The primary location for the long bones' longitudinal growth is the epiphyseal growth plate.
At this location, cells proliferate, enlarge, and produce the characteristic extracellular matrix, resulting in the formation of cartilage. Following formation, the cartilage is destroyed, hardened, and replaced by osseous tissue.
Despite fluctuations in intake and excretion, three key hormones—PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin—interact to keep the concentration of calcium constant. The preservation of calcium homeostasis may also be aided by other hormones like glucagon, estrogens, thyroxine, somatotropin, and adrenal corticosteroids.
The parathyroid glands secrete the parathyroid hormone (PTH), which controls blood calcium levels. When blood calcium levels are low, PTH is released.
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PLEASE HELP I HAVE A PICTURE
Answer:
RISES ABOVE
Explanation:
When an oceanic plate converges with a continental plate, the oceanic crust will always subduct under the continental crust; this is because oceanic crust is naturally denser. Convergent boundaries are commonly associated with larger earthquakes and higher volcanic activity.
PLEASE MARK ME AS A BRILLIANT
Which of the following would be active if you have just had an automobile accident?
sympathetic nervous system will be active if you had an automobile accident.
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system and also parasympathetic nervous system, it also consists of nerve fibers leading to or originating from the brain and spinal and has neuronal cell bodies in form of ganglia.
location is near the thoracic and lumbar regions in the spinal cord.
They provide localized adjustments such as the sweating of a person as response to heat, they also control voluntary and automatic physical reactions.
under stress condition, responsible for flight and fight response for an individual and also releases epinephrine from adernal cortex.
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which of the statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis? mitosis usually produces two daughter cells while meiosis usually produces four cells. in mitosis there is one cell division while in meiosis there are two cell divisions. homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis but not in mitosis. the products of mitosis are usually genetically identical but the products of meiosis are genetically different. sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not duri
Sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not during meiosis. this statements is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis.
In cell biology, the division of replicated chromosomes into two new nuclei occurs during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. Mitosis is a process of cell division that creates genetically identical cells with a constant chromosome count. Thus, equational division is another name for the process of mitosis. Typically, cytokinesis, which splits a cell's cytoplasm, organelles, and cell membrane into two new cells with nearly equal amounts of these biological components, happens after telophase and before mitosis, which is preceded by S phase of interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. The division of the mother cell into two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another defines the mitotic (M) phase of the animal cell cycle, which is defined by the several mitotic stages.
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Over time, bacteria have become increasingly resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following best explains this in terms of natural selection?Bacteria that happen to have natural resistance to antibiotics survived and reproduced.
The survival and reproduction of bacteria that have a built-in resistance to antibiotics. When bacteria, fungus, and other microorganisms learn to resist the medications meant to kill them, its antimicrobial resistance.
Because of this, the bacteria survive and develop. Treatment options for resistant illnesses can be limited or perhaps unavailable. Antimicrobial resistance mechanisms can be divided into four major groups: (1) reducing drug uptake; (2) altering drug targets; (3) inactivating drugs; and (4) active drug efflux. Use of antibiotics is the primary contributor to antibiotic resistance. Some bacteria die when we take antibiotics, but bacteria that are resistant can live and even proliferate. Antibiotic resistance microorganisms are more prevalent as a result of misuse.
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The use of adult stem cells has many pros and cons which statement below is a con of using adult stem cells?
A. Adult stem cells are not specialized and can differentiate into specialized cells.
B. Adult stem cells can potentially cure and be used to study different human diseases.
C. Adult stem cells are thought to be limited to the types of cells in the tissue of origin.
D. Adult stem cells can potentially repair damaged or destroyed cells or to show
Answer: C
Explanation:
Adult stem cells cannot differentiate into any type of cell whereas an embryonic cell can differentiate into more cells
two genes, a and b, assort independently. what will be the most likely genotype proportions of the progeny from the following cross? a/a b/b x a/a b/b (capital letters represent the dominant phenotype conferred by each gene.)
The genes or alleles that sort into newly produced gametes independently of one another are referred to as independent assortment. The autonomous division of chromosomes into different gametes results in this independent assortment.
Keep in mind that crossing over occurs when genes on each chromosome are altered. According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles from two (or more) distinct genes are sorted into gametes independently of one another. In other words, the allele received by a gamete for one gene has no effect on the allele received for another gene. When genes are discovered on multiple chromosomes or at different locations on the same chromosome, they assort independently and are referred to as unlinked.
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watch darwin's theory of evolution with what he felt was evidence. group of answer choices organisms became different over time. [ choose ] evolution occurs slowly over extended periods of time. [ choose ] organisms have common ancestors. [ choose ] the process that drives evolution is natural selection.
Darwin's theory of evolution basically indicated that natural selection is what drives evolution and the evolution of a population of organism happens slowly which causes these organisms change over time.
Charles Darwin proposed that evolution occurs as a result of a phenomenon which is known as natural selection. Natural selection is basically the process by which the organisms which have the desirable traits, that is, the traits which give them a survival advantage over the other organisms in a population survive.
This evolution via natural selection occurs over a large period of time involving several generations of an organism. These changes cause an organism to change over time.
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how frequently will a progeny plant with a genotype of rr yy arise from the following cross: rr yy x rr yy?
a progeny plant with a genotype of rr yy arise from the following cross: rr yy x rr yy. in a dihybrid cross, recombination frequency is usually less than 50%.
To create a genetic linkage map, recombination frequency, a measure of genetic linkage, is used. In meiosis, the frequency of a single chromosomal crossover between two genes is known as the recombination frequency . A recombination frequency of 1% is expressed in terms of a centimorgan (cM). Based on the frequency of recombination between two loci, we may use this method to calculate the genetic distance between them. The actual distance is quite well estimated by this. When there is no recombination, double crossovers occur. Whether crossovers occurred in this instance is unknown. A twofold crossover is quite rare if the loci we're analysing are quite close (less than 7 cM). A double crossover happens more frequently as distances grow.
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Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages
Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health
Option D, The Energy Policy Act of 1992 required the federal government to list stationary or mobile energy usage source pollutants that could endanger public health. This statement is true.
The Energy Policy Act of 1992 was a federal law that aimed to reduce the country's dependence on foreign oil, increase the use of alternative energy sources, and improve the efficiency of energy usage. The act set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels. Energy Policy Act of 1992 also established a reserve of oil in the United States energy usage in order to prevent gasoline shortages. However, it did not require the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project. The Energy Policy Act of 1992 had a wide range of provisions that aimed to address various aspects of the energy usage industry and it's consumption.
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Answer:
Select the TRUE statement about the Energy Policy Act of 1992.
Required the federal government to list stationary or mobile source pollutants that could endanger public health
Required the federal government to assess the environmental impacts of any government action or project
Established a reserve of oil in the United States in order to prevent gasoline shortages
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
Explanation:
Answer:
To set goals for greenhouse gas reductions and provided funding for research in alternative fuels
This image best represents which level of biological organization?
OA. Body system
OB. Organ
O C. Cell
OD. Tissue
The correct option D. Tissue, this illustration exemplifies this degree of biological organization the finest.
Define the term tissue and its features?A collection of cells with similar structures and functions is referred to as a tissue.
The intercellular matrix, a nonliving substance, fills the spaces here between cells. There might be a lot of this in specific tissues and little in others.A particular tissue may have special components in its intercellular matrix, such as fibers and salts, that are specific to that tissue and give it specialized properties. The body is made up of four different types of tissue: epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous. Each has a purpose for which it was created.The body's tissues give it form and aid in energy storage and heat retention.
Connective tissue, epithelial, muscle tissue, andnervous tissue are the four different types of tissues.Thus, this illustration exemplifies this degree of biological organization the finest is "tissue".
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looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above, which of the following is a true statement?
Looking at the character table and phylogenetic tree above this is the statement, a backbone is a shared ancestral character in mammals (leopard).
phylogeny can be defined as the evolutionary history of a species or group of species and a phylogenetic tree will give an idea out the history and classification of an organism.
A character which is originated in an ancestor of the taxon, the shared character itself describes the relationship between the ancestor and the current generation, in the same way mammals share the backbone among themselves.
shared character means, they are excellent traits to use in developing a phylogeny and a phylogenetic tree from the ancestors
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You read about soapberry bugs and select the correct statement describing relative fitness in these individuals.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness feeds more successfully on fruits than do other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has more mates than other bugs.
A soapberry bug with high relative fitness has a relatively high number of offspring that survive to reproductive age.
Relative fitness is defined as the reproductive success of an organism within a population.
The survival of the fittest genotype or phenotype in the population.
survival of the fittest concept is given by the Darwin, where various examples are given to explain how the fittest and most adaptative organism survives it all and increase its population.
The soapberry bugs being the fittest, will be dominant on the rest of the population and will be produce high number of offsprings.
Relative fitness is used to calculate the change in genotype frequency is of a particular genotype.
The genotype of the fittest will always be 1.
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Define: A phase change is a change from one state to another, such as from a liquid to a gas. Based on what you have read in the Gizmo, fill in the blanks with the words “liquid,” “gas,” or “solid” to define each change.
Based on what you have read in the Gizmo, the fill up of the blanks with the words “liquid,” “gas,” or “solid” are:
Melting is a change from a solid to a liquid.Freezing is a change from a liquid to a solid.Vaporization is a change from a liquid to a gas.Condensation is a change from a gas to a liquid.Sublimation is a change from a solid to a gas.Deposition is a change from a gas to a solid.What is the Gizmo about?Melting is the process of converting a solid into a liquid by increasing its temperature. As the temperature of a solid increases, its particles gain energy and begin to move more quickly.
Eventually, at a certain temperature known as the melting point, the particles have enough energy to overcome the forces holding them together and the solid becomes a liquid.
Note that Freezing is the opposite process of melting, it is the process of converting a liquid into a solid by decreasing its temperature. As the temperature of a liquid decreases, its particles lose energy and begin to move more slowly. Eventually, at a certain temperature known as the freezing point, the particles have lost enough energy to overcome the forces holding them apart and the liquid becomes a solid.
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if no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?
Option E is correct: 1, 2, 3, and 4 will all expand. Because the plasmid conferred ampicillin resistance and allowed the bacteria to utilize lactose.
The presence of a functional +lac gene on the plasmid was irrelevant because glucose was present in all cases, hence lactose was not exploited as a tool of selection. In this experiment, only ampicillin resistance was used as a mechanism of selection, which is why #5 and #6 were susceptible.
There are no significant effects on final protein function or final characteristic. This, in turn, has neither negative or good consequences for the organism's general well-being or survival.
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Full Question ;
If no new mutations occur, it would be most reasonable to expect bacterial growth on which of the following plates?
1. 4 and 6 only
2. 4, 5 and 6 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 2 only
5. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
the first organisms to grow on the rock are . these organisms are known as species because they are the first to colonize the area, breaking down rock to form .
The first organisms to grow on the rock are pioneer species. These organisms are known as pioneer species because they are the first to colonize the area, breaking down rock to form nutrients.
Pioneer species are the first organisms to grow on a rock, forming the basis for all subsequent life.
These species are adapted to the harsh environment of the rock and are able to break down the rock to release nutrients.
This process, known as weathering, allows other organisms to colonize the area and form a more diverse ecosystem. Pioneer species are essential for the success of any new environment, providing the necessary nutrients for other organisms to thrive.
Without these species, life on a rock would be impossible.
The presence of pioneer species is essential for the flourishing of any ecosystem, as they are the first to lay the groundwork for the establishment of a healthy environment.
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what are some bone markings of the human arm?
The trochlear notch on the ulna, radial notch on the ulna, suprasternal notch, and mandibular notch are all examples.
What is bone marking?Bone markings are projections and depressions found on bones that aid in locating other body structures such as muscles. Their significance arises when we attempt to describe the shape of the bone or comprehend how muscles, ligaments, and other structures influence this bone and vice versa.
Bone markings are very important because they allow for the identification of bones and bony pieces, the formation of joints, the sliding of bones past each other, the locking of bones in place, and the attachment of muscle and connective tissues to provide structural support.
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Turtles are not shown on this tree. Turtles are evolutionarily more closely related to lizards than they are to frogs.
Select the phylogenetic tree that best represents the position of turtles relative to the other taxa shown.
As turtle more closely related to lizard it will have most recent common ancestor with lizard, chimps and humans and hence it will form monophyletic group with them. So, Pic 4 is correct.
A taxonomy is a system of categorization, particularly one that is hierarchical and divides objects into categories or types. A taxonomy can be used, among other things, to index and organise knowledge, such as in the form of a search engine taxonomy or a library categorization system, so that users can more quickly discover the material they're looking for. Although not all taxonomies are hierarchies, many are.
As members of the Testudines order of reptiles, turtles are distinguished by a distinctive shell that was mostly constructed from their ribs. The two main subgroups of modern turtles, the Pleurodira and Cryptodira, are distinguished by the manner in which the head retracts.
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elastic potential energy lab: the jump-up toy(75 pts)objective:students will work with different scenarios that each have to do with the jump-up toy. they will use their knowledge of conservation of energy to solve for each scenario
The objective of this lab is for students to apply their understanding of conservation of energy to different scenarios involving a jump-up toy.
A jump-up toy is a small, spring-loaded device that can be pressed down and released, causing it to jump up. The students will work through different scenarios that involve this toy, using their knowledge of conservation of energy to solve for each one. This lab is designed to help students understand the concept of potential energy and how it can be transformed into kinetic energy through the use of the jump-up toy. The lab will also help students understand how to apply the conservation of energy principle to real-world situations.
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FILL IN THE BLANK During , _______ _______ an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the ____________ produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.
An organism emits operant behaviour based on its genetic endowment during operant conditioning. The operant produces an effect which increases or decreases the frequency of responses in given situations.
Operant conditioning is a study of the reversible behaviour of reinforcement schedules. It studies different behaviours and the consequences of those behaviours.
The four types of operant conditioning include positive and negative reinforcements and positive and negative punishments. It also indicates the possibility of repetition of behaviours with positive consequences, while those with negative consequences are not much repeated.
An operant is an object that operates according to the environment.
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During ,operant conditioning an organism emits operant behavior based upon its genetic endowment; the operant produces and effect that increases or decreases the frequency of the response in a given situation.
During operant conditioning, an organism produces operant behavior depending on its genetic endowment. The operant generates a result that alters the frequency of reactions in particular circumstances.
Studying the reversible behavior of reinforcement schedules is known as operant conditioning. It investigates various behaviours as well as their effects.
Positive and negative reinforcements as well as positive and negative punishments are two of the four forms of operant conditioning. Additionally, it shows that behaviours with favorable outcomes are more likely to be repeated whereas those with unfavorable outcomes are less likely. An operant is a thing that responds to its surroundings in order to function.
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suggest how each of the following adaptations would enable the named plant to survive in very dry conditions.
The correct answer is Ammophila. Marram lawn has a rolled splint that creates a localized terrain of water vapor attention within the splint and helps to help water loss.
The stomata – the openings through which water vapor moves out of shops are sunk in recesses within the ringlets so they can hang on to as important H20 as possible. Unexpectedly, Marram Grass isn't particularly swab tolerant – but can manage with utmost deepwater conditions.
Ammophila is a beach meadow that holds this natural hedge together and also helps too important beaches from being washed into the ocean, which causes littoral corrosion. Unfortunately, sand meadows can be damaged fluently when people walk on them, which is why beachgoers see numerous “ Stay off the stacks ” signs.
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Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following EXCEPT:
Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following except sodium metabisulfite test
Hb electrophoresis is a blood test performed to check the types of hemoglobin in the blood. The purpose of Hb electrophoresis is to diagnose hemoglobin disorders. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that functions to transport oxygen to all organs and tissues of the body. This blood test is done by taking a blood sample and then analyzing it in the laboratory.
The sodium metabisulfite test is used to determine the content of sodium metabisulfite in the blood. Sodium metabisulfite is an inorganic food preservative and water-soluble anti-oxidant for food to inhibit browning reactions. These preservatives can cause digestive problems, such as diarrhea, stomach cramps, nausea, and skin allergies. .
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7. Which statement BEST explains why enzymes bind to
specific substrates?
A. An enzyme can be inhibited so its active site is
altered.
B. An enzyme folds differently in the presence of
different substrates.
c. Different amino acid sequences cause variations in
the shapes of an enzyme's active sites.
D. Enzyme-substrate binding is based on size so only
large enzymes can bind to large substrates.
An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.
Why do enzymes bind to specific substrates?An enzyme-substrate complex is formed by the enzyme and the substrate.A protein molecule known as an enzyme serves as a catalyst in biological processes.It accomplishes this by operating on a substrate unique to its form.The enzyme-substrate complex is created when the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.The product then separates from the enzyme molecule, signaling the end of the process.After that, the enzyme is free to interact with new substrate molecules. Having an active site that only permits specific substrates to bind to it, enzymes are specific to the substrates they bind to.The active site's design prevents other substrates from attaching to it, which is why this occurs.The shape of the enzyme modifies somewhat as substrate molecules bind to its active site.To learn more about enzymes refer
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Which feature is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor? a. The genetic code b. The machinery of replication and protein synthesis c. Basic metabolic reactions d. The use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins e. All of the above
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The feature that is universal among organisms, thus implying that all living things derive from a common ancestor, is The genetic code (Option A)
The genetic code is the set of rules by which DNA and RNA translate into the amino acid sequences of proteins. This code is universal, meaning that the same sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA will always code for the same amino acid sequence in a protein, regardless of the organism in which it is found. This universality is strong evidence for a common ancestor from which all living things have evolved.
The machinery of replication and protein synthesis, basic metabolic reactions, and the use of L optical isomers of amino acids as building blocks for proteins also support the idea of a common ancestor but are not as strong evidence as the genetic code.
beaker #1 has 93% water contains a cell with 93% water
beaker #2 has 91% water conatins a cell with 80% water
beaker #3 has 92% water contains cell with 99%water
Beaker #4 has 95% water and a cell with 90% water
Which cell would shrink in this example?
The cell that would shrink will be the one in beaker #3. Option 3.
What is water potential?The water potential of a system is the potential energy possessed by the water in the system per unit volume relative to that of pure water in reference conditions.
Water molecules usually move from the region of high to the region of low water potential through a semi-permeable membrane.
In other words, only in beaker #3 will the cell shrinks.
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List the populations that are affected by ultraviolet light and identify the effects on each of these populations.
The population affected most by ultraviolet light are the people with light skin. People with light skin have little to no melanin which protect the skin against the effects of ultraviolet light against the skin. Most people with light skin use sunscreen and sun protect creams.
Effects of Ultraviolet light on Light skin.SunburnUltraviolet light causes sunburn. Sunburn is like a patch on the skin which is discoloured and a bit darker than the normal skin color.
Skin CancerUltraviolet ray causes skin cancer. Both basal cell and squamous cell cancers are mostly found in patients that have exposed their skins to the ultraviolet light.
Aging.Ultraviolet light causes changes in DNA which can lead to premature aging.
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what form of energy transformed the way humans survive
Heat energy transformed the way humans survive. It is also known as thermal energy.
What is heat energy?The movement of minuscule atoms, molecules, or ions in solids, liquids, and gases produces heat energy. From one thing to another, heat energy can be exchanged. Heat is the flow or transfer that occurs as a result of the temperature differential between two objects.
At a thermal power plant, heat is converted into electricity, which powers our daily activities. The measurement of how hot or cold something is is called its temperature.
Thus, Heat energy transformed the way humans survive.
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Natural selection results in change over time by acting on traits that are
Natural selection results in change over time by acting on traits that are advantageous adaptive traits.
What are advantageous adaptive traits?Advantageous adaptive traits are nay phenotypic features that can be selected in a differential enviroment and show an enhanced ability for the organism to reproduce and or survive.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that advantageous adaptive traits are that they are advantageous to the organism in some way such as for example, a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment may be considered advantageous in these conditions.
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what does it mean for a gene to be turned off or not expressed
Answer:
gene regulation
Explanation:
each cell expresses only a fraction of it's genes.expresses or turns on means that protein is being produced from that gene.the rest of the genes are turned off or repressed meaning that no protein is being produced from those genes.
sort the subatomic particles according to their masses. drag each subatomic particles into the correct bin
MASS OF ~1 AMU: neutron, proton
MASS OF ~1/2000 AMU: electron
These particles are frequently referred to as subatomic particles since they are the building blocks of atoms. There are protons, neutrons, and electrons, three types of subatomic particles.
With a mass of 1.0087 amu, the neutron is the heaviest subatomic particle while the proton has a mass of 1.0073 amu. The mass of an electron is 0.00055 amu, as is that of a positron.
smallest known subatomic electrically charged particle. The fundamental charge of electricity is a negative charge carried by electrons. In comparison to other subatomic particles, an electron has an extremely little mass.
Subatomic particles include the heavier constituents of the atom's small but incredibly dense nucleus as well as electrons, the negatively charged, nearly massless particles that nonetheless make up the majority of the atom's size.
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ppplleaseee answerrr
Answer:
The answer is B!
Explanation:
The autonomic nervous system, also called the visceral efferent nervous system, supplies motor impulses to cardiac muscle, to smooth muscle, and to glandular epithelium.