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Answer: The answer is X = 4.

Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate the variable, x. Note the equal sign, what you do to one side, you do to the other. Do the opposite of PEMDAS.

PEMDAS is the order of operations, and stands for:

Parenthesis

Exponents (& roots)

Multiplications

Divisions

Additions

Subtractions

First, subtract 6x and 8 from both sides of the equation:

-7x (-6x) + 8 (-8) = 6x (-6x) - 44 (-8)

-7x - 6x = -44 - 8

-13x = -52

Next, fully isolate the variable, x, by dividing -13 from both sides of the equation:

(-13x)/-13 = (-52)/-13

x = -52/-13 = 4

x = 4 is your answer.

~

Answer:

5:30

Step-by-step explanation:

Important info:

watch television from 5 o clock until Half Past.

Question to Answer:

How long did you watch.

Note:

Half of 1 Hour = 30 Minutes

Solution:

5:30

Therefore You watch television until 5:30

Answer:

(2^102•5^102)

Step-by-step explanation:

(10)^102 = (2•5)^102 = 2^102 • 5^102

Answer:

This is because he rides 37.5 k/m every week. Multiply that by four and you get 150

Answer:

Sanjay will need to ride his bike to work for 4 weeks in order to ride 150 kilometers.

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = x² - 4x - 4

the general formula for solving such a quadratic equation (for f(x) = 0) is

x = (-b ± sqrt(b² - 4ac))/(2a)

in our case

a = 1

b = -4

c = -4

x = (4 ± sqrt(4² - 4×1×-4))/(2×1) = (4 ± sqrt(16 + 16))/2 =

= (4 ± sqrt(2×16))/2 = (4 ± 4×sqrt(2))/2 = 2 ± 2×sqrt(2)

x1 = 2 + 2×sqrt(2)

x2 = 2 - 2×sqrt(2)

Step-by-step explanation:

1.

$4 for 8 days. that means $4 on each and every day, 8 times.

so, in total that is 4 × 8 = $32

that is how multiplications work.

m×n means that m is added n times (or vice versa and n is added m times).

2.

similar here.

$25 each time the customer missed a payment. and he missed 4 times that year.

the bank returned the fees for all 4 occasions. so,

returned money = 25 × 4 = $100

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Since .3 is below .5, you would not round 6 up to 7.

So, the infinite sum can be determined in the geometric series a₁ = 5, r = -0.5.

For a geometric series the infinite sum is given by s = a/(1 - r) where a = first term, r = common ratio and |r| < 1.

For each of the geometic series given below, we need to determine if |r| < 1.

For a₁ = -0.25, r = - 3, |r| = |-3| = 3 > 1

For a₁ = 0.75, r = 4, |r| = |4| = 4 > 1

For a₁ = 3, r = 2, |r| = |2| = 2 > 1

For a₁ = 5, r = -0.5, |r| = |-0.5| = 0.5 < 1

Since we require |r| < 1 to find the infinite sum and |r| in the last geometric series |r| = 0.5 < 1, the infinite sum can be found in the geometric series a₁ = 5, r = -0.5..

So, the infinite sum can be determined in the geometric series a₁ = 5, r = -0.5.

Learn more about infinite sum of geometric series here:

https://brainly.com/question/16037289

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

50 of 100

= 50%

120 of 1

= 1.2%

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor of an enlargement is greater than 1.

The scale factor of a reduction is less than 1.

A scale factor of 1 will produce a congruent figure, one the same size as the original.

_____

A longer way to say it

A figure is enlarged when its dimensions are greater than those of the original. Then the ratio of dimensions will be ...

  (greater than original)/(original) = greater than 1

Similarly, a figure is reduced when its dimensions are less than those of the original:

  (less than original)/(original) = less than 1

Multiplying dimensions by a scale factor of 1 does not change them. The scaled figure is the same size as the original.

Answer:

B) 26%

Step-by-step explanation:

The yellow part of the graph represents Rock, which is 15%, and the red part of the graph represents Classical. So, you simply add them together.

Answer:

B) 26%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the Rock percentage in the chart. (15%)

Find the Classical percentage in the chart. (11%)

Add the Rock and Classical percentages together. (26%)

Answer:

I think you forgot to attach the table

Answer:

1/4 is on the second line

3/8 is the the third one

3/8 is bigger

Hope This Helps!!!

Answer:

Hope this helps you.......

The answer is C. -0.25; the rate at which Martin's distance from the finish line changes per minute

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a [tex]\mathbf{\frac{1}{16}}[/tex] probability you will win the big prize.

