The monthly payment required to repay the loan in 36 equal installments with a 12% annual interest rate is $463.85, which is option (d) in the answer choices.
To calculate the monthly payment for the loan, we can use the formula for the present value of an annuity: PMT = PV x (r / (1 - [tex](1+r)^{n})[/tex]))
Where PMT is the monthly payment, PV is the present value of the loan (which is $15,000), r is the monthly interest rate (which is the annual interest rate divided by 12, or 0.01), and n is the total number of payments (which is 36).
Substituting the values into the formula, we get: PMT = 15000 x (0.01 / (1 - [tex](1+0.01)^{-36})[/tex])) = $463.85
Therefore, the monthly payment required to repay the loan in 36 equal installments with a 12% annual interest rate is $463.85, which is option (d) in the answer choices.
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plaza sunset purchased a new building for $910,000 on october 31, 2021. annual depreciation on the building is $36,000. calculate the net book value of the building that will appear on the december 31, 2022 balance sheet.
The net book value of the building on the December 31, 2022 balance sheet will be $868,000.
How to calculate the net book valuePlaza Sunset purchased a new building for $910,000 on October 31, 2021. The annual depreciation for the building is $36,000.
To calculate the net book value of the building that will appear on the December 31, 2022 balance sheet, we need to consider the depreciation for both 2021 and 2022. In 2021, there are 2 months (November and December) in which depreciation occurs.
The monthly depreciation is $36,000 / 12 months = $3,000 per month. Therefore, the depreciation in 2021 is $3,000 * 2 months = $6,000. In 2022, the entire annual depreciation of $36,000 applies.
The total depreciation from October 31, 2021 to December 31, 2022 is $6,000 (2021) + $36,000 (2022) = $42,000.
To find the net book value on December 31, 2022, we subtract the total depreciation from the purchase price:
$910,000 - $42,000 = $868,000.
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eBook Farley Inc. has perpetuul preferred stock outstanding that sells for $38 a share and pay a dividend of 54.75 at the end of each year. What is the required rate of return? Round your answer to two decimal places 2
The required rate of return for the perpetuul preferred stock of eBook Farley Inc. can be calculated using the dividend discount model. This model takes into consideration the current market price of the stock and the expected dividend payment.
In this case, the market price of the stock is given as $38 per share and the dividend payment is $54.75 per share at the end of each year. To calculate the required rate of return, we can use the following formula:
Required Rate of Return = Dividend Payment / Market Price of Stock
Substituting the given values, we get:
Required Rate of Return = 54.75 / 38
Required Rate of Return = 1.44 or 144%
Therefore, the required rate of return for the perpetuul preferred stock of eBook Farley Inc. is 144%. This means that investors require a return of 144% on their investment in the stock to compensate for the risk they are taking.
It is important to note that the required rate of return may vary for different investors depending on their risk preferences, investment objectives, and other factors. Investors should carefully consider these factors before investing in any stock.
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which statement below is true of central banks? they are introduced when consumers lose confidence in the bank or the system as a whole. they were developed by the founding fathers in order to ensure strict banking practices. they allow a bank to loan out money to other banks. they have a variety of tools that can be used to control the money supply
The statement below is true of central banks they were developed by the founding fathers in order to ensure strict banking practices.
Quizlet: What responsibilities do central banks have?The central bank offers the Central Government services. On behalf of the government, it both collects and makes payments to other parties. It looks after and manages government deposit accounts. The central bank also offers loans and controls the nation's debt.
What was the first actual central bank, when was it established, and what impact did it have on banking?The main goal of the Federal Reserve, which was established in 1913 by an act of Congress, was to increase the stability of the American financial system.
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an administered vertical marketing system is best represented by which of the following programs? group of answer choices everett clinic, which operates more than 25 clinic sites beyond its main location in everett, washington teladoc, a web-based provider of physician consults the urgent care center at o'hare, which is run by the university of illinois health system the hospital for special surgery in new york, which operates facilities in florida and on long island
This example demonstrates a healthcare organization overseeing and coordinating various facilities under one centralized administration, fitting the concept of an administered vertical marketing system.
An administered vertical marketing system is best represented by the hospital for special surgery in New York, which operates facilities in Florida and on Long Island. This is because an administered vertical marketing system involves a single entity (in this case, the hospital for special surgery) that owns multiple levels of the distribution chain, such as manufacturing, distribution, and retailing.
In this case, the hospital for special surgery owns and operates facilities in multiple locations, making it an example of an administered vertical marketing system. The Everett Clinic, Teladoc, and the urgent care center at O'Hare are not examples of administered vertical marketing systems.
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carly donated inventory (ordinary income property) to a church. she purchased the inventory last month for $101,100, and on the date of the gift, it had a fair market value of $92,550. what is her maximum charitable contribution deduction for the year related to this inventory if her agi is $200,550?
Carly's maximum charitable contribution deduction for the year related to this inventory is calculated to be $27,765, given her AGI of $200,550.
When donating inventory that is considered ordinary income property, the maximum charitable contribution deduction is generally limited to the lower of the property's fair market value (FMV) or its tax basis. In this case, Carly's maximum charitable contribution deduction would be $92,550, which is the FMV of the inventory on the date of the gift.
However, the amount of the deduction that Carly can claim on her taxes is further limited by her adjusted gross income (AGI) and the type of organization she donated to.
Assuming that Carly donated to a qualified public charity and that the inventory is not considered capital gain property, her maximum charitable contribution deduction would be limited to 30% of her AGI for the year.
So, Carly's maximum charitable contribution deduction would be:
$92,550 (FMV of inventory) x 30% (AGI limit) = $27,765
Therefore, Carly's maximum charitable contribution deduction for the year related to this inventory would be $27,765, given her AGI of $200,550.
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The yield curve in an economic period where higher future inflation is expected would be ________.
A) upward-sloping
B) flat
C) downward-sloping
D) lognormal
In an economic period where higher future inflation is expected, the yield curve would likely be upward-sloping. The correct answer is option a.
This is because higher expected inflation would lead to an increase in interest rates to compensate for the loss in purchasing power of money over time.
As a result, long-term bonds would have a higher yield to offset the anticipated inflation, resulting in a steeper yield curve.
Investors would demand higher yields on long-term bonds to protect against future inflation, which would increase the cost of borrowing for companies and reduce consumer spending, leading to a decrease in economic activity.
Therefore, the shape of the yield curve is an important indicator of market expectations and can influence the decisions of businesses and policymakers. A steep yield curve indicates higher future interest rates and inflation, which can affect investment decisions and economic growth.
The correct answer is option a.
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what role does the us government play with respect to market competition? group of answer choices policing anticompetitive behavior and prohibiting contracts that restrict competition preserving competition by regulating price and/or quantity of output intervening in the price and output decision of businesses maintaining abundant government-owned firms to ensure consumer friendly pricing
The role of the US government with respect to market competition is "policing anticompetitive behavior and prohibiting contracts that restrict competition" (Option a).
The government enforces antitrust laws that prohibit mergers or acquisitions that would create a monopoly or harm competition. It also investigates and punishes anticompetitive behavior, such as price fixing or monopolization, to ensure that the market remains fair for all participants. The government may also regulate certain industries to promote competition, such as setting standards for product safety or requiring disclosure of information to consumers.
However, it generally does not intervene in the price and output decisions of businesses or maintain government-owned firms for consumer-friendly pricing. The goal of the government's role in market competition is to promote competition and prevent abuses of market power, while allowing market forces to determine prices and output levels.
Option a is answer.
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in countries such as brazil and ghana that depended heavily on exports, question 18 options: the great depression allowed farmers greater access to loans. the great depression increased the demand for raw materials. the great depression had no impact. the great depression caused a significant drop in commodity prices.
The correct answer is option 4. The Great Depression caused a significant drop in commodity prices. In countries such as Brazil and Ghana, which heavily depended on exports, the Great Depression had a severe and long-lasting impact.
Their economy suffered a severe blow as a result of the sharp decline in demand for their raw materials and commodities, which caused prices to collapse.
As a result, there was a domino effect of economic upheaval that resulted in a drop in earnings, increased unemployment, and a drop in standard of life.
The lack of available credit and the absence of foreign commerce and investment made this economic crisis even worse, causing these nations to experience extended economic suffering.
Complete Question:
In countries such as Brazil and Ghana that depended heavily on exports, how did the Great Depression impact them?
1. The Great Depression allowed farmers greater access to loans.
2. The Great Depression increased the demand for raw materials.
3. The Great Depression had no impact.
4. The Great Depression caused a significant drop in commodity prices.
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when 's share price reached $745 per share, had an eps of $26.5 and an estimated market capitalization rate of 11.5%. pays no dividends. approximately how much is the pvgo in 's stock price?
The PVGO in 's Stock price is about $280.09.
To calculate the present value of growth opportunities (PVGO), we first want to calculate the intrinsic price of the stock using the dividend discount model (DDM):
Intrinsic cost = EPS / (r - g)
in which
EPS = profits according to share
r = market capitalization fee
g = predicted growth rate
given that does not pay any dividends, we are able to use the income in line with proportion (EPS) as a proxy for the dividend.
the use of the given information, we've got:
EPS = $26.5
r = 11.5%
share price = $745 according to proportion
To locate the expected growth charge (g), we will use the Gordon increase model:
percentage charge = (EPS * (1 + g)) / (r - g)
Rearranging the formula, we get:
g = (r * EPS - percentage fee * (r - 1)) / share price
Substituting the given values, we get:
g = (0.115 * $26.5 - $745 * (0.115 - 1)) / $745 = -0.105
The negative increase charge means that the marketplace expects the agency's profits to say no inside the future. this will occur because of various factors along with multiplied competition, adjustments in market situations, and so on.
Now, we can calculate the intrinsic value of the stock using the DDM formula:
Intrinsic price = EPS / (r - g) = $26.5 / (0.115 - (-0.one zero five)) = $464.91
In the end, we will calculate the PVGO by way of subtracting the intrinsic fee from the current inventory charge:
PVGO = proportion charge - Intrinsic value = $745 - $464.91 = $280.09
Consequently, the PVGO in 's inventory price is about $280.09.
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an example of management by exception occurs when a manager investigates a large variance in a performance report to assign responsibility. question content area bottom part 1 true false
The statement " example of management by exception occurs when a manager investigates a large variance in a performance report to assign responsibility. " is true.
Management by exception is a management style that focuses on addressing and resolving significant deviations from the expected results or standards. In this example, the manager identifies a large variance in a performance report, which indicates a possible issue.
Instead of addressing every minor detail, the manager focuses on this significant deviation and investigates its cause. Through this investigation, the manager can identify the responsible party and implement corrective measures to improve performance.
This approach allows managers to efficiently allocate their time and resources to the most critical issues affecting the organization.
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The following rates are quoted for euro in terms of US dollar ($) and C$ in terms of $ in New York: $/€ = $1.1520 $/C$= $0.7520 (a) What are the (implied) quote for $ in terms of euro (i.e., €/$) and for $ in terms of C$ (C$/$) in the above rates? (b) What is the cross rate for C$ in terms of € (€/C$) implied in the above rates?
The implied cross rate for C$ in terms of € (€/C$) is approximately 0.6523.
(a) To find the implied quote for $ in terms of euro (€/$) and for $ in terms of C$ (C$/$), we need to find the reciprocal of the given rates:
1. For €/$, take the reciprocal of $/€ = $1.1520:
€/$ = 1 / $1.1520
€/$ ≈ 0.8678
2. For C$/$, take the reciprocal of $/C$ = $0.7520:
C$/$ = 1 / $0.7520
C$/$ ≈ 1.3298
So, the implied quotes are €/$ ≈ 0.8678 and C$/$ ≈ 1.3298.
(b) To find the cross rate for C$ in terms of € (€/C$), we will use the given rates:
€/C$ = (€/$) / (C$/$)
Using the values we found in part (a):
€/C$ = 0.8678 / 1.3298
€/C$ ≈ 0.6523
The implied cross rate for C$ in terms of € (€/C$) is approximately 0.6523.
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The Didn'tKnowFinanceWasSoFun Company issued a $1,000 par value, 5% coupon, 12 year bond. The interest is paid semiannually and the market is currently requiring 7% on this risk level bond. What is the current value of the bond?
SHOW ALL WORK FOR FULL CREDIT USING EITHER THE MYLAB Calculator or the TI BAII PLUS Calculator.
The current value of the bond can be calculated using the present value formula:
PV = (C / (1 + r/n)^(nt)) + (FV / (1 + r/n)^(nt))
Where:
PV = Present value of the bond
C = Coupon payment (5% of $1,000 = $50)
r = Required rate of return (7%)
n = Number of compounding periods per year (2, since interest is paid semiannually)
t = Number of years until maturity (12)
Plugging in the values, we get:
PV = (50 / (1 + 0.07/2)^(212)) + (1000 / (1 + 0.07/2)^(212))
PV = $609.65
Therefore, the current value of the bond is $609.65.
To calculate this using a calculator such as the TI BAII Plus, we would enter:
N = 24 (2 compounding periods per year for 12 years)
I/Y = 3.5 (7% annual rate divided by 2 compounding periods per year)
PMT = 25 (5% coupon payment semiannually on $1,000 par value)
FV = 1000 (par value at maturity)
And then press the PV button to get the present value of $609.65.
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Year What is the covariance of returns between slocks A and B? Expected return of A is 30% and B's expected retum = 10% Year Return A Return B 2017 60% 3596 2016 20% 15 2015 10% 20% a. 0
b. 0.0433 c. 0.0733 d. 0.03 e. None of the listed items is correct
The covariance of returns between stocks A and B is 0.0733. (C)
To calculate the covariance, follow these steps:
1. Find the mean of each stock's returns: Mean_A = (60% + 20% + 10%) / 3 = 30%; Mean_B = (35% + 15% + 20%) / 3 = 23.33%.
2. Subtract the mean from each return and multiply the results for each year: (60% - 30%) * (35% - 23.33%) = 0.3 * 0.1167 = 0.03501; (20% - 30%) * (15% - 23.33%) = -0.1 * -0.0833 = 0.00833; (10% - 30%) * (20% - 23.33%) = -0.2 * -0.0333 = 0.00667.
3. Add the products from step 2: 0.03501 + 0.00833 + 0.00667 = 0.05001.
4. Divide the sum by the number of years minus 1: 0.05001 / (3 - 1) = 0.0733.
Therefore, the covariance of returns between stocks A and B is 0.0733 (option C).
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Calculate a firm's profit using the following information: the unit price (P) for a product is $40; the quantity sold (Q) is 2,000; the fixed cost (FC) is $50,000; and the variable cost (VC) is a) $20,000. b) $10,000. c) $50,000. d) $110,000. e) $150,000
It is given that firm's unit price for product is $40 with a sale os 2000 units. The fixed cost incurred is $50000 and thus to calculate a firm's profit, we will use the following formula: Profit = (P x Q) - (FC + VC).
Here, P is the unit price, Q is the quantity sold, FC is the fixed cost, and VC is the variable cost.
a) With a variable cost of $20,000:
Profit = ($40 x 2,000) - ($50,000 + $20,000) = $80,000 - $70,000 = $10,000
b) With a variable cost of $10,000:
Profit = ($40 x 2,000) - ($50,000 + $10,000) = $80,000 - $60,000 = $20,000
c) With a variable cost of $50,000:
Profit = ($40 x 2,000) - ($50,000 + $50,000) = $80,000 - $100,000 = -$20,000 (loss)
d) With a variable cost of $110,000:
Profit = ($40 x 2,000) - ($50,000 + $110,000) = $80,000 - $160,000 = -$80,000 (loss)
e) With a variable cost of $150,000:
Profit = ($40 x 2,000) - ($50,000 + $150,000) = $80,000 - $200,000 = -$120,000 (loss)
In summary, the firm's profit for each variable cost scenario is: a) $10,000; b) $20,000; c) -$20,000 (loss); d) -$80,000 (loss); e) -$120,000 (loss).
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which non-customers typically are aware of your product, but don't use it because either it's unacceptable, or they can't afford it?
The second-tier customers are aware of your product, but don't use it because either it's unacceptable, or they can't afford it
A set of potential consumers who are second tier customers are those who are aware of the product but do not utilise it either because they find it unsatisfactory or they cannot afford it. These clients could be somewhat interested in the goods, but they are unable or unwilling to purchase it at current price or under the present circumstances.
Due to this, businesses might need to modify their pricing and marketing plans in order to appeal to this segment of potential clients. This could entail making the product better to make it more desirable or cheaper to make it more accessible. Companies could also need to resolve issues and think about other marketing platforms or messaging. Businesses may grow revenues and their client base by focusing on second tier customers.
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schrank company is trying to decide how many units of merchandise to order each month. company policy is to have 15% of the next month's sales in inventory at the end of each month. projected sales for august, september, and october are 46,000 units, 36,000 units, and 56,000 units, respectively. how many units must be purchased in september?
In order to determine how many units must be purchased in September, the Schrank company must first calculate the required amount of inventory they must have on hand at the end of August.
This is done by taking 15% of the projected sales for September, or 54,000 units. This means that the company must have 8,100 units in inventory at the end of August (54,000 x 0.15). Therefore, the company must purchase at least 8,100 units in September in order to meet their desired inventory level.
This number will be adjusted if the actual sales for August exceed the projected sales amount. Additionally, the company must take into account any additional inventory needed to cover any unanticipated demand during the month of September.
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Internationalizing companies that employ an prefer to send managers from their headquarters to manage foreign subsidiaries Select one: A. geocentric staffing model B. transnational staffing model C. ethnocentric staffing model D. polycentric staffing model
Internationalizing companies that prefer to send managers from their headquarters to manage foreign subsidiaries follow the ethnocentric staffing model. The correct answer is option C.
The staffing model that describes internationalizing companies that prefer to send managers from their headquarters to manage foreign subsidiaries is the ethnocentric staffing model. This approach involves hiring and promoting employees from the home country to oversee operations in foreign locations, with the belief that they possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and cultural understanding to effectively manage the subsidiary.
However, this approach may limit the diversity of perspectives and hinder the development of local talent and content loaded strategies. Companies that prioritize localization and integration of diverse perspectives may opt for a geocentric or transnational staffing model. In this model, key positions in the foreign subsidiary are filled by personnel from the parent company, which helps maintain a strong corporate culture and ensures control and coordination across the organization.
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Ethnocentric Staffing Model: Employing individuals from our parent nation to fill positions all across the world is an ethnocentric strategy to recruitment. Hence (d) is the correct option.
The general justification for the ethnocentric approach is that staff members from the parent nation would successfully represent the interests of the headquarters and have strong ties to it. While polycentric strategy keeps people from the same region, ethnocentric approach entails sending staff from the home or parent countries to the host country. Ethnocentric approach is utilised by MNCs with a worldwide strategic orientation. The propensity to view the world largely through the lens of one's own culture is known as ethnocentrism.
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which of the following describes a global rfid challenge?a.foreign firms will not use global rfid since the field communication standards tend to vary from country to country.b.rfid tags are passive in undeveloped countries.c.globally, the rfid industry does not have its own uhf spectrum allocation.d.rfid can track outbound shipments only.
Option C describes a global RFID challenge, i.e., globally, the RFID industry does not have its own UHF spectrum allocation.
RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) technology is used for tracking and identifying objects using radio waves. One of the challenges faced by the global RFID industry is the lack of a dedicated UHF (Ultra-High Frequency) spectrum allocation. As a result, RFID tags operate in different frequency bands in different countries, leading to problems with interference and inconsistent performance.
The lack of a dedicated spectrum allocation also limits the development of the industry and the widespread adoption of RFID technology, as it makes it difficult for RFID technology to be used seamlessly across borders. This is a significant challenge that the global RFID industry must address to fully realize the potential benefits of RFID technology.
Option C is answer.
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In the affiliate revenue model, firms derive revenue by selling information or services through partner e-commerce sites. (1 Point) True False
The statement "In the affiliate revenue model, firms generate revenue by promoting and selling products or services through partner e-commerce sites" is false. The revenue is earned through commissions or a percentage of the sale made through the affiliate link.
The model is based on performance-based marketing, where the affiliate earns a commission only if a sale or lead is generated through their referral.
The affiliate revenue model has become increasingly popular in recent years as it provides a cost-effective way for firms to expand their reach and increase sales without having to invest in expensive marketing campaigns.
E-commerce sites benefit from this model as well by earning commissions on sales they wouldn't have otherwise made without the help of the affiliate.
In summary, the affiliate revenue model is a win-win situation for both firms and e-commerce sites, as it allows them to increase revenue and expand their customer base without incurring significant costs.
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5. what is the npv of the project under the wacc approach? under the apv approach? 6. how sensitive are your estimates to your assumptions? do you recommend undertaking the project?
The NPV of the project using the WACC methodology is $58,028.68.Since the NPV is positive, the project is expected to generate more cash inflows than outflows and is considered a good investment.
To calculate the NPV of the project using the WACC methodology, we need to discount the project's cash flows by the WACC.
First, we need to calculate the cost of equity:
K_e = R_f + β(R_m - R_f)
Assuming the project's beta is 1 (not given in the information provided), the cost of equity would be:
K_e = 2% + 1(6%) = 8%
Next, we need to calculate the WACC:
WACC = (E/V x K_e) + (D/V x K_d) x (1 - T_c)
where:
E = market value of equity
D = market value of debt
V = total value of the firm (E + D)
K_d = cost of debt
T_c = corporate tax rate
We are given that the debt-to-equity ratio is 3, so:
D/E = 3/1
D = 3E
We are also given that the shareholders will contribute $25,000 cash and borrow $75,000 with an interest-only loan, so:
E = $25,000
D = $75,000
V = $100,000
K_d = 10%
T_c = 34%
Plugging in the values, we get:
WACC = (0.25 x 8%) + (0.75 x 10%) x (1 - 0.34)
WACC = 11.20%
Now we can calculate the project's NPV using the WACC methodology:
CF0 = -$100,000 (cost of equipment)
CF1-CF4 = $39,800 (given)
CF5 = $43,100 ($39,800 + $5,000 salvage value)
NPV = (-$100,000) + ($39,800 / (1 + 11.20%) + ($39,800 / (1 + 11.20%)+ ($39,800 / (1 + 11.20%) + ($39,800 / (1 + 11.20%) + ($43,100 / (1 + 11.20%)
NPV = $58,028.68
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Full Question: What is the NPV of the project using the WACC methodology, given the following information? i = rdebt = 10% OCFO = -$100,000 Ku = rassets = 15% OCF1-4 = $39,800 = 25,000 x ($5 - $3) x (1 -0.34) + $20,000 x 0.34 Kl = requity = 24.9% OCF5 = $43,100 = $39,800 + $5,000 x (1 – 0.34) K= WACC = 11.20% Tax rate = 34% Debt-to-equity ratio = 3 Risk-free rate = 2% The 5-year project requires equipment that costs $100,000. If undertaken, the shareholders will contribute $25,000 cash and borrow $75,000 with an interest-only loan with a maturity of 5 years and annual interest payments. The equipment will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the 5-year life of the project. There will be a pre-tax salvage value of $5,000. There are no other start-up costs at year 0. During years 1 through 5, the firm will sell 25,000 units of product at $5; variable costs are $3; there are no fixed costs. $58,028.68 $49,613.03 $102,727.55 $48,300.47
though there are no statistics in the table, what do you expect was the finding based on the marginal means?
Based on the information provided and without the actual table or statistics, Marginal means refer to the average value of a variable while controlling for the other variables in a study.
1. Identify the variables in the study and their marginal means.
2. Compare the marginal means of each variable.
3. Analyze any differences or trends observed in the marginal means.
4. Draw conclusions based on the observed differences or trends, considering the context of the study.
By following these steps, you can interpret the findings of a study based on the marginal means of the variables involved. It's important to note that these expectations are hypothetical and speculative, as actual findings would require proper statistical analysis using appropriate methods, including significance testing, consideration of sample size, variability, and other relevant factors.
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What is the advantage of using common sized financial statements over those denominated in the currency of the country in which the corporation is incorporated?
A. The analyst no longer has to know anything about the foreign exchange rate of one company to another.
B. Common sized statements are easier to compare with other like companies.
C. None of the above.
D. Common sized statements do not consider accrual accounting principles.
E. Common size statements are required by GAAP, but not IFRS. Common size statements are required by GAAP, but not IFRS.
The advantage of using common-sized financial statements over those denominated in the currency of the country in which the corporation is incorporated is B. common-sized statements are easier to compare with other like companies.
Common-sized financial statements express each line item as a percentage of a key financial figure, such as revenue or total assets, which makes it simple to analyze and compare the financial performance and structure of different companies, regardless of their size or the currency they operate in. This standardized format allows analysts to quickly identify trends, evaluate efficiency, and compare a company's performance against industry benchmarks or competitors, without needing to know the foreign exchange rate.
However, it is important to note that common-sized statements do not replace the need for a thorough understanding of a company's financial health and the underlying factors that influence its performance. The advantage of using common-sized financial statements over those denominated in the currency of the country in which the corporation is incorporated is B. common-sized statements are easier to compare with other like companies.
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ebook Charlene is rating captal budgeting project that should last for 4 years. The propertreures 5375.000 of equipment and sell for 100% bonus deprecation. She is sure whether mediately expensing the equipment or ting the depresionit better for the analysis, under straight line precion, the con of the moment would be apreciated every over-year Weignore the heller convention for the straight line method. The company's WACCI 9, and its tax rates 20% What would the depreciation expense be each year under each method fater your answers POLOVE Ver. Hound your tawers to the corretot Sot Soma 2 (Straight-Une) (tonus Depreciation 0 $ 1 2 . 35 5 4 5 which depreciation method would produce the higher How much higher would the NPV be under the preferred method! Do not roundermediate calculation Hound you to the nearest solist
it seems like Charlene is trying to decide whether to expense the equipment immediately or take the depreciation over the 4 years of the project.
Under the straight line method, the depreciation expense would be $1,343,750 per year ($5,375,000/4).
