Answer:
your answer is: A hope this helps
Explanation:
4) after experimenting with the effects of ph on enzymes, would you suspect that the human body maintains a constant blood ph? why or why not? what would be the adaptive advantage of this?
After experimenting with the effects of pH on enzymes, it can be suspected that the human body maintains a constant blood pH. This is because enzymes in the human body work best at a specific pH range, and any change in pH can denature the enzymes and hinder their functionality. Thus, the human body has an adaptive advantage by regulating the pH of blood.
The pH of blood in the human body is typically maintained at a slightly basic pH range of 7.35-7.45. This is accomplished through the regulation of hydrogen ion concentration in the blood, which is primarily managed by the lungs and kidneys. The lungs regulate carbon dioxide levels, which can affect blood pH, by controlling the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled. The kidneys excrete excess hydrogen ions in urine and reabsorb bicarbonate ions, which can help buffer blood pH.
Maintaining a constant blood pH is crucial for several reasons. Firstly, enzymes in the human body work best at a specific pH range. Any change in pH can denature the enzymes and hinder their functionality. Secondly, changes in blood pH can also affect the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin, which can lead to impaired gas exchange in the lungs. Finally, maintaining a constant blood pH is important for maintaining cellular function and preventing tissue damage.
In summary, the human body maintains a constant blood pH due to the need for enzymes to function optimally, the importance of gas exchange in the lungs, and the need to prevent tissue damage. This is accomplished through the regulation of hydrogen ion concentration in the blood, which is primarily managed by the lungs and kidneys.
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which muscle group controls the knee from the end of the loading response to midstance (i.e. from 15 degrees of flexion to 0 degrees of flexion)?
The muscle group that controls the knee from the end of the loading response to midstance (i.e., from 15 degrees of flexion to 0 degrees of flexion) is the quadriceps muscle group. They are responsible for extending the knee joint and straightening the leg.
Anatomically, the quadriceps femoris consists of four different muscles: the rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus medialis, and vastus lateralis. Together, these four muscles form the large muscle mass that extends from the hip to the knee joint.
The quadriceps muscle group is important for activities like walking, running, jumping, and squatting. During the loading response to the midstance phase of gait, the quadriceps work to control the knee joint as the leg absorbs impact forces and transitions from a bent to a straight position.
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After duplication, at what point does a cell become two cells with identical DNA?
starting in prophase
end of anaphase
end of cytokinesis
it is at the end of cytokinesis that a cell becomes two cells with identical DNA. During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm and other cell contents are divided between the two daughter cells, and each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes that are identical to the parent cell.
What is DNA?
DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, which is a molecule that carries the genetic instructions used in the growth, development, functioning, and reproduction of all living organisms. DNA is a long, double-stranded helix structure made up of four building blocks called nucleotides, which are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T).
The process of cell duplication or cell division involves several stages, including interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis. During mitosis, the cell undergoes a series of sub-stages, including prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane breaks down. The chromosomes then attach to spindle fibers at the centromere region.
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Coral skeletal structures are built out of calcium carbonate, also known as __________.
Answer:
limestone
Explanation:
.
Coral skeletal structures are built out of calcium carbonate, also known as calcite. Calcium carbonate is a naturally occurring mineral that has various forms like calcite, aragonite, and vaterite.
It is a crystalline solid with no taste or odor, and its unique properties like high melting point, hardness, and water absorption make it useful in various industrial and commercial applications.
Calcium carbonate is abundant in the Earth's crust, found in rocks, limestone, and marble, as well as in the shells of marine creatures such as mollusks and crabs, and coral skeletal structures.
This versatile substance has many uses, including industrial applications like water treatment, cement production, and papermaking, as well as nutritional supplements, ceramics, plastics, and paint production.
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explain in general how paracrine factors outside the cell can elicit changes in gene expression inside a cell. provide an example of a specific pathway and how it works
Paracrine factors outside the cell can cause changes in gene expression inside the cell by regulating transcription factors, which in turn regulate transcription of genes.
Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA with the template of the genes contained in the DNA strand that occurs in the nucleus.
