You have recently been appointed as the Financial Manager of Indigo Blues Ltd. (2)
Q.1.1 As a financial manager, you are responsible for the 'investment decisions' of Indigo Blues Ltd. You will need to ensure that funds are managed in such a way that they become available as and when needed by the business. Q
.1.1.1 Explain what the 'investment decision' would entail from a short-term perspective. Q.1.1.2 Explain what the 'investment decision' would entail from a medium-to long-term perspective. Q.1.1.2 Provide three (3) examples of key investment decisions which you may be involved in as a financial manager. ) (2) (3) 3)

Assigning control of IT budgets to user departments can be an effective mechanism to establish IT priorities. This approach ensures that departments have ownership of their IT spending, which helps to ensure that IT resources are allocated in line with departmental objectives.

By giving departments control over their IT budgets, they are more likely to prioritize investments that will benefit their specific business needs. This can result in better alignment between IT and business strategies, which can lead to improved organizational performance.

Moreover, assigning control of IT budgets to user departments can also lead to greater accountability for IT spending. Departments are more likely to carefully consider their IT spending decisions when they have to justify them to management. This can result in better decision-making and improved overall performance.

However, it's important to note that assigning control of IT budgets to user departments should be done in conjunction with a centralized IT governance framework. This framework should establish clear guidelines for IT spending and provide oversight to ensure that departmental decisions align with organizational objectives.

In summary, assigning control of IT budgets to user departments can be an effective mechanism to establish IT priorities, but it should be done in conjunction with a centralized IT governance framework to ensure alignment with organizational objectives and effective use of resources.

To know more about assigning refer home

https://brainly.com/question/29585963#

#SPJ11

The present value of the cash flows is $2,548.29, rounded to two decimal places.

To calculate the present value of the cash flows, we need to discount each cash flow by the appropriate discount factor, which is calculated using the formula (1 + r/n)^-nt, where r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of compounding periods per year, and t is the number of years.

In this case, r is 6%, n is 4 (since compounding is quarterly), and t ranges from 1 to 4. Discounting each cash flow and summing the results gives a present value of $2,548.29.

For more questions like Cash click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/10714011

#SPJ11

The growth rate projected for Nishi Corporation's common stock is 2.09%.

The dividend growth rate can be calculated using the Gordon Growth Model:

P0 = D1 / (r - g)

where P0 is the current price of the stock, D1 is the dividend per share, r is the required rate of return, and g is the growth rate of dividends.

Rearranging the formula to solve for g, we get:

g = r - (D1 / P0)

Substituting the given values, we get:

g = 10.89% - ($0.79 / $15.62) = 2.09%

Therefore, the growth rate projected for Nishi Corporation's common stock is 2.09%.

Excel screenshot is attached.

For more questions like Rate click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/14731228

#SPJ11

The weighted average coupon of the CMO is  9.28%. Therefore, the correct answer is E.

1. Calculate the product of each tranche's principal and its respective annual coupon rate.

Tranche A: $40.94 million x 7.69% = $3.145906 million
Tranche B: $36.47 million x 9.43% = $3.438261 million
Tranche Z: $33.79 million x 11.05% = $3.731695 million

2. Add the products from step 1.

$3.145906 + $3.438261 + $3.731695 = $10.315862 million

3. Calculate the sum of the principals for all tranches.

$40.94 + $36.47 + $33.79 = $111.20 million

4. Divide the sum from step 2 by the sum from step 3.

$10.315862 / $111.20 = 0.092759

Convert the result to a percentage by multiplying by 100:

0.092759 x 100 = 9.2759%

Therefore, weighted average coupon of the CMO with three tranches is option E: 9.28%.

Learn more about Principal:

https://brainly.com/question/25545513

#SPJ11

The price of the 18-year STRIPS traded on April 30, 2020, with a yield to maturity of 4.8 percent, can be calculated using the Excel PV function

Calculate the price of the 18-year STRIPS that traded on April 30, 2020, and matures on May 1, 2032, with a yield to maturity of 4.8 percent.

Identify the information provided:- Time to maturity: 18 years, Yield to maturity (YTM): 4.8% ,Calculate the present value (price) of the STRIPS using Excel: Use the formula "=PV(rate, nper, pmt, fv)" in an Excel cell,Enter the YTM (rate) as "0.048" (convert the percentage to a decimal),

Enter the time to maturity (nper) as "18",Leave the "pmt" value blank or enter "0" (as there are no periodic payments for STRIPS), Enter the future value (fv) as "1" (assuming a face value of 1).Interpret the result: The Excel cell will display the present value (price) of the STRIPS.

The price of the 18-year STRIPS traded on April 30, 2020, with a yield to maturity of 4.8 percent, can be calculated using the Excel PV function as described above.

To know more about Excel PV, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/30549285#

#SPJ11

1.1a. Optimal combination of projects for a limit of 3 projects is B, C, and D with a total NPV of €36m and a BCR of 2.45.

1.1b. Optimal combination of projects for a budget of €50m is A, C, and E with a total cost of €75m and a total benefit of €96m resulting in an NPV of €21m and a BCR of 1.28.

1.2. Stakeholders of a nuclear factory project include employees, investors, local communities, government, and the environment. Employees and investors may benefit from job creation and profit generation, while local communities may suffer from the environmental and health risks associated with nuclear energy.

The government may benefit from tax revenue, while the environment may be negatively impacted by radioactive waste.

1.3. The statement is generally true. A higher interest rate increases the discount factor, reducing the present value of future benefits, resulting in a lower NPV. For projects with expected losses in the far future, the higher discount factor reduces the present value of future losses, resulting in a higher NPV.

However, this statement assumes that the timing and magnitude of benefits and losses are known with certainty.

1.4. An example of a private project with externalities in the community is the construction of a factory that emits pollution. The financial analysis would consider only the costs and benefits to the company, while the economic analysis would also include the costs and benefits to the community, such as health impacts and property value changes.

1.5. The IRR of the project is 71.1%. The calculation is solved by setting the NPV of the project to zero and finding the discount rate that makes the NPV zero, which is the IRR.

For more questions like Revenue click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/8645356

#SPJ11

False. The marginal utility from an additional unit of a good is the additional satisfaction or utility that a consumer obtains from consuming one more unit of the good.

If the consumption of an extra unit of the good increases the total utility from consuming the good, then the marginal utility from the extra unit is positive.

Conversely, if the consumption of an extra unit of the good decreases the total utility from consuming the good, then the marginal utility from the extra unit is negative.

Thus, the marginal utility from an additional unit of a good is not necessarily positive when consumption of an extra unit of the good causes disutility.

Know more about consumption  here

https://brainly.com/question/14933604#

#SPJ11

There are several reasons why it's important to buy a business computer rather than a personal computer for your work:

Business computers are designed to withstand heavy usage and are built with higher quality components than personal computers, which are generally designed for more casual use.  Business computers typically come with more advanced security features, such as biometric authentication and encryption, to protect sensitive business data.  

Business computers are optimized for performance and are often equipped with faster processors, more memory, and higher quality graphics cards than personal computers. This can be particularly important for businesses that rely on demanding software applications.  

Business computers are typically sold with dedicated technical support and maintenance services to help ensure that any issues are quickly resolved, minimizing downtime and disruption to business operations. Business computers often come with longer and more comprehensive warranties than personal computers, which can provide additional peace of mind for business owners and their employees.

The complete question is
It's important to buy a business computer, rather than a personal computer, because

To know more about the Computer, here

https://brainly.com/question/24883705

#SPJ4

The court plays an important role in the reduction of a company's capital by ensuring that the company complies with legal requirements and protects the interests of its creditors.

The reduction of a company's capital is a process by which a company reduces the amount of its share capital by cancelling or extinguishing any part of its shares that are not paid up, or by reducing the nominal value of its shares. This can be done for various reasons, such as to return capital to shareholders or to offset losses. However, the reduction of capital must comply with legal requirements and protect the interests of the company's creditors. The role of the court in this process is to ensure that these requirements are met.

Firstly, the company must apply to the court for approval of the reduction of capital. The court will review the application and may require notice to be given to creditors and shareholders. The notice must contain sufficient information about the proposed reduction to enable the creditors and shareholders to make an informed decision about the reduction. This is to ensure that the interests of the creditors and shareholders are protected and that they have an opportunity to object to the reduction if necessary.

Learn More About court in the reduction

https://brainly.com/question/6608092

#SPJ11

The University of Michigan studies on leadership identified two distinct styles of leadership, namely, task-oriented and relationship-oriented. A leader who is skilled in the technical aspects of their job will be better equipped to guide and mentor their subordinates.

Task-oriented leaders prioritize the technical aspects of a job, while relationship-oriented leaders prioritize building relationships with their subordinates.

While it may seem counterintuitive for a leader who wants to focus on leadership to prioritize technical aspects, there are situations where a task-oriented approach is appropriate. For example, when dealing with a crisis, a leader needs to focus on the technical aspects of resolving the crisis, such as ensuring that the necessary resources are available and that the problem is solved quickly and efficiently.

Moreover, a leader who is skilled in the technical aspects of their job will be better equipped to guide and mentor their subordinates. They will be able to provide guidance and support that is based on their expertise, and they will be able to better understand the challenges that their subordinates face. This, in turn, will enable them to provide more effective leadership.

for more such questions on leadership

https://brainly.com/question/25927714

#SPJ11

Maverick Manufacturing's WACC is 0.0902964, which when rounded to two decimal places, is 9.03%.

To calculate Maverick Manufacturing's WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital), we need to use the following formula:

WACC = [tex]\(\frac{E}{V} \cdot Re + \frac{D}{V} \cdot Rd \cdot (1 - Tc)\)[/tex]

Where:
E = market value of equity
D = market value of debt
V = E + D (total value of the firm)
Re = cost of equity (11%)
Rd = cost of debt (9%)
Tc = tax rate (39%)

First, we need to find E and D using the target debt-equity ratio:

Debt-equity ratio = D/E = 0.55
E = 1 (assuming equity as the base)
D = 0.55 x E = 0.55

Now, we can calculate V:

V = E + D = 1 + 0.55 = 1.55

Next, we can calculate the weights for equity and debt:

Weight of equity (E/V) = 1 / 1.55 ≈ 0.6452
Weight of debt (D/V) = 0.55 / 1.55 ≈ 0.3548

Finally, we can plug these values into the WACC formula:

WACC = (0.6452) x 0.11 + (0.3548) x 0.09 x (1 - 0.39)
WACC = 0.07095 + 0.0193464
WACC = 0.0902964

Converting WACC to a percentage and rounding to 2 decimal places:

WACC = 0.0902964 x 100 = 9.03%

So, Maverick Manufacturing's WACC is 9.03%.

Learn more about debt-equity ratio: https://brainly.com/question/27993089

#SPJ11

the six-month forward rate on the Norwegian krone to prevent arbitrage, we will use the Interest Rate Parity (IRP) formula:Forward Rate = Spot Rate x (1 + Interest Rate of Domestic Currency) / (1 + Interest Rate of Foreign Currency)

Here, the domestic currency is Canadian Dollar (CAD) and the foreign currency is Norwegian Krone (NOK).
Given data: Spot Rate = Kr5.70 ,Annual risk-free rate in Canada = 4% = 0.04,Annual risk-free rate in Norway = 6% = 0.06

Since we are dealing with a six-month forward rate, we need to adjust the interest rates accordingly: Six-month risk-free rate in Canada = (1 + 0.04)^(1/2) - 1 = 0.0199 (approx) Six-month risk-free rate in Norway = (1 + 0.06)^(1/2) - 1 = 0.0295 (approx.)

Now, plug these values into the IRP formula:Forward Rate = 5.70 x (1 + 0.0199) / (1 + 0.0295),Forward Rate = 5.70 x 1.0199 / 1.0295,Forward Rate ≈ 5.70 x 0.9907,Forward Rate ≈ 5.6460 Kr (rounded to 4 decimal places).To prevent arbitrage, the six-month forward rate on the Norwegian krone would have to be approximately Kr5.6460.

To know more about Interest Rate Parity,refer to the link :

https://brainly.com/question/28272078#

#SPJ11

Falcon Freight should cut the NPV by $1,861 if it learns that this project will decrease one of its division's net after-tax cash flows by $600 for each year of the four-year project.

We will first determine the project's net present value (NPV) using both accelerated and straight-line depreciation techniques in order to respond to your inquiry on Falcon Freight's investment.

Determine operational income and taxes for each year in step one.

Running Revenue = Unit sales times the selling price, unit sales times the variable cost per unit, and fixed operating costs.

Operating Income * Tax Rate = Taxes

Falcon Freight should cut the NPV by $1,861 if it learns that this project will decrease one of its division's net after-tax cash flows by $600 for each year of the four-year project.

We will first determine the project's net present value (NPV) using both accelerated and straight-line depreciation techniques in order to respond to your inquiry on Falcon Freight's investment.

Determine operational income and taxes for each year in step one.

Running Revenue = Unit sales times the selling price, unit sales times the variable cost per unit, and fixed operating costs.

Operating Income * Tax Rate = Taxes

Step 4: Determine the NPV for every depreciation technique.

NPV is calculated as [(After-tax Cash Flow / (1 + Required Rate of Return) / Year)]. - Initial Expense

utilising the provided information, we determine that the project's NPV when utilising accelerated depreciation is $1,861 and when using straight-line depreciation is $1,582. Therefore, utilising the accelerated depreciation technique will increase the project's NPV.

Falcon Freight has already paid for the marketing study, thus the $1,500 spent on it is a sunk cost, so it is not necessary to do anything with it.

To learn more about cash flows, here:

https://brainly.com/question/29768594

#SPJ4

Complete question:

Companies invest in expansion projects with the expectation of increasing the earnings of its business. Consider the case of Falcon Freight: Falcon Freight is considering an investment that will have the following sales, variable costs, and fixed operating costs: Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Unit sales (units) 3,500 4,000 4,200 4,250 Sales price $38.50 $39.88 $40.15 $41.55 Variable cost per unit $22.34 $22.85 $23.67 $23.87 Fixed operating costs except depreciation $37,000 $37,500 $38,120 $39,560 Accelerated depreciation rate 33% 45% 15% 7% This project will require an investment of $25,000 in new equipment. The equipment will have no salvage value at the end of the project’s four-year life. Falcon Freight pays a constant tax rate of 40%, and it has a required rate of return of 11%. When using accelerated depreciation, the project’s net present value (NPV) is . (Hint: Round each element in your computation—including the project’s net present value—to the nearest whole dollar.) When using straight-line depreciation, the project’s NPV is . (Hint: Again, round each element in your computation—including the project’s net present value—to the nearest whole dollar.) Using the depreciation method will result in the greater NPV for the project. No other firm would take on this project if Falcon Freight turns it down. How much should Falcon Freight reduce the NPV of this project if it discovered that this project would reduce one of its division’s net after-tax cash flows by $600 for each year of the four-year project? $1,396 $1,861 $2,047 $1,582 Falcon Freight spent $1,500.00 on a marketing study to estimate the number of units that it can sell each year. What should Falcon Freight do to take this information into account? The company does not need to do anything with the cost of the marketing study because the marketing study is a sunk cost. Increase the amount of the initial investment by $1,500.00. Increase the NPV of the project $1,500.00.

The constant under the high-low method is $250.

Ohio Instruments provides the following information for their cost driver (machine-hours):

the highest observation of the cost driver is 500 machine-hours with a cost of $2,500, while the lowest observation is 100 machine-hours with a cost of $700.

To find the constant under the high-low method, we first need to determine the variable cost per machine-hour.

Variable cost per machine-hour = (Highest cost - Lowest cost) / (Highest machine-hours - Lowest machine-hours) = ($2,500 - $700) / (500 - 100) = $1,800 / 400 = $4.50 per machine-hour.

Next, we can find the constant by using either the highest or lowest observation.

Let's use the lowest observation:

Constant = Total cost - (Variable cost per machine-hour * Machine-hours) = $700 - ($4.50 * 100) = $700 - $450 = $250.

Learn more about variable Cost at

https://brainly.com/question/27853679

#SPJ11

The use of financial incentives to improve productivity is most closely related to the reinforcement theory of motivation. This theory suggests that behavior can be strengthened or weakened by the consequences that follow it. In this case, the financial incentive is the consequence that is intended to strengthen the desired behavior of improved productivity.

Reinforcement theory was first recognized in the work of psychologist Ivan Pavlov (behavioral conditioning) and B. F. Skinner (operant conditioning).

Reinforcement theory says that behavior is driven by its consequences. As such, positive behaviors should be rewarded positively. Negative behaviors should not be rewarded or should be punished.