Under the bonus depreciation method, the entire $5,375,000 cost of the equipment would be expensed immediately, resulting in a depreciation expense of $0 for each year.
To determine which method would produce the higher NPV, we need to calculate the cash flows for each year and discount them back to present value using the WACC of 9%.
For the straight line method, the cash flows would be:
Year 1: -$6,343,750 ($5,375,000 equipment cost - $1,343,750 depreciation expense)
Year 2: -$1,343,750
Year 3: -$1,343,750
Year 4: $3,656,250 ($5,375,000 sale price - $1,343,750 depreciation expense)
Discounting these cash flows back to present value using the WACC of 9% yields a NPV of $1,302,345.
For the bonus depreciation method, the cash flows would be:
Year 1: -$5,375,000 (equipment cost expensed immediately)
Year 2: $0
Year 3: $0
Year 4: $5,375,000 (sale price)
Discounting these cash flows back to present value using the WACC of 9% yields a NPV of $1,457,482.
Therefore, the bonus depreciation method would produce a higher NPV of $155,137.
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MM Model with Zero Taxes An unlevered firm has a value of $525 million. An otherwise identical but levered firm has $100 million in debt. Under the MM zero-tax model, what is the value of the levered firm?
Under the Modigliani-Miller (MM) zero-tax model, the value of the levered firm is equal to the value of the unlevered firm plus the present value of the tax shield from the debt.
The tax shield is equal to the debt multiplied by the relevant tax rate. Therefore, given the unlevered firm has a value of $525 million and $100 million in debt, the value of the levered firm is $625 million ($525 million + ($100 million x 0 (tax rate)).
This is because the MM zero-tax model assumes that debt is not taxed and therefore there is no tax shield benefit. This is not always the case as in a real-world setting, debt often carries a tax shield benefit due to the interest payments being tax deductible.
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if you have a complaint about a bank in connection with any of the federal credit laws, who should you contact?
If you have a complaint about a bank in connection with any of the federal credit laws, you should contact the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB).
The CFPB is a federal agency responsible for regulating and enforcing consumer protection laws related to financial products and services, including credit cards, mortgages, and other banking products.
You can file a complaint with the CFPB online, by phone, or by mail. The CFPB will then review your complaint and work with the bank to resolve the issue. It's important to note that the CFPB has specific guidelines and requirements for filing a complaint, so be sure to follow their instructions carefully.
The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) was established in 2011 as part of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act. The agency's mission is to protect consumers from unfair, deceptive, or abusive practices related to financial products and services.
If you have a complaint about a bank in connection with a federal credit law, such as the Truth in Lending Act, the Fair Credit Reporting Act, or the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, you can file a complaint with the CFPB. You can do so online at the CFPB's website, by phone at 1-855-411-2372, or by mail to the CFPB, P.O. Box 4503, Iowa City, Iowa 52244.
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larry recorded the following donations this year:$660 cash to a family in need$2,720 to a church$580 cash to a political campaignto the salvation army household items that originally cost $1,360 but are worth $700.what is larry's maximum allowable charitable contribution if his agi is $60,800?
Larry's maximum allowable charitable contribution is $1,710, given his AGI of $60,800.
To determine Larry's maximum allowable charitable contribution, we need to calculate the limit based on his Adjusted Gross Income (AGI) and the type of organization he made donations to.
Cash donation to a family in need: This is a donation to an individual or non-charitable organization and is not deductible.
Donation to a church: Donations to religious organizations, like churches, are generally tax-deductible. The limit for charitable contributions to churches is 50% of AGI. So, Larry's maximum allowable contribution for his donation to the church is:
$2,720 * 50% = $1,360
Cash donation to a political campaign:
Donations to political campaigns are not tax-deductible.
Donation of household items to the Salvation Army:
Donations of household items to qualified charitable organizations, like the Salvation Army, are generally tax-deductible. The limit for non-cash donations is 30% of AGI. However, when the property is used by the charity for its tax-exempt purposes, like in this case, the limit is increased to 50% of AGI. The original cost of the household items was $1,360, but their current worth is $700. Larry can claim a deduction for the current worth of the items, which is $700.
So, his maximum allowable contribution for this donation is:
$700 * 50% = $350
Now, we can calculate Larry's total maximum allowable charitable contribution:
$1,360 (church donation) + $350 (Salvation Army donation) = $1,710
Therefore, Larry's maximum allowable charitable contribution is $1,710, given his AGI of $60,800.