Here are examples of paracrine factors outside the cell that can cause changes in gene expression. An example of a specific pathway is the NF-κB signaling pathway. NF-κB is activated by paracrine factors that bind to a receptor and form a complex with an IκB protein, which is then phosphorylated by an IκB kinase, causing IκB to be released and allowing NF-κB to translocate to the nucleus and bind to the promoters of genes that regulate inflammation and cell growth.
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in addition to the important roles of natural variability and natural selection in the process of evolution, it is also important that
In addition to the important roles of natural variability and natural selection in the process of evolution, it is also important that genetic drift plays a role.
There are several factors involved in the process of evolution, and natural variability and natural selection are two of the most important. Natural variability refers to the fact that no two individuals within a species are exactly alike, and this variation can give some individuals a survival advantage over others. Natural selection then works to increase the frequency of advantageous traits within a population over time.
However, there is another factor that plays a role in the process of evolution, and that is genetic drift.
Genetic drift refers to the random changes in gene frequency that can occur within a population due to chance events. This can have significant effects on the genetic makeup of a population over time, and can even lead to the creation of new species.In addition to these factors, other important factors that can contribute to the process of evolution include gene flow, mutation, and non-random mating. All of these factors can influence the genetic makeup of a population over time, leading to the creation of new species or the extinction of existing ones.
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what structures appear most distinct between the chimpanzee skeleton, the ancient hominid skeleton and the human skeleton? how do their skeletal structures correspond to the way they moved around?
Answer:
around their waist
which term does not belong in this group? group of answer choices experiential nurture hereditary environmental
Answer:
hereditary
Explanation:
which of the following events in a cell would require atp? a.splitting a lipid molecule into smaller parts b.breaking a carbohydrate into individual sugar subunits c.passive movement of molecules through the cell membrane d.linking together amino acids to form a protein
D. Linking together amino acids to form a protein would require ATP.
ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, is the primary energy currency in cells. It is produced during cellular respiration and provides energy for cellular processes that require energy.
What is ATP?
ATP stands for adenosine triphosphate, which is a molecule that serves as the primary energy source for many cellular processes.
When ATP is hydrolyzed, or broken down, by the enzyme ATPase, it releases energy that can be used by cells to power various processes. This hydrolysis reaction breaks the bond between the second and third phosphate groups in ATP, releasing a phosphate group and forming adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
Linking together amino acids to form a protein requires energy, which is provided by ATP. This process is called protein synthesis or translation, and it occurs on ribosomes in the cell. ATP is needed to supply the energy required for the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins.
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What 2 things does the North Star tell us about our location? 9th grade integrated science
how closely related two dna molecules, and the organisms from which they came, are is measured through
Answer: The level of similarity between two DNA molecules and the organisms they come from can be measured through DNA sequencing.
What is DNA sequencing?
The process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule is known as DNA sequencing. This procedure aids in the comprehension of genetic data, the diagnosis of disorders resulting from genetic mutations, and the development of effective therapies.
Sanger sequencing and next-generation sequencing (NGS) are the two most common forms of DNA sequencing. The former is also known as "first-generation sequencing," while the latter is known as "second-generation sequencing".
DNA sequencing is used in a variety of applications, including the following:
Sequencing the entire genome of an organism
Finding variations in DNA that may cause illness or affect response to medication
Identifying viruses and bacteria to diagnose infections
Forensic analysis to identify suspects in criminal cases
DNA sequencing may be used to detect genetic mutations that cause a variety of illnesses. This is often done in conjunction with genetic counselling.
DNA sequencing can detect even small genetic variations in the sequence, allowing for the identification of diseases that are caused by genetic mutations.
The primary purpose of DNA sequencing is to figure out the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule. DNA sequencing enables scientists to find the differences and similarities in the DNA of two individuals or organisms, allowing them to learn about the organisms' evolutionary history and ancestry.
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describe the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum including any membrane protiens that are important in its function.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum functions in the regulation of intracellular calcium concentration.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an important component of muscle cells. It is a specialized type of endoplasmic reticulum that functions in the regulation of intracellular calcium concentration. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a network of flattened sacs that encircle each myofibril. The sarcoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in regulating calcium ion concentration within the cytoplasm of muscle cells.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum contains a variety of membrane proteins that are involved in the uptake and release of calcium ions. For example, there are calcium ion channels within the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane that allow calcium ions to be transported from the cytoplasm into the interior of the organelle. Additionally, there are calcium ion pumps that use energy to move calcium ions from the cytoplasm into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum also contains proteins that help to maintain the structural integrity of the organelle. For example, there are integral membrane proteins that help to anchor the sarcoplasmic reticulum to other structures within the muscle cell.
Overall, the sarcoplasmic reticulum plays an essential role in regulating intracellular calcium ion concentration and is important for muscle function. The membrane proteins within the sarcoplasmic reticulum are crucial for its function, allowing for the uptake and release of calcium ions and maintaining the integrity of the organelle.
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why are trees found in areas of high precipitation rather than grasses? why are grasses found in drier areas?
Trees require more moisture than grasses, which is why they are found in areas of high precipitation rather than grasses. Trees are better at storing and utilizing water than grasses, so they can survive in areas with more water. Additionally, trees are able to access water deeper in the soil, allowing them to survive longer periods of drought.
Grasses, on the other hand, can survive in drier areas due to their shallow root systems. Grasses also have specialized leaves that are designed to reduce water loss, and their waxy cuticles help keep moisture in. This allows them to survive in arid environments.
In conclusion, trees require more moisture than grasses, making them better suited to areas of high precipitation, while grasses are adapted to drier climates.
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which enzyme in the photosynthetic z scheme catalyzes the pq cycle, which is analogous to complex iii and the q cycle in the mitochondrial electron transport chain?
The enzyme that catalyzes the PQ cycle in the photosynthetic Z scheme is known as the Cytochrome b₆f complex.
The PQ cycle is analogous to Complex III and the Q cycle in the mitochondrial electron transport chain. The Cytochrome b₆f complex is composed of two cytochromes, b6 and f, along with a few other cofactors.
Cytochrome b6 is a membrane-bound protein, while cytochrome f is a soluble protein. The b6f complex acts as an electron transporter, carrying electrons from plastoquinol to plastocyanin. The electrons that pass through the complex are utilized in the PQ cycle, which is responsible for the production of two molecules of ATP per electron.
So, the enzyme in the photosynthetic z scheme which is responsible for catalyzing the PQ cycle, and is analogous to complex iii and the Q cycle in the mitochondrial electron transport chain is the Cytochrome b₆f complex.
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middle portion of the small intestine that extends from the duodenum to the ileum.___
The middle portion of the small intestine that extends from the duodenum to the ileum is called the jejunum.
It is approximately 2.5 meters long and is located in the central part of the abdomen, between the duodenum and the ileum. The jejunum is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption in the small intestine, as it contains a large surface area for absorption due to its circular folds and finger-like projections called villi.
The villi contain microvilli, which further increase the surface area for absorption. The jejunum receives partially digested food from the stomach and continues the process of digestion and absorption before passing the remaining waste to the ileum.
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when doing a test cross for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing offspring with a homozygous recessive phenotype?
The probability of producing offspring with a homozygous recessive phenotype when doing a test cross for a single trait with a heterozygote is 50%. A test cross is the cross between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual with a homozygous recessive genotype for a particular trait. A test cross is done to determine the genotype of the unknown individual.
In this case, we are doing a test cross for a single trait with a heterozygote. A heterozygous individual has two different alleles for a gene. When the heterozygote is crossed with a homozygous recessive, the probability of producing offspring with a homozygous recessive phenotype is 50%. This is because the heterozygous parent has a 50% chance of passing the recessive allele to its offspring.
In other words, if we represent the dominant allele as A and the recessive allele as a, the heterozygous parent's genotype would be Aa. The homozygous recessive parent's genotype would be aa. The Punnett square for this cross would look like this:A a a aa aa aa a a a aThe offspring will be Aa and aa. Half of the offspring will have a homozygous recessive phenotype.
Hence, the chance of producing offspring with a homozygous recessive phenotype when doing a test cross for a single trait with a heterozygote is 50%.
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How do I do this????????
According to the phenotypes of the pink-hued individuals and their father, their mother's genotype could be XAXA and XAXa.
Reasonable choices are XAXA and XAXa since:As you an see from the pedigree, the female offspring are heterozygous. This indicates that just one of their two X chromosomes is impacted.The mother and father are always the source of one of a female's two X chromosomes, whereas the other is always from the other.Daughters will always inherit an afflicted X chromosome from their father because of the X-linked condition in which he is affected.Their second X chromosomes would be impacted as well, and they would exhibit phenotypical traits if the mother had the condition.For more information on X linked disease kindly visit to
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5) Students were asked to relate the rock cycle to dinosaur fossil formation. Which
flowchart best represents the process that formed the dinosaur fossils in Mississippi?
(A) Compaction and cementation of sedimentary rock occurs. Dinosaur remains are
deposited in sediments.
(B) Dinosaur remains are deposited in sediments.
Compaction and cementation of
sedimentary rock occurs.
(C) Heat and pressure convert metamorphic rock to sedimentary rock. Dinosaur
remains are deposited in metamorphic rock.
(D) Dinosaur remains are deposited in metamorphic rock. Heat and pressure convert
metamorphic rock to sedimentary rock.
The flowchart in (B) "Dinosaur remains are deposited in sediments" best illustrates the formation of the dinosaur fossils in Mississippi. Rock made of silt is compacted and cemented.
How are fossilised dinosaurs created?The most typical form of fossilisation takes place soon after an animal dies when it is buried under sediment, like sand or silt. Sedimentary deposits shield its bones from decaying.
What type of granite is home to dinosaur fossils?Sedimentary sediments contain fossils that can be used as a guide to the history of life on Earth. Limestone: Without boulders like me, you people would know so little. After all, sedimentary rocks contain remains of extinct creatures like dinosaurs and woolly mammoths.
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vii. explain how a single neurotransmitter can elicit different responses at different postsynaptic cells.
The neurotransmitter released by a neuron can elicit different responses at different postsynaptic cells due to different receptor proteins on the postsynaptic cell.
The receptors on the postsynaptic cell are activated by different neurotransmitters, which then cause the cell to produce different responses. For example, some receptors on the postsynaptic cell might activate certain ion channels that cause an influx of calcium ions, while others might cause an influx of sodium ions or other substances.
These different responses can be triggered by different concentrations of the same neurotransmitter, depending on the receptor proteins present on the postsynaptic cell.
Furthermore, postsynaptic cells can also have different expression levels of receptors, which can lead to different responses to the same neurotransmitter. Therefore, a single neurotransmitter can produce different responses at different postsynaptic cells depending on the types of receptors present on the cell.
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which of the following organisms have at least some members that are autotrophic? group of answer choices bacteria plant animal protist all of the above
The following organisms have at least some members that are autotrophic is e. All of the above organisms
Autotrophs are organisms capable of producing their own food (energy) through photosynthesis and chemosynthesis. These organisms convert inorganic materials into organic ones with the help of energy in the form of either solar or chemical energy. Examples of autotrophic organisms are bacteria, plants, animals and protists
Bacteria use chemosynthesis to convert chemical energy from substances in their environment into organic material. Plants use photosynthesis to convert sunlight into energy. Animals can be autotrophic, as some species use chemosynthesis and photosynthesis for energy. Lastly, some protists use photosynthesis for energy. So the answer is that all of the above organisms have at least some members that are autotrophic.
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which electron microscope technique below is used to image the surfaces of objects ranging in size from a virus to an animals head
The electron microscope technique used to image the surfaces of objects ranging in size from a virus to an animal's head is scanning electron microscopy (SEM).
Electron microscopy is a technique for imaging specimens utilizing a beam of electrons instead of visible light.
Electron microscopes can achieve much higher magnification and resolution than conventional optical microscopes because they utilize electrons instead of light.
The Scanning electron microscope (SEM) is one of the most commonly utilized types of an electron microscope. SEM is a method of imaging the surfaces of specimens utilizing an electron beam, and it is well-suited for examining a wide range of samples, from single cells ,viruses to an animal's head
It is used to study samples in a variety of scientific fields, including biology, chemistry, and physics, among others.
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which of the following would not result in an increase in arterial blood pressure? group of answer choices increased blood volume increased sympathetic stimulation increased heart rate increased stroke volume increased arteriolar vasodilation
Increased arteriolar vasodilation would not result in an increase in arterial blood pressure. Vasodilation is the widening of the blood vessels, which decreases the resistance to blood flow and thus decreases arterial blood pressure. Therefore, option E, increased arteriolar vasodilation would not result in an increase in arterial blood pressure.
Increased blood volume, sympathetic stimulation, heart rate, and stroke volume all lead to an increase in arterial blood pressure by increasing cardiac output and/or resistance to blood flow. To elaborate further, an increase in blood volume increases the pressure within the cardiovascular system, while increased sympathetic stimulation increases the contractility of the heart, leading to higher cardiac output. Increased heart rate and stroke volume also lead to higher cardiac output. Conversely, vasodilation causes the opposite effect - reducing the pressure within the cardiovascular system by decreasing the resistance to blood flow.
Increased arteriolar vasodilation would not result in an increase in arterial blood pressure. Arteriolar vasodilation refers to the relaxation or widening of the arterioles, which are the small blood vessels that connect arteries and capillaries. When the arterioles dilate, they allow more blood to flow through them, which results in a decrease in blood pressure. As a result, increased arteriolar vasodilation would not result in an increase in arterial blood pressure.
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which sequence of metabolic paths could a carbon atom take to go from a molecule of glucose to a molecule of dna?
The conversion of glucose to DNA involves several metabolic pathways. A carbon atom from a molecule of glucose can take the metabolic pathways of glycolysis, pyruvate dehydrogenase, the citric acid cycle, aconitase, and thymidine synthetase to reach a molecule of DNA.
A carbon atom from a molecule of glucose can take a few different metabolic pathways to reach a molecule of DNA. First, it would have to be converted to pyruvate, a three-carbon molecule, by glycolysis. This would then be converted to Acetyl-CoA by the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase. Acetyl-CoA then enters the citric acid cycle, in which it combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate, a six-carbon molecule. Finally, citrate is converted to a five-carbon molecule, alpha-ketoglutarate, by the enzyme aconitase. Alpha-ketoglutarate is then converted to the four-carbon molecule succinyl-CoA, which is then converted to a molecule of DNA by the enzyme thymidine synthetase.
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10. according to the passage, which of the following is not a correct statement about malaria? a. malaria may infect sporozoites. b. malaria may cause death. c. malaria is not spread through human-human contact. d. malaria infects both humans and mosquitoes. e. malaria is caused by a parasite.
The question asks which of the following is not a correct statement about malaria "malaria is not spread through human-human contact". So the answer is option C.
Malaria is caused by a parasitic protozoan, Plasmodium, and is transmitted between humans by the bite of an infected Anopheles mosquito. While human-to-human contact can be a source of Plasmodium infection, it is not the primary means of transmission. Mosquitoes are the primary vector of transmission, and they infect humans by biting them and introducing the parasite into their bloodstream. The other statements are all correct: malaria may infect sporozoites, which are the forms of Plasmodium that are transmitted by mosquitoes; malaria may cause death; and malaria infects both humans and mosquitoes.
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the epicardium is . group of answer choices also known as the parietal pericardium a layer of cardiac muscle the visceral pericardium lining the heart chambers
The epicardium is also known as the visceral pericardium. It is a layer of the heart that covers the outer surface and protects the heart muscle.
The heart and the roots of the great arteries are contained within the pericardium, also known as the pericardial sac. It consists of two layers: a serous membrane-covered interior layer and a fibrous pericardium-covered outer layer. (serous pericardium). It outlines the middle mediastinum and encloses the pericardial cavity, which is filled with pericardial fluid. It keeps the heart free from interference from other organs, shields it from illness and trauma, and lubricates the beats of the heart.
A robust fibroelastic sac called the pericardium surrounds the heart on all sides, with the exception of the bottom and the cardiac root, where the great vessels connect the heart. (where only the serous pericardium exists to cover the upper surface of the central tendon of diaphragm). While the serous pericardium is quite flexible, the fibrous pericardium is somewhat stiff. The epicardium, a continuous serous membrane invaginated onto itself as two opposite surfaces, is a covering for the heart made of the same mesothelium that makes up the serous pericardium. (over the fibrous pericardium and over the heart).
As a result, a pouch-like potential area known as the pericardial space or pericardial cavity is created around the heart, sandwiched between the two opposing serosal surfaces.
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Which of the following marrow elements provides the microenvironment for proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic cells?A. White pulpB. Germinal centersC. Yellow marrowD. Red marrow
The marrow elements that provides the microenvironment for proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic cells is Red marrow. The correct answer is D.
Red marrow is a soft, spongy tissue found primarily in the bone cavities of the axial skeleton and long bones. It is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets through a process called haematopoiesis.
Hematopoietic stem cells, which are responsible for producing all blood cell types, are found in the red marrow along with a variety of other cell types that contribute to the microenvironment necessary for haematopoiesis.
This includes stromal cells, which provide support and nourishment to the developing blood cells, as well as cytokines and other signaling molecules that regulate the process of proliferation and differentiation.
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Correct Translation/Transcription
DNA Strand: TAC CAT ACT
mRNA Strand: AUG GUA UGA
Identify the following as an insertion, deletion, or substitution
DNA TAC CAT ACT
mRNA AUG UUA GGA
The mRNA Strand provided (AUG GUA UGA) is not a correct transcription of the given DNA Strand (TAC CAT ACT) as it contains an insertion (U) and a substitution (G for C).
What is insertion, deletion, or substitution in Translation/Transcription?Insertion, deletion, and substitution are types of genetic mutations that can occur during the process of DNA transcription and translation.
During transcription, the DNA molecule is used as a template to synthesize an mRNA molecule. If there is a mutation in the DNA sequence, it can result in a mutation in the mRNA sequence.
Insertion occurs when an extra nucleotide is inserted into the DNA sequence, causing a shift in the reading frame. This can result in an mRNA sequence with an extra codon, which may code for a different amino acid.
Deletion occurs when a nucleotide is deleted from the DNA sequence, causing a shift in the reading frame. This can result in an mRNA sequence with a missing codon, which may also code for a different amino acid.
Substitution occurs when one nucleotide is replaced by another in the DNA sequence. This can result in an mRNA sequence with a different codon, which may code for a different amino acid.
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How does the apparent brightness of a star differ from the star’s intrinsic luminosity? In your answer, describe how stellar distances are determined by comparing apparent brightness and intrinsic luminosity when astronomers use spectroscopic parallax and the Leavitt relation for variable stars.
The apparent brightness of a star is how bright it appears to us from Earth, while the intrinsic luminosity of a star is the total amount of energy it emits per second.
What is a star?A star is a massive, luminous object in space that generates energy through nuclear fusion reactions in its core. It is composed mainly of hydrogen and helium gas, with small amounts of other elements.
Astronomers use various methods to determine the distances to stars, including parallax measurements, spectroscopic parallax, and the Leavitt relation for variable stars.
Parallax measurements involve observing a star's position from two different points on Earth's orbit around the Sun, and measuring the apparent shift in the star's position relative to more distant stars. This allows astronomers to calculate the star's distance using trigonometry. However, this method is limited to relatively nearby stars.
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how is the protective group removed to allow the addition of nucleotides to the probe on the dna chip
The protective group is removed to allow the addition of nucleotides to the probe on the DNA chip by: a process called Deprotection.
This process typically involves the use of a chemical or enzymatic reagent, such as hydrogen bromide, hydrazine, or an acid. The specific reagent used will depend on the type of protective group and will result in the release of the nucleotide from the protective group and the formation of an activated nucleotide ready for use.
Once the protective group has been removed, the nucleotide can be added to the probe on the DNA chip, allowing for the successful detection of the target.
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Two plants growing beside one another try to access limited available
sunlight.
What ecological interaction describes the relationship between the two
plants?
Choose 1 answers
B
Competition
Mutualism
Herbivory
Commensalism
Answer:
Competition
Explanation:
They both need sunlight but it is limited so competition rises