom attached to the carbonyl group. Elastase is a serine protease enzyme that breaks down elastin, a major protein component of connective tissue in the body, resulting in the disassembly of elastic fibers. Elastase is secreted by neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, and fibroblasts, among other cells. It plays a vital role in wound healing and inflammation. The aldehyde inhibitor binds to the active site of elastase and forms a covalent bond with a serine residue. The serine residue is part of the catalytic triad (His, Asp, and Ser) that aids in the breakdown of peptide bonds. The covalent bond formed between the aldehyde inhibitor and the serine residue in the elastase active site is irreversible, resulting in enzyme inhibition. Therefore, the serine residue forms a covalent bond with the aldehyde inhibitor.

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which of the following is not one of the ways of studying and identifying microorganisms?staining culture animal culture human inoculation

Answers

The following is not one of the ways of studying and identifying microorganisms is Animal culture.

Microorganisms can be studied and identified through the following ways:

Staining Culture

Human Inoculation

Animal culture

Staining is a method of dyeing microorganisms to make them visible under a microscope. The process of staining involves the use of chemicals that color certain components of the cell, such as the cell wall, nucleus, or cytoplasm, so that they can be seen more clearly.Culture is a method of growing microorganisms in a lab, usually in a nutrient-rich liquid or solid medium. By observing the growth patterns of the microorganisms, scientists can identify them and determine their properties, such as their size, shape, and metabolic processes.

Human inoculation is the method of studying microorganisms by exposing human subjects to a pathogen under controlled conditions in order to observe how the body responds to the infection. This method is useful in understanding how diseases spread and how they can be treated or prevented.

Animal culture is not a method of studying and identifying microorganisms. However, animal models can be used to study the effects of microorganisms on living organisms, such as the symptoms they cause, the immune response they elicit, and the ways they can be treated.

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Choose the statement that is most likely made by an environmentalist rather than by an environmental scientist."On average, 52 animal species move one step closer to extinction each year because of overpopulation and habitat destruction.""Citizens must take matters into their own hands and start having fewer children to reduce the world’s population, starting now.""Human population growth is a current environmental issue, as is climate change.""When the number of existing humans exceeds the carrying capacity of the planet, we have reached the state of overpopulation."

Answers

The statement most likely made by an environmentalist rather than by an environmental scientist is (B) "Citizens must take matters into their own hands and start having fewer children to reduce the world’s population, starting now."


This statement advocates for a specific course of action and reflects a personal opinion or a call for action, which is typical for an environmentalist. Environmentalists are often concerned with promoting environmental conservation and sustainable living, and they may make recommendations based on their beliefs.

On the other hand, environmental scientists study the natural environment and the effects of human activities on it. They focus on collecting and analyzing data to better understand environmental issues and may present their findings in a more objective and neutral manner.

The other statements provided reflect more objective observations or analyses of environmental issues, such as population growth, climate change, and species extinction, which are more in line with the role of an environmental scientist. These statements focus on presenting facts or concepts without making specific recommendations for action or expressing personal opinions.

Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.

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How many grams of neutral red would your instructor have used to create 100ml of a 4% w/v stock solution? ____ gm

Answers

Answer:0.0012

Explanation: 0.03×x/100

you have discovered a new kind of cell with a strange new organelle that contains a highly hydrophobic compartment. which will mostly certainly be abundant in this organelle?

Answers

The new organelle that you discovered with a highly hydrophobic compartment will most likely contain lipids, such as fatty acids and phospholipids, as they are hydrophobic molecules.

Which molecule will mostly certainly be abundant in this organelle?

There are a number of molecules that will most certainly be abundant in an organelle that contains a highly hydrophobic compartment. In the context of biochemistry, the most abundant molecule is usually the one that is most soluble in the organelle's environment.

According to a number of theories, lipids are most likely to be the most abundant molecules in an organelle containing a highly hydrophobic compartment. Lipids are a diverse class of molecules that are primarily defined by their solubility characteristics. Lipids are soluble in organic solvents and insoluble in water, which means they are ideal for forming membranes, which are hydrophobic compartments.

Therefore, lipids will most certainly be abundant in an organelle that contains a highly hydrophobic compartment.

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when assessing newborns for chromosomal disorders, which assessment would be most suggestive of a problem?

Answers

when assessing newborns for chromosomal disorders, which assessment would be most suggestive of a problem?

answer:
low set ears

leucine aminopeptidases (laps) are found in all living organisms and have been associated with the response of the marine mussel, mytilus edulis, to changes in salinity. laps are enzymes that remove n-terminal amino acids from protein

Answers

Leucine aminopeptidases (LAPs) are a group of enzymes found in all living organisms, including the marine mussel Mytilus edulis. These enzymes play a crucial role in protein metabolism by catalyzing the cleavage of N-terminal amino acids from protein substrates.

LAPs have been implicated in a variety of physiological processes, including protein turnover, regulation of peptide hormone levels, and immune system function. In Mytilus edulis, LAPs have been shown to play a role in the organism's response to changes in salinity. When the salinity of their environment changes,

Mytilus edulis utilizes LAPs to modify the composition of proteins in their cells, allowing them to better adapt to the changing conditions. This adaptation is important for the organism's survival, as changes in salinity can significantly affect the functioning of cells and tissues.

Overall, LAPs are versatile enzymes that play a critical role in protein metabolism and are found in a wide range of living organisms, including the marine mussel Mytilus edulis. Their ability to modify protein substrates makes them important players in many physiological processes, including adaptation to changing environmental conditions.

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dna is double-stranded, but for each protein, only one of these two strands is used to produce an mrna transcript. what is the coding strand called?

Answers

The coding strand of DNA is also known as the sense strand or the positive strand.

It is called the coding strand because it contains the same sequence of nucleotides as the mRNA molecule that is produced during transcription. In other words, the coding strand has the same sequence as the mRNA, except that it has thymine (T) instead of uracil (U) since mRNA uses uracil instead of thymine.

The other strand of DNA, which is not used as a template for mRNA synthesis, is called the non-coding strand or the antisense strand, as it has a complementary sequence to the coding strand. During transcription, RNA polymerase reads the antisense strand and produces an mRNA molecule that is complementary to it, which is why it is called the template strand.

So, to summarize, the coding strand is the strand of DNA that has the same sequence as the mRNA transcript that is produced during transcription.

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in humans, telomerase activity is most likely to be found in which cells? select one: red blood cells germ cells muscle cells all cells neurons

Answers

Telomerase activity in humans is most likely to be found in germ cells. The correct answer is b.

Telomerase is an enzyme that adds nucleotides to the ends of chromosomes to prevent them from becoming shorter after every division of the cell. This enzyme is found in some cells, particularly embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells, and cancer cells.

Germ cells are responsible for the creation of sperm and eggs in males and females, respectively. Germ cells are crucial to reproduction, and their genetic makeup is passed on from one generation to the next. When germ cells divide, they undergo many more cycles than other cell types.

As a result, they are more likely to experience telomere shortening, which is why telomerase activity is more common in these cells.

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Near Pittsburgh, a cable car transports people from the Monongahela River valley to the community on top of the overlooking bluff. The Monongahela Incline has a grade of 78%. Find the measure of the angle the cable car track makes. with the valley floor. If necessary, round to the nearest degree. grease payments are all of following except a. monies given to high ranking officials b. get goods through red tape c. monies given to minor officials d. small sums of money Some Wirte a poem about having divorced parents What is the exact value of sin(cos^-1 (2/2)) + tan^-1 (sin(/2)) dr. grey is interested in designing a study on children's language acquisition. what is the first step that she should take, according to the scientific method? according to siegler, which three mechanisms work together to create changes in children's cognitive skills? Gillian spends a third of her pocket money on snacks and a quarter of it on bus fare. How much money did she remain with? Waste removal in a flatworm is best described by which statement? A) Flatworms store waste in their bodies until they die. B) Flatworms have no specialized waste removal system.C) Flatworms process solid, liquid, and gaseous waste in the same body system. D) Flatworms have an extensive branched system that removes liquid waste. an interest rate is 12% when expressed with quarterly compounding. what is the equivalent rate with semiannual compounding? Sam, Larry, and Howard have contracted to paint a large room in a house. After calculating all the material costs, which are to be paid by the homeowner, they decide that $270 would be a fair price for the 16 hours it will take to prepare, paint, and clean up. Each of the men decides that $15.00 an hour is a fair wage for the job. If three-quarters of the work will be done by Larry, how much will Larry be paid for his work on the job? which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal probability distribution? 99.72% of the time the random variable assumes a value within plus or minus 1 standard deviation of its mean. what are the four things god gave to solomon as promises at gibeon? love wisdom counselors lands honor riches length of life which instruction will the nurse include when teaching apatient with chronic psoriasis about the use of prescribed anthralin hayes incorporated provided the following information for the current year: beginning inventory 170 units units produced 820 units units sold 869 units selling price $ 220 /unit direct materials $ 42 /unit direct labor $ 23 /unit variable manufacturing overhead $ 22 /unit fixed manufacturing overhead $ 31,980 /year variable selling/administrative costs $ 15 /unit fixed selling/administrative costs $ 22,500 /year what is the product cost per unit for the year using variable costing? multiple choice $102 $163 $126 $122 $87 Me . Lake Bought four dozen apples for her band kids 1/4 of the apples were green and 3/4 or red. How many apples were red Quadrilateral has a vertex (5,2), coordinates after translation (x,y)- (x-1, y+3), followed by a dilation by 2 When 25 mL of 1.0M HSO4 is added to 50 mL of 1.0 M NaOH at 25C in a calorimeter,the temperature of the aqueous solution increases to 33.9 C. Assuming that the specificheat of the solution is 4.18 J/gC, that its density is 1.00/mL, and that the calorimeteritself absorbs a negligible amount of heat, calculate the amount of heat absorbed for thereaction. Assume that Canada imports more goods and services than it exports. Which of the following is true of the Canadian balance of payments accounts??The correct answer is C. Could you please explain in detail why the trade balance must be negative, and why A and E is wrong. Thx!!!25. Assume that Canada imports more goods and services than it exports. Which of the following is true of the Canadian balance of payments accounts? (A) The current account balance must be negative. (B) The current account balance must be positive (C) The trade balance must be negative. (D) The financial account (formerly called capital account) balance must be negative (E) The financial account (formerly called capital account) balance must be positive according to miller (2015), all these are critical features of organizations except? any hierarchical structure b. coordinating activity c. organizational and individual goals d. social collectivity the problem that begins in athletes with disordered eating leading to amenorrhea and osteoporosis is: