Combine like terms.
y+6 - 2 – 4y^3– 5y + 2y^3 – 2y^3

Answer:

6x+6>4x+28

Step-by-step explanation:

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[tex] - 6x - 12 > 4x + 28[/tex]

Add sides 6x

[tex] - 6x + 6x - 12 > 4x + 6x + 28\\ [/tex]

[tex] - 12 > 10x + 28[/tex]

Subtract sides -28

[tex] - 12 - 28 > 10x + 28 - 28[/tex]

[tex] - 40 > 10x[/tex]

Divided sides by 10

[tex] \frac{ - 40}{10} > \frac{10}{10}x \\ [/tex]

[tex] - 4 > x[/tex]

[tex]x < - 4[/tex]

Done...

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Answer:

D.  y = arccosx and y = arcsecx

Step-by-step explanation:

got it right on edge :)

Answer:

The trigonometric function which have the same maximum value is:

y = arcsinx and y = cos x

Concept:

What are Inverse trigonometric functions?

Inverse trigonometric functions are represented as arcsinx, arccosx, arcsecx, and so on.

The trigonometric functions that are used to calculate an angle from any of the angle's trigonometric ratios are called inverse functions.

The formula which is used to in inverse  trigonometric equations are:

arcsinx = -arcsinx

arccosx = pi-arccosx

arctanx = -arctanx

arcsecx = pi - arcsecx

Solution:

The maximum values we obtain from the following equations are:

arcsinx = -1 to 1

arccosx = -1 to 1

arctanx = -pi/2 to pi/2

arcsecx = ∞

So the trigonometric functions which have the same maximum value is arcsinx and arccosx.

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Answer:

15 days

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that John has $100 in his bank account and he is spending $3 a day.

We want to find how many days until he has $55 left.

d=days

55=100-3d

55+3d=100

100-55=3d

3d=45

Solving for d, we divide by 3.

Your answer is 15.

Answer:

x>5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

draw a point at the (0,3). That is your y intercept and now go down one and over to the right 1 time. Continue this process and connect the dots

that is your line

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Your answer is: y < -3 or y > 8

The union consists of all of the elements that are contained in each interval.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped : )

Answer:

Under the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression ⁵√p¹¹ is equivalent to the given expression. The correct answer would be an option (C).

Exponential expressions, as the name indicates, involve exponents. We already know that the exponent of a number (base) specifies how many times the number (base) has been multiplied.

The exponential expression is given in the question, as follows:

[tex]p^\frac{11}{5}[/tex]

We have to determine the equivalent expression to the given expression.

As per option (C), we have

⇒ ⁵√p¹¹

The above expression also can be written as:

⇒ [tex](p^{11})^\frac{1}{5}[/tex]

⇒ [tex](p^{11})^{\times}{(\frac{1}{5})}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]p^\frac{11}{5}[/tex]

Hence, we can conclude that the expression ⁵√p¹¹ is equivalent to the given expression.

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Answer:

89

Step-by-step explanation:

i need help too

Answer:J

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the correct way to solve the problem :

You add 3 and 8 together.

you see if it equals -2 or not.

I hope this helps!

Answer:

jenny the first step is to subtract 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3C2 * (.5)^2 * (.5)^1

.375

Step-by-step explanation:

...

The probability that exactly two of the dice are odd is 3/8

"It is finding out the possibilities of the occurrence of an event."

"P(A) = n(A) / n(S)

where, n(A) is the number of favorable outcomes of an event A

n(S) is the total number of outcomes for an experiment"

[tex]P=~ ^nC_r\times p^r \times q^{n-r}[/tex]

where, p is the probability of success and q is the probability of failure

For given example,

We roll three six sided dice.

We need to find the probability that exactly two of the dice are odd

the probability of success i. e. dice is odd would be,

⇒ p = 3/6

⇒ p = 1/2

So, the probability of failure would be,

⇒ q = 1 - p

⇒ q = 1 - 1/2

⇒ q = 1/2

Also, n = 3 and r = 2

Using Binomial distribution the required probability would be,

[tex]\Rightarrow P=~ ^nC_r\times p^r \times q^{n-r}\\\\\Rightarrow P=~ ^3C_2\times (\frac{1}{2} )^2 \times (\frac{1}{2} )^{3-2}\\\\\Rightarrow P =\frac{3!}{3!(3-2)!}\times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{2}\\\\ \Rightarrow \bold{P=\frac{3}{8}}[/tex]

Therefore, the probability that exactly two of the dice are odd is 3/8

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Answer:

the first one

Step-by-step explanation: what school you go too

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1,5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

not sure if I understand the question but a=3,b=0,c=1

Step-by-step explanation:

-2+2(1)-3(-1)=3

-2+1-(-1)=0

2(-2)+2(1)-3(-1)=1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s $6.82 I believe

you got to add $2.10 three times and you get $6.30

then divide the 2.10 with the remaining 4 syringes and youll get $6.82

Hope this helped

Answer:

$1920

Step-by-step explanation:

40×8= 320

320×6= 1920

Hope this helps!! :)

Answer:

x=12

Step-by-step explanation:

collect the x stuff on one side

2/3 x + 1/6 x = 9 + 1

5/6 x = 10

x = 12

Answer:

x=12

Step-by-step explanation:

first, you need to get the variable to one side

the easiest way to do it and not deal with negatives would be this way:

2/3x - 1 = 9 - 1/6x

+1/6x            +1/6x           in order to do this you must first convert the 2/3 to 4/6

to then get

5/6x - 1 = 9

then solve it like normal

5/6x - 1 = 9

       +1     +1

5/6x = 10

/ 5/6   /5/6

x=12

Answer:

Mixed numbers have a whole number followed by the fraction (2 1/2). You would say "two and one half." The other format is an improper fraction where the numerator is greater than the denominator (5/2). Mathematicians would say that is five halves.

Answer:

27/5 I think um I have to fill out the question so ya

Answer: It’s True

The explanation: I did this already and I got an 100% I hope this helps I you have other questions just ask me! Hope you get a good score!