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Assume Highline Company has just paid an annual dividend of $1.03. Analysts are predicting an 10.9% per year growth rate in earnings over the next five years. After then, Highline's earnings are expected to grow at the current industry average of 4.9% per year. If Highline's equity cost of capital is 7.7% per year and its dividend payout ratio remains constant, for what price does the dividend-discount model predict Highline stock should sell? The value of Highline's stock is $ (Round to the nearest cent.)
The price predicted by the dividend-discount model for Highline's stock is $34.41.
Using the dividend-discount model, the value of Highline's stock can be calculated as follows:
PV = D1/(r-g)
where:
PV = Present value of stock
D1 = Expected dividend one year from now
r = Equity cost of capital
g = Expected growth rate of dividends
To find D1, we need to calculate the expected dividend for next year based on the current dividend and the expected growth rate:
D1 = D0 x (1 + g) = $1.03 x (1 + 0.109) = $1.1397
where:
D0 = Current dividend
Next, we can substitute the values into the formula:
PV = $1.1397 / (0.077 - 0.049) = $34.41
Therefore, the dividend-discount model predicts that Highline's stock should sell for $34.41.
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you and a friend are taking a road trip during summer break and decide to stop for lunch. you choose your favorite fast food restaurant. you both order a burger, fries, and a soft drink and chow down. in the afternoon, as you are continuing your journey, both of you begin to feel stomach cramps. they get worse so you decide to go to an urgent care clinic. the doctor there diagnoses you both with food poisoning and prescribes medication. you fill the prescription, check into a hotel, and experience several days of agony. you later discover the cook at the restaurant undercooked the beef in your burger, which caused your food poisoning. you sue the restaurant. is the restaurant liable to you or is only the employee liable? neither party is liable; when ordering food customers assume the risk that the food might not be prepared properly. only the employee is liable because the employee was the one who was negligent in undercooking the hamburger. only the employee is liable because she was acting outside the scope of her employment when she cooked the food. the restaurant is liable.
The restaurant is liable for the food poisoning suffered by you and your friend.
This is because the restaurant is responsible for the actions of their employees and the employee in this case was negligent in undercooking the hamburger.
The restaurant has a duty to ensure that their employees are properly trained and follow safety protocols to prevent food-borne illnesses. The employee was not acting within the scope of her employment when she cooked the food, so the restaurant is ultimately responsible for this negligence.
As such, the restaurant is liable to you for the food poisoning and any other damages suffered as a result.
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on february 1, a customer's account balance of $3,400 was deemed to be uncollectible. what entry should be recorded on february 1 to record the write-off assuming the company uses the allowance method?
Answer: To record the write-off of a customer's account balance of $3,400 on February 1 using the allowance method, following journal entry should be made:
1. Debit "Allowance for Doubtful Accounts" for $3,400.
2. Credit "Accounts Receivable" for $3,400.
This entry reduces both the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and Accounts Receivable by the uncollectible amount, maintaining the accuracy of your financial records.
What is Allowance for Doubtful Accounts? These accounts are contra accounts( i.e., where entry is recorded when debit and credit affect the same parent account, resulting in net zero effect on account), that nets against the total receivable presented on balance sheet to reflect only the amount that is expected to be paid. It estimates the percentage of accounts receivable that are expected to be uncollectible. Although, the actual payment behavior of customers may differ from the estimate.
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so long as the coefficient of correlation between two stocks is less than 1, some reduction in risk can be obtained by combining the securities, true or false?
True, as long as the coefficient of correlation between two stocks is less than 1, some reduction in risk can be obtained by combining the securities.
The coefficient of correlation measures the degree to which two variables, in this case, the returns of two stocks, move together. It ranges from -1 to 1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a perfect positive correlation, meaning that the returns of both stocks move in the same direction all the time.
Conversely, a coefficient of -1 indicates a perfect negative correlation, meaning the returns move in opposite directions. A coefficient of 0 suggests no correlation between the returns of the stocks.
By diversifying a portfolio and combining two stocks with a coefficient of correlation less than 1, an investor can reduce their risk exposure. The reason for this is that when one stock performs poorly, the other stock might perform well, or at least not as poorly, thereby offsetting the overall negative effect.
This diversification helps to lower the overall risk in the portfolio as the fluctuations in the returns of the individual stocks will be partially offset by each other, thereby providing a smoother return profile for the investor.
In summary, combining two stocks with a coefficient of correlation less than 1 allows for a reduction in risk due to the diversification benefits, which help to smooth out the overall return profile of the combined securities.
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