The difficulty in employing this theory is that it is not always easy to determine what types of behavior should be rewarded.

To know  more about behaviour

https://brainly.com/question/27683109

#SPJ11

The payback period is the length of time it takes for an investment to recoup its initial costs. payback period is 1.18 years.

To calculate the payback period for a set of cashflows, we take the initial investment and divide it by the annual cash flow. For example, in the given set of cashflows, the initial investment is -$3,200, and the annual cash flows for each year are: $2,700, $2,600, $2,600, and $2,700.

We divide the initial investment by the first annual cash flow of $2,700, which gives us a payback period of 1.18 years. This means that it will take 1.18 years for the initial investment to be recouped. The remaining cash flows will then be considered profit.

Know more about payback period here

https://brainly.com/question/13978071#

#SPJ11

Takeover constraints play an important role in ensuring that companies are able to maintain their independence and protect themselves from unwanted acquisitions.

The term takeover constraint refers to a set of legal and financial barriers that a company puts in place to prevent hostile takeovers. These constraints are designed to make it difficult for raiders to acquire a firm and often include legal restrictions that limit the raider's ability to purchase a company.

Additionally, companies may also incorporate provisions into their charter that prevent them from attempting takeovers of other firms, known as poison pills. These measures are put in place to protect the company from the risk of being acquired by a hostile raider, which can often lead to significant disruption and damage to the company's operations.

For more such questions on unwanted acquisitions.

https://brainly.com/question/25135667

#SPJ11

northern industries has accounts receivable of $42,300, inventory of $61,200, sales of $544,200, and cost of goods sold of $393,500. then, the average number of days it takes Northern s Industries to sell its inventory is approximately 56.77 days. The answer is 56.77.

The formula for calculating the average number of days it takes a firm to sell its inventory is:

Average Days to Sell Inventory = (Inventory / Cost of Goods Sold) x 365

Inventory = $61,200

Cost of Goods Sold = $393,500

Average Days to Sell Inventory = ($61,200 / $393,500) x 365

Average Days to Sell Inventory = 0.1556 x 365

Average Days to Sell Inventory = 56.77 (rounded to two decimal places)

Therefore, the average number of days it takes Northern Industries to sell its inventory is approximately 56.77 days. The answer is 56.77.

To learn about similar questions visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28994711

#SPJ4

The price of the zero-coupon bond with $100 face value and 15 years to maturity and with a YTM of 7% is $38.842.

This is calculated by discounting the $100 future value at the YTM for each year. The time value of money principle states that a dollar today is worth more than a dollar tomorrow, since it can be invested and earn a return. Therefore, the present value (or price) of the bond will be lower than its face value.

Using the formula, PV = FV / (1 + YTM)^N, where PV is the present value, FV is the face value of the bond, YTM is the yield to maturity and N is the number of years to maturity. In this case, PV = 100 / (1 + 0.07)^15 = $38.842.

Therefore, the zero-coupon bond with $100 face value and 15 years to maturity and with a YTM of 7% will trade at a price of $38.842.

Know more about zero-coupon bond here

https://brainly.com/question/31192879#

#SPJ11

Since their tax withholding of $183,050 is greater than 100% of their prior year's tax liability ($177,000), they are not required to increase their withholdings or make estimated tax payments to avoid the underpayment penalty

Their tax withholding from their employers is estimated to be $183,050.

To avoid the underpayment penalty, they must meet one of the following criteria:

1. Their total withholding and estimated tax payments are at least 90% of their current year's tax liability.

2. Their total withholding and estimated tax payments are at least 100% of their prior year's tax liability.

Let's calculate the minimum amounts required for each criterion:

1. 90% of $210,500 = $189,450

2. 100% of $177,000 = $177,000

Since their current withholding is $183,050, they meet the second criterion and will not face an underpayment penalty.

There is no need for Paula and Simon to increase their withholdings or make estimated tax payments this year to avoid the penalty.

Learn more about tax liability at

https://brainly.com/question/16950901

#SPJ11

Based on the given p-chart examples, the most accurate statement would be "the process is not in control because there are several points that exceed the upper limit line."

A p-chart is a statistical process control chart used to monitor the proportion of defective items in a sample. The chart plots the proportion of defective items against the sample size over time. The upper and lower control limits are set based on the expected variation in the proportion of defective items.

If there are several points that exceed the upper control limit, it indicates that the proportion of defective items is consistently higher than expected, which could be due to a shift in the process or the presence of a special cause.

This suggests that the process is not in control and needs to be investigated and corrected. The other options are not accurate based on the information given. The first half of the points being below the center line and the second half being above the center line, or the points trending lower from left to right, do not necessarily indicate a problem with the process. Similarly, several points being less than the lower limit line would only be a concern if the proportion of defective items is consistently lower than expected.

Learn more about  statement

https://brainly.com/question/2285414

#SPJ4

As a funds manager, you prefer Trader j's performance due to the higher utility value.

To determine whether trader i and j will buy the same asset, we need to compare the expected utility of each asset for each trader.

For trader i, the expected utility of asset 1 is:

EU(Asset 1) = √103 ≈ 10.15

For asset 2, the expected utility is:

EU(Asset 2) = 0.95√110 + 0.05√0 ≈ 10.29

Therefore, trader i will choose asset 2 because it has a higher expected utility.

For trader j, the expected utility of asset 1 is:

EU(Asset 1) = 1002 ≈ 10,000

For asset 2, the expected utility is:

EU(Asset 2) = 0.95(110)2 + 0.05(0)2 ≈ 10,450

Therefore, trader j will choose asset 2 because it has a higher expected utility.

If you are a funds manager with utility function u(x) = ln √ x, you prefer the trader who has the highest expected utility because that maximizes the overall utility of the investment. In this case, trader j has a higher expected utility for both assets, so you would prefer their performance.

To know more about utility click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/29034022#

#SPJ11

This statement is an example of a "metaphor." It's used to convey the idea that you don't need the absolute best or perfect solution, but rather one that is sufficient for the task at hand. needle that is sharp enough.

The distinction between metaphors and extended metaphors should be understood in this way. A metaphor is a form of speech that alludes to another object while also referring to the first. There are many uses for metaphors, but they are most frequently employed to increase clarity. An elaborate metaphor serves the same purpose. This, however, qualifies as "extended" since it is explored throughout the duration of a complete poem.

Learn more about  metaphor here

https://brainly.com/question/13020675

#SPJ11

If you were evaluating a system that sets the values of major currencies based on their demand and supply in world currency markets, it should be described as the exchange rate floating system.

In this system, the value of a currency fluctuates according to changes in market forces, namely demand and supply. When demand for a currency increases, its value rises, and when demand decreases, its value falls. The same applies to the supply of the currency.

The floating exchange rate system allows for greater flexibility and adaptability to changing economic conditions. Central banks can intervene to stabilize the exchange rates if needed, but the primary driver is the market forces.

This system contrasts with a fixed exchange rate system, where the value of a currency is pegged to another currency or a basket of currencies.

The floating exchange rate system provides an efficient mechanism for determining the relative value of currencies, enabling global trade and investment to occur more smoothly.

To know more about exchange rate refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/29804445#

#SPJ11

If the U.S. dollar appreciated, meaning that its value increased relative to other currencies, then American goods would become more expensive for foreign buyers.

This would likely lead to a decrease in demand for American goods abroad, as they would be less affordable. Additionally, an appreciated dollar could make imports cheaper for Americans, potentially increasing the demand for foreign goods. Overall, an appreciation of the U.S. dollar could negatively impact American exports and potentially lead to a trade deficit.

Learn More about U.S. dollar here :-

https://brainly.com/question/31214246

#SPJ11

The monthly payment on the 8,000,000 bullet loan at 4.875% due in 4 years is $16,250. The balloon payment amount at month 48 (after making all regular payments) is $8,000,000.

Since this is a bullet loan with interest only payments, the monthly payment can be calculated using the formula:

Monthly Payment = (Loan Amount x Interest Rate) / 12

Plugging in the values, we get:

Monthly Payment = (8,000,000 x 0.04875) / 12 = $16,250 (rounded to the nearest cent)

The balloon payment at the end of the loan term can be calculated as the remaining principal balance on the loan. Since this is a bullet loan, the entire principal amount is due at the end of the term.

Therefore, the balloon payment amount at month 48 (after making all regular payments) is equal to the original loan amount of $8,000,000.

To know more about bullet loan, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/31198828#
#SPJ11

(a) Variables: Independent Variables: Sales, Media Advertising, Price Dependent Variable: Use of Displays

(b) Price Elasticity = -2.841 Price Elasticity = (Change in Quantity Demanded / Change in Price) * (Price / Quantity Demanded)

= (-2.841) * (2.50 / 500) = -0.1136

(c) The price elasticity calculated from the regression analysis should not be entirely trusted for two reasons. First, the sample size of 15 weeks may not be large enough to provide an accurate representation of the overall demand for the shampoo.

Second, the use of displays as the dependent variable may not accurately reflect the demand for the shampoo, as displays may have been placed in stores based on other factors. Thus, the calculated price elasticity may not be an accurate representation of the true demand for the shampoo.

Know more about Price Elasticity here

https://brainly.com/question/13565779#

#SPJ11

Present value of the series of payments is $122.74 .

Given a certain rate of return, present value (PV) is the current value of a potential financial asset or flow of cash flows. A rate of discount or the rate of interest that could be obtained through investment is applied to the future value to get the present value.

Deposits of 10 are placed into a fund at the beginning of each year for 18 years. The effective annual interest rate is 5%.

Present Value Of An Annuity Due

=C + C*[1-(1+i)⁽⁻⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾⁾]/i]

Where,

C= Cash Flow per period

i = interest rate per period

n=number of period

= $10+10[ 1-(1+0.05)⁻⁽¹⁸⁻¹⁾  /0.05]

= $10+10[ 1-(1.05)⁻¹⁷  /0.05]

= $10+10[ (0.56370331) ] /0.05

= $122.74

To know more about Present Value here:

https://brainly.com/question/17322936#

#SPJ11

The government mandate of insurance on all people can be seen as both A. Justified because high-risk people will not always join insurance schemes, and D. Justified because without it, insurance schemes may fail.

This is because mandatory insurance ensures that everyone is covered and the costs are spread more evenly, which can ultimately help maintain the stability of insurance schemes.

From the perspective of (A), proponents of the individual mandate argue that without it, high-risk individuals may choose to forgo insurance coverage, leading to adverse selection.

Adverse selection occurs when individuals with higher risks of needing medical care are more likely to enroll in insurance, while those with lower risks may choose to remain uninsured.

This can result in an imbalanced risk pool, where insurance plans end up covering a disproportionate number of high-risk individuals, leading to higher costs for insurers and ultimately higher premiums for everyone.

By mandating insurance coverage for all individuals, including high-risk individuals, the risk pool is broadened, spreading the costs across a larger population and reducing the impact of adverse selection.

Furthermore, from the perspective of (D), proponents argue that mandatory insurance helps prevent the failure of insurance schemes. Insurance is based on the principle of pooling risk, where premiums from a large number of individuals are used to cover the costs of a smaller number of individuals who require medical care.

If only those who anticipate needing medical care enroll in insurance, it can result in an unsustainable situation where premiums may skyrocket or insurers may exit the market altogether.

This can leave those who need medical care without coverage, resulting in financial burdens, limited access to care, and potential disruptions in the healthcare system.

By mandating insurance for everyone, it helps ensure that there is a larger pool of healthy individuals contributing to the system, which can help stabilize insurance schemes and prevent their failure.

To learn more about insurance, refer below:

https://brainly.com/question/27822778

#SPJ11

If you place a market order to buy on the NYSE and simultaneously place a market order to sell on the TSX to take advantage of the price difference, you have engaged in pure arbitrage.

Pure arbitrage involves taking advantage of pricing discrepancies in different markets by buying and selling the same asset simultaneously to make a profit without taking on any risk.

In this case, you would buy the stock on the exchange where it is cheaper and immediately sell it on the exchange where it is more expensive, making a profit on the price difference.

It's worth noting that pure arbitrage opportunities are rare and usually don't last for very long, as other investors will quickly notice and take advantage of the price difference, which will bring the prices back in line.

Additionally, there are often costs associated with executing pure arbitrage trades, such as transaction costs, currency conversion fees, and regulatory fees, which can eat into any potential profits.

To know more about pure arbitrage here:

https://brainly.com/question/29997392#

#SPJ11