with reference to the damage to doe and wick's motor vehicle, calculate who must pay whom and what would be the amount in damage

Answers

Answer 1

Jane Doe is liable for 23% of the total damages, while John Wick is liable for 33% of the total damages. Jane Doe must pay John Wick R75,950.00 in damages.

Calculate who must pay whom, and what would be the amount in damages?

Based on the given information, the calculation for damages and who must pay whom is as follows:

Calculate the percentage of negligence for each driver:

Jane Doe is 23% negligent

John Wick is 33% negligent

Calculate the total amount of damages for each vehicle:

Range Rover: R175,000.00

Porsche Cayenne: pre-accident value of R985,000.00 (VAT)  minus salvage value of R125,000.00, which equals R860,000.00 in damages

Calculate each driver's liability for damages:

Jane Doe is liable for 23% of the total damages, which is R201,500.00 [(R175,000.00 + R860,000.00) x 0.23]

John Wick is liable for 33% of the total damages, which is R277,450.00 [(R175,000.00 + R860,000.00) x 0.33]

Calculate the net amount that each driver must pay:

Jane Doe must pay John Wick R75,950.00 [R277,450.00 - R201,500.00]

Therefore, John Wick will receive R75,950.00 from Jane Doe.

Thus, Jane Doe must pay John Wick R75,950.00 in damages.

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The complete question is: Jane Doe purchased a Range Rover last week for R790 500 (VAT incl). While driving from the Dube Port area along the N2 Road in Durban, she collides with John Wick, who is the owner-driver of a Porshe Cayenne. Doe is 23% negligent, whereas Wick is 33% negligent. The damage to the Range Rover is estimated at R175 000.00. It is uneconomical to repair the Porsche, but its salvage value is R125 000.00. The pre-accident value of the Porsche was R985 000.00. With reference to the damages to Doe and Wick's motor vehicles, calculate who must pay whom, and what would be the amount in damages.


Related Questions

2001 terrorist attack ? 1. Why it was considered terror 2. The motives (reason) of the responsible group and the individual involved (who did it ). Date and nature of the attack
What group was behind the attack, or inspired the attack
A detailed description of the political, social or religious objectives that motivates the group
A detailed description of the group's leader and individuals that carried out the attack
Description as to how the attack unfolded

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The 2001 terrorist attack refers to the coordinated series of attacks carried out by the terrorist group al-Qaeda on September 11, 2001. The attacks involved four hijacked planes, two of which were flown into the World Trade Center towers in New York City, one into the Pentagon in Arlington, Virginia, and one crashed in a field in Pennsylvania after passengers attempted to retake control of the plane from the hijackers.

The attacks were considered terror because they were intended to cause mass destruction and fear among the population, with the aim of advancing the political and religious objectives of the group responsible.

The motives of the responsible group, al-Qaeda, were to strike a blow against the United States, whom they saw as an enemy of Islam, and to advance their ultimate goal of establishing a global caliphate under Sharia law.

The group's leader was Osama bin Laden, a Saudi Arabian extremist who had previously fought against the Soviet Union in Afghanistan during the 1980s. Bin Laden founded al-Qaeda in the late 1980s with the aim of waging a global jihad against non-Muslim powers, particularly the United States.

The individuals who carried out the attacks were primarily Saudi Arabian citizens who had been trained and indoctrinated by al-Qaeda. The hijackers were led by Mohamed Atta, an Egyptian national who had become radicalized while studying in Germany.

The attack was carried out in a coordinated manner, with the hijackers taking control of the planes using box cutters and other weapons, and then steering them towards their intended targets. The attack on the World Trade Center towers involved the use of passenger planes as missiles, causing both towers to collapse and resulting in the deaths of nearly 3,000 people. The attack on the Pentagon resulted in significant damage to the building, and the crash in Pennsylvania prevented the hijackers from reaching their intended target, believed to be either the White House or the U.S. Capitol building.

1. How did the First World War affect European imperialism?

Answers

The First World War had a significant impact on European imperialism. It weakened the economic and political power of European nations and led to a shift in global power towards the United States and the Soviet Union. It also marked the end of the European colonial empires with the rise of nationalist movements in colonized countries. The war resulted in a significant loss of life and resources for European countries, which hindered their ability to maintain their colonies. Moreover, the war created political instability and economic depression, which led to anti-colonial movements in colonized countries. As a result, many European powers gradually lost their grip on their empires, paving the way for decolonization movements in the 20th century.

Answer:

The First World War had a significant impact on European imperialism, leading to a shift in power and a weakening of colonial empires. The war contributed to the eventual decolonization of several colonies, and it marked the beginning of a new era in international relations.

Explanation:

The First World War had a significant impact on European imperialism, both in terms of its scope and its character. Here are some ways in which it affected European imperialism:

Economic costs: The First World War was incredibly costly, both in terms of human lives and economic resources. European powers had to spend enormous amounts of money on weapons, ammunition, and other military supplies, which weakened their economies. This economic burden made it difficult for European powers to maintain their imperialist policies, and many of them had to scale back their overseas activities.

Political changes: The war brought about significant political changes in Europe, as several empires collapsed, and new nations emerged. The Treaty of Versailles, which ended the war, forced Germany to give up its colonies and territories, which were then divided among the Allied powers. This led to a significant shift in the balance of power, and several European powers lost their colonial possessions.

Anti-colonial sentiment: The war also sparked anti-colonial sentiment among the colonized people, who saw the war as a struggle among imperial powers. The war created an opportunity for colonized people to organize and demand greater autonomy and independence. This sentiment grew stronger after the war and eventually led to several colonies gaining independence.

Rise of the United States: The First World War also marked the rise of the United States as a global power. The US emerged from the war as a major economic power and began to assert its influence on the world stage. This weakened the position of European powers, which had previously dominated world affairs.

Overall, the First World War had a significant impact on European imperialism, leading to a shift in power and a weakening of colonial empires. The war contributed to the eventual decolonization of several colonies, and it marked the beginning of a new era in international relations.

Today is February 23, 2022. Which guest could you legally sale/deliver alcohol to?

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In the majority of nations, a person must be at least 21 years old before they can purchase alcohol. Working Reversing the date "February 23, 2022," we get Monday, Friday, February 23, 2001 as the age requirement for the person to be served.

This is it: As long as a specific customer is on your property, pay attention to their actions. Severe slurring of speech, bloodshot eyes, an odd or unsteady walk, and noisy conduct are all indications of possible intoxication.

Driving licenses with photos, passports, military IDs, and proof of age cards with the PASS hologram are a few examples of approved identification, while other types of identity that satisfy the requirements outlined above are also accepted.

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which of the following is an accurate comparison of how the supreme court has applied the doctrine of selective incorporation? (4 points) before engel v. vitale (1962) after engel v. vitale (1962) (a) the establishment clause does not apply to the states. the establishment clause applies to the states. (b) the bill of rights does not apply to the states. the bill of rights applies to the states. (c) the establishment clause limits the actions of the state governments. the establishment clause limits the action of the federal government. (d) the bill of rights was written to protect citizens from the federal government. the bill of rights was written to protect citizens from state governments.

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The correct answer is (b): the bill of rights does not apply to the states. After Engel v. Vitale (1962), the bill of rights applies to the states.

Prior to Engel v. Vitale, the bill of rights did not apply to the states. The Fourteenth Amