The phase of completing assessment of a client and validating the information gathered and reviewing goals with the client by the nurse is the termination phase of the interview process.
What is the termination phase?The most crucial stage of the relationship is when it ends. The primary goal of this stage is to therapeutically end the termination phase.
In the termination phase, nurses are responsible for the following-
- Present the sufferer with the separating reality.
- The nurse and the patient should discuss the patient's feelings, emotions, and associated behavior.
- Analyze the success of therapy and the accomplishment of objectives.
- If necessary, discuss upcoming meeting schedules.
Solutions to issues during the termination phase
Nurses need to be capable of handling the circumstance and cognizant of the patients' feelings.Invite the patient to express his opinions on the ending phase.When planning for a patient's release, nurses can enlist the assistance of the supervisor.To learn more about termination phase with the help of given link:
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According to research cited in the text, infant rats that were _____ gained weight more rapidly and developed faster neurologically than those rats that were _____.
According to research cited in the text, infant rats that were handled gained weight more rapidly and developed faster neurologically than those rats that were not handled.
Why was this possible?The rats that were manipulated had optimized mental development.Possible developmental flaws were removed with the use of treatment.The treatment aimed to optimize the development of the mice, for this an experiment was established, where the mice that received the neurological treatment were compared with common mice that were not manipulated neurologically.
The manipulated mice had the unrolling failures and other problems optimized. This prevented these flaws from developing deeper, or from being eliminated from the body, which allowed these mice to show better neurological development that improved many points of their bodies, such as the ability to gain weight faster.
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what are the health and medical and nutrition sciences and how do they relate to fitness, health, and wellness?
health, medical and nutrition science are defined below:
What is science?
Science is an intellectual and practical endeavor that includes the methodical investigation of the composition and behavior of the physical and natural world via experimentation and observation.
The sciences whose primary research interests are in the areas of health or health care are known as health sciences.
The science of medicine is the study of how the human body functions. It often begins with fundamental biology before being separated into subfields of expertise.
The study of food, nutrients, and other dietary ingredients, their consumption and biochemical processing, their link to health and illness, and the application of this knowledge to policy and programs is known as nutritional sciences.
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In 2011, one phase of the patient protection and affordable care act (ppaca) came into effect allowing parents to keep children on their family health insurance until the age of _____.
In 2011, one phase of the patient protection and affordable care act (ppaca) came into effect allowing parents to keep children on their family health insurance until the age of 26.
What is patient protection and affordable care act?
The three main goals of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) are to: (1) reform the private insurance market, particularly for individuals and small-group buyers; (2) expand Medicaid to working poor people with incomes up to 133% of the federal poverty level; and (3) alter the way that medical decisions are made.
The Affordable Care Act mandates that insurers and plans that provide coverage for dependent children do so up until the adult kid turns 26. After graduating from college, many parents and their kids no longer have to worry about losing their health care.
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Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care for a patient with itp?
The nursing intervention which will be included in the plan of care for a patient with ITP is to prevent injury, infections or bleeding.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), conjointly called primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura and autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, is outlined as isolated thrombocytopenia with normal bone marrow and within the absence of different causes of blood disease.
ITP is a disorder that may cause straightforward or excessive bruising and bleeding. Children usually develop ITP when a virus infection and frequently recover absolutely while not treatment. The bleeding results from low levels of platelets — the cells that facilitate blood.
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Nurse who is a recent graduate has been formally reprimanded after administering a medication to the wrong client. this reprimand would be considered to be consistent with a just culture if?
Nurse who is a recent graduate has been formally reprimanded after administering a medication to the wrong client and this reprimand would be considered to be consistent with a just culture if it has been deemed appropriate and relevant to the nurse's actions.
The Texas Board of Nursing (BON) will discipline nurses with a “reprimand,” that is a lot of serious than a warning, however less of a disciplinary sanction than alternative choices. The BON problems reprimands once it concludes – when associate investigation – that a nurse has profaned the Nursing observe Act (NPA).
Even if the client doesn't have any reaction, receiving the incorrect medication, it still might have caused harm. One medication might negate the results of another, reducing its efficaciousness for the patient.
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Soap suds enemas are used to eliminate barium residue in the colon. True or false
False. The Soap suds enemas are used in eliminating barium residue that is present in the colon.
What are the benefits of soap suds enemas?A soap suds enema is one kind of enema. To treat fecal impaction or constipation, detergent is added to water.
You can administer over-the-counter enemas in your house. In a hospital setting, your doctor may also perform an enema.
A soap suds enema (SSE) is a hypertonic solution that delivers a large-volume, detergent-based mucosal irritation to stimulate defecation.
To identify structural or functional issues with the large intestine, including the rectum, a barium enema may be used.
Ulcerative colitis is just one example of these anomalies. Inflammation and ulcers in the large intestine.
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To prepare a client for discharge, the nurse provides dietary education for a client who had a pancreaticoduodenectomy (whipple procedure). which would the nurse include in the instructions?
The nurse should include that the Whipple procedure has interfered with the fat digestion mechanism, thus, a low-fat diet is needed.
Pancreaticoduodenectomy or the Whipple procedure is a technique to remove the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine), gallbladder, and bile duct. The other associated organs are reattached to allow normal digestion after surgery. It is usually done to remove tumors or alleviate disorders of these organs.
The pancreas and gallbladder secrete enzymes that help you to digest fats and proteins. Pancreas also releases a hormone, known as insulin, which regulates your body's sugar levels. As the Whipple procedure removes the gallbladder, the patient must take care of the food he eats to normalize digestion. He should not include high fats in his diet as they may be uneasy for him to digest.
The nurse should therefore include various instructions for the diet of a patient with the Whipple procedure and ask him to avoid high fats in his diet.
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Two out of three people who have heart attacks experience warning signs up to a few weeks beforehand. True or false
This statement is true.
A myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when there is insufficient blood supply to part of the heart muscle.The more time passes without treatment to improve blood flow, the greater the damage to the heart muscle.The leading cause of heart attacks is coronary artery disease (CAD). Coronary spasm, a severe, rapid contraction, is a less common cause and can block blood flow to the heart muscle.Chest pain or discomfort is one of the main symptoms of a heart attack. Most heart attacks are characterized by left or central chest pain that lasts longer than a few minutes or subsides before recurring. Painful pressure, pressure, or fullness may be experienced as complaints.Therefore, the statement is true.
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What is the most accurate assessment if the client believes that the healthcare providers are fbi agents and that there are cameras everywhere monitoring the client?
The Delusions evaluation is the most appropriate one if the client thinks that the medical professionals are FBI agents and that his apartment is equipped with cameras to watch his every move.
It is crucial to emphasize the value of assessment in residential care settings. It serves as the philosophical basis for person-centered care, a philosophy that gives patients more autonomy and responsibility for their own health and way of life.
Every client receiving residential care needs to undergo a thorough evaluation to determine their unique needs, preferences, and strengths. An interdisciplinary team conducts the examination, which examines different facets of the subjects' lives, including their physical, spiritual, cognitive, social, mental, and emotional well-being.
Decisions based on client assessments have an impact on care coordination, resource allocation, and other services.
The assessment procedure identifies the most suitable and efficient method of customer support. Assessment often begins soon after admission, however, it might take longer or shorter depending on the organization and staffing levels.
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Which explains why it is important to have the correct etiology for a nursing diagnosis?
The etiology directs nursing care and that is why it is important to have the correct etiology for a nursing diagnosis.
The etiology directs nursing interventions. If the incorrect etiology is given, the treatment would not be applicable for the consumer. the alternative statements are true but not a reason for the importance of the etiology being correct.
A nursing diagnosis is “a clinical judgment regarding individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems/life processes.
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A client with mild fluid volume excess is prescribed a diuretic that blocks sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule. which diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
B) HydroDiuril is the diuretic anticipated by the nurse to administer for this client in this condition.
What conditions does HydroDiuril treat?High blood pressure is treated with this drug. Bringing down high blood pressure reduces the risk of heart attacks, kidney issues, and strokes.
What are the side effects of taking hydrochlorothiazide?Hydrochlorothiazide is a type of medication known as a diuretic, or “water pill,” and it works by increasing the amount of urine you produce.
Negative effectsStomach, leg, or back discomfort.
Tarry, dark stools.
Blistering, skin peeling, or skin loosening
Ballooning.
Blood in the stools or urine.
Fingernails and lips both blue.
Or tightness in the chest.
Clay-colored stools.
How long does Hydrodiuril take to start working?The effects of hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) last up to 12 hours and begin to take effect about 2 hours after you take it.
Water pills like hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) cause frequent urination.
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Complete question:
A client with mild fluid volume excess is prescribed a diuretic that blocks sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule. Which diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
A. Demadex
B. HydroDiuril
C. Lasix
D. Bumex
A nurse is caring for a client with eczema. which medication would be prescribed when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder?
The best medication among the answer choice given above which would to prescribe for a patient when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder is Chlorpheniramine.
Option b is the correct answer choice.
No doubt, the general and best medication which should be given to patients whose skin health condition is as a result of allergic reactions or allergies is Chlorpheniramine. When this is administered for such patient, it fight the loosed defense mechanisms causing such allergic effect.
What is meant by skin disorder ?Skin disorder refers to any skin disease or condition which affect the normal physiology functioning or nature of the skin.
That being said, skin disorder or diseases are usually caused by pathogenic microorganisms. Once they invade the body system by whatever means they have, they cause certain health conditions on the skin which includes the following:
EczemaRingwormCancer of the skinRashes and so on and so forth.So therefore, the best medication among the answer choice given above which would to prescribe for a patient when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder is Chlorpheniramine.
Option b is the correct answer choice.
Complete question:
A nurse is caring for a client with eczema. Which medication would be prescribed when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Dicloxacillin
D. Bupivacaine
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Which goal would the nurse expect client receiving treatment for bacterial cystitis to achieve before their discharge from teh hospital?
The goal that the nurse would expect clients receiving treatment for bacterial cystitis to achieve before their discharge from the hospital would be to get rid of the patient's clinical symptoms while keeping their kidney function intact.
This is further explained below.
What is bacterial cystitis?Generally, Bacterial cystitis is an infection of the bladder that may be caused by bacteria that have entered the urethra or the bladder.
This infection can also be caused by bacteria that have invaded the urethra.
An imbalance in the bacteria that are normally present in and flourish inside your body is another factor that contributes to this condition.
The disease that develops as a consequence of the infection is called cystitis, which is another name for inflammation of the bladder.
Treatment for a bladder infection is necessary and should not be put off for any length of time.
In conclusion, Get rid of the patient's clinical symptoms while keeping their kidney function intact.
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Kimiko witnessed the death of a good friend when she was 10 years old. it is likely that she?
Kimiko is likely to remembered at least some portion of this memory.
What do mean by memory?Memory is seen as the act or the process of having in information from the environment that is around us, and then processing it, as well as it for later remembering of that information.
Note that in the case above, she is said to be young and the tendency to remember it all will wear off with time.
Therefore, Kimiko is likely to remembered at least some portion of this memory.
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What should be the nurses primary goal during the perinteraction phase of the nurse-client relationship?
The nurse's primary goal in the preinteraction phase should be to
explore self-perceptions.
What does self-perception mean?A theory of attitude formation called the self-perception theory (SPT) was created by psychologist Daryl Bem. It states that people form their attitudes by analyzing their own behavior and drawing conclusions about what attitudes must have led to it (when there is no previous attitude due to lack of experience, etc. and the emotional response is ambiguous). The theory goes against conventional wisdom, which holds that attitudes drive behavior. The theory also contends that people create attitudes independently of their internal cognitive and emotional states. The individual attempts to rationally interpret their own overt behaviors as well as those of others.To learn more about Self perception, refer
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Asking yourself, “Who am I now?” is one way to help determine career plans that will fit your interests. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
When administering morphine to a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction, the nurse understands that the medication has which beneficial effects?
Although morphine is currently prescribed and used to treat myocardial infarction-related chest pain, the level of evidence is weak due to the dearth of relevant clinical research.
What are beneficial effect of injecting morphine to a patient?A medicine for the treatment of moderate to severe pain. In the central nervous system and some other tissues, it binds to opioid receptors. Opium is used to make morphine sulfate.
Morphine has long thought to be the ideal painkiller because it is a strong opioid. During a MI, its inherent hemodynamic consequences are advantageous.
It lowers blood pressure, heart rate, and venous return and may also activate regional histamine-mediated mechanisms. This should lessen the need for myocardial oxygen.
Therefore, administering morphine to a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction.
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To establish a nutrient's rda, nutrition scientists add ________ of the nutrient to its ear.
To establish a nutrient's RDA, nutrition scientists add a "margin of safety" amount of the nutrient to its ear.
What is Recommended Dietary Allowance?Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) refers to the consumption of nutrients required to maintain a healthy state and well-being according to nutritionists and the collection of essential scientific evidence.
In conclusion, 'To establish a nutrient's RDA, nutrition scientists add a "margin of safety" amount of the nutrient to its ear.
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There are usually 200,000 causes of influenza each year in the US. Which of the following would represent an epidemic? (Please help)
A. 100,000 cases
B. 200,000 cases
C. 500,000 cases
D. 10,000 cases
Answer:
D. 10,000 cases
Explanation:
An epidemic is a widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a community, so the number of cases would be significantly smaller compared to the number of cases in the US.
A recall is a ______ action of removing a product from retail or distribution store
Answer: Firm, if not firm try
immediate
Explanation:
I really hope this helps, but either way have a good day!^^
A study conducted in 1961 found that _________ doctors had a strong tendency to withhold information.
A study conducted in 1961 found that most of the doctors had a strong tendency to withhold information.
According to a 1961 survey, most doctors exhibited a significant propensity to keep knowledge to themselves. At that time, none of the physicians polled indicated that they had a practice of disclosing a life-threatening diagnosis to every patient.The majority of respondents (59.9-91.5%) said they would be willing to answer these questions honestly. However, when asked specific questions about euthanasia, more than a third of doctors refused to respond honestly. These outcomes can be compared to UK data. The majority of respondents preferred the use of anonymous written responses, and complete anonymity was the promise that was most likely to inspire honest responses. Survey recommendations from regulatory agencies didn't provide as much comfort to respondents. The deterring effect of medical and legal repercussions and social stigma were among the topics covered in the open remarks.Therefore, most of the doctors had a strong tendency to withhold information.
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A client has undergone a kidney transplant and voices concerns about organ rejection to the nurse. the most appropriate response by the nurse would be?
At which site would the nurse obtain a sterile urinalysis from a client with an indwelling catheter?
The site at which nurse would obtain a sterile urinalysis from a client with an indwelling catheter will be by withdrawing several milliliters of urine from the port on the collection tubing, using a syringe and needle.
An indwelling urinary catheter is implanted, however it remains in place unlike an intermittent catheter. The catheter is secured in the bladder with the help of a water-filled balloon. Foley catheters are a common name for these catheters.
When a client with an indwelling catheter has to have a urine sample taken, the sample should be taken from the catheter itself using the designated specimen port. The urine sample from the drainage bag may not be fresh, which might lead to an incorrect analysis.
A client's catheter would not be taken out just to collect a urine sample.
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Your heart rate or pulse should be within your TTZ for at least 20 minutes of exercise if you want to improve your cardiovascular health.
O True
O False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
This is what I think
Which instruction would the nurse include in a teaching session about lifestyle practices to promote heart health?
The nurse would instruct to Eat fiber-rich foods and engage in aerobic activity
How can you keep the heart healthy?You should exercise for at least around 150 minutes each week.
These are some suggestions to keep a healthy heart.
Healthy eating
Get moving
Maintaining a healthy weight.
Stay away from secondhand smoke and stop smoking.
Manage your blood pressure and cholesterol.
Limit your alcohol consumption.
Control your stress.
How can I check the health of my heart at home?You can check your own pulse by this method:
Get a watch with a second hand.
Just below the base of your thumb, place the index and then wrap middle fingers on the inner wrist of the other arm.
After doing this, count how many taps you experience in 10 seconds.
To determine your heart rate for 1 minute, multiply that value by 6.
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Rubella has the greatest potential for damage when it is contracted during which period of a pregnancy?
When a mother contracts the rubella virus early in her pregnancy, particularly in the first 12 weeks, the damage it causes is the worst (first trimester).
How does pregnancy suffer from rubella?When rubella strikes a pregnant woman, especially in the first trimester, the virus has the potential to kill the fetus or leave it with severe birth abnormalities. The most typical cause of congenital deafness is rubella during pregnancy. It is better to receive rubella protection before to becoming pregnant.
What types of birth abnormalities can rubella lead to?In kids whose mothers had rubella immediately before or at the start of pregnancy, complications affect 85 out of 100. Deafness, cataracts, abnormalities of the heart, brain, and spleen damage are only a few of the complications.
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A person develops asbestosis after repeated exposures to asbestos over 20 years. this is an example of a(n) __________ health effect.
Any disease that a person can acquire through his occupation are occupational health disorders. Thus, is an example of occupational health effect.
What is asbestosis?Asbestosis is a type of occupational health disorder in which the lungs of the person are damaged due to inhalation of asbestos particles.
It is a chronic lung disease which means that it is identified years later after its onset. Shortness of breath is the common associated with asbestosis.
Other symptoms include wheezing, prolonged cough, chest pain and weight loss.
Asbestos is considered as a carcinogenic agent. Therefore, prolonged exposure to asbestos fibres leads to lung cancer in the exposed patients.
People working with mining industry or automobile industry are at greater risk for developing asbestosis.
Asbestosis can be severe and life threatening. Thus, it requires timely medical attention.
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The nurse is planning care for a client with a nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance. what assessment finding would cause the nurse the most concern?
That assessment finding would be shortness of breath after walking up five stairs.
What is health assessment?
Patients are asked a series of questions regarding their personal behaviors, risks, life-changing experiences, health goals and priorities, and general health in order to complete a health assessment.
In primary care practices, health assessments are typically utilized as organized screening and evaluation tools to assist the patient and the healthcare team in creating a care plan. The health care team can better grasp the demands of its patient group as a whole with the aid of information from health assessments. The duration and breadth of health exams might vary. They can be finished on paper or a computer, and they can be done in-person or online. Patients of all ages, including children and adolescents, may be subject to health assessment questions.
Here, that nurse is planning care for a client with a nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance. so, the assessment finding would cause the nurse the most concern would be shortness of breath after walking up five stairs.
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A client comes to the emergency department with a productive cough. which symptom does the nurse look for that will require immediate attention?
Answer:
Pink Frothy Sputum
Explanation:
Pink frothy sputum is common with pulmonary edema and requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent the client's condition from getting worse.
Children tend to reject those peers who frequently use forms of ________ as their preferred way of dealing with others.
Children tend to reject those peers who frequently use forms of aggression as their preferred way of dealing with others.
Does aggressive behavior have an evolutionary basis?it has been proposed that aggressive behavior may have an evolutionary basis as a mechanism of defense in our past ancestors, but more conclusive evidence is required to confirm it.
In conclusion, children tend to reject those peers who frequently use forms of aggression as their preferred way of dealing with others.
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