For each ball, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is hit or it is not. The probability of hitting a ball is independent of any other ball, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem:

You win the big prize if you hit 4 balls, hence, the probability is P(X = 4).

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{4}.\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{0} = \frac{1}{16}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{\frac{1}{16}}[/tex] probability you will win the big prize.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

yurr

Answer:

[tex]c = 0.35 x + 24[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First, let's go over the information we have. We know that no matter what, Dr. W Sweet will charge a base fee of $24, and that for each additional mile, he will charge 35¢. Now let's make an equation reflecting this information:

cost = 35¢ (number of miles) + $24 (starting fee)

We can also write this like this:

[tex]c = 0.35x + 24[/tex]

If you want to test this equation, put in a value for the x variable, like so:

Value: 25 miles

[tex]c = 0.35(25) + 24 \\ c = 8.75 + 24 \\ c = 32.75[/tex]

For this situation, the cost will be $32.75. I hope this helps! If you have questions, comment on this response, I should write back reasonably quickly.

Answer:

There is 7 students in each group

Step-by-step explanation:

So it's basically easy math 42 divided by 6 equals 7 :)

Hopes This Helps :)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this help you::::::::::)

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that every integer is a rational number and Zero can be represented as the ratio of two integers.

Answer:

CB = 5, [tex]m\angle{BDA} = 23^\circ[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming that the marks next to angle D mean that [tex]\angle{BDA} \cong \angle{BDC}[/tex], then there is enough information to conclude that the two right triangles are congruent (HA theorem--hypotenuse/angle).

Then all the corresponding parts of the two triangles are congruent, including segments BA and BC, making them the same length.

4x + 1 = 9x - 4

Solving for x,

1 = 5x - 4

5 = 5x

1 = x

Pluggint x = 1 into the two expressions reveals that the length of segment CB is 5.

The two small angles at D are congruent, so [tex]m\angle{BDA}=23^\circ[/tex].

Answer:

y=x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Find the slope

m=-3-4/-4-3

m=-7/-7

m=1

2) Use y=mx+c

by using the point (3,4)

4=1(3)+c

4=3+c

c=1

3) The answer

y=x+1

Answer:

Count to 2 and add 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9.984, can't tell.

Step-by-step explanation:

9.6 increased by 4% is

9.6 * 1.04 = 9.984 mph.

We don't know from this how fast Manuel rides.

Answer:

M' (5,-1)

D' (5,1)

A' (3,4)

W' (4,-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to find the coordinates of Quadrilateral MDAW with vertices M(-1, 5), D(1,5), A(4,3), and W(-1,4) after a reflection across y = x.

We can find these coordinates by following the following rule:

Reflection over y = x rule : ( x , y ) ---> ( y , x )

Explanation of rule: Simply swap the places of the x and y values.

Applying rule to given coordinates:

M(-1,5) -----> swap x and y values -----> M'(5,-1)

D(1,5) ----> swap x and y values -----> D'(5,1)

A(4,3) -----> swap x and y values -----> A'(3,4)

W(-1,4) -----> swap x and y values -----> W'(4,-1)

So the coordinates of Quadrilateral MDAW  after a reflection over the y = x  line are M'(5,-1) , D'(5,1) , A'(3,4) , W'(4,-1)

For more validation, refer to the attached image

Answer:

Exactly One Solution

Step-by-step explanation:

4x + 2 = x + 8

3x = 6                Simplify.

x = 2                  Divide by 2.

Answer:

One solution, x = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

4x + 2 = x + 8 (Given)

4x = x + 6

(The 2 is subtracted from the right side, therefore the left side is also subtracted. 8 becomes 6.)

3x = 6

(The x is subtracted from the right side to the left side. Thus turning the 4x into 3x)

x = 2

(The 3 is divided out to get x alone. So, the 6 has to be divided by 3 as well, turning it into 2)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5a.) It starts with two at time one and increases by one each time

5b.) x+1

6.) Formula: (2/3)(x-1)+1, the fifth term would be (2/3)*(5-1)+1= 11/3

7a.) I will leave you to make the table. n+2 is wrong because it's increasing by 2 blocks each time

7b.) 2n+1

8a.) x²

8b.) just draw a 6x6

8c.) 12²=144

Answer:

Here you go!!!!! Its correct let me know if you need any more problems for me to try and solve!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3.125

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that

258

is the same as

25÷8

Then using

Long Division for 25 divided by 8

and rounding to a Max of 3 Decimal Places gives us

=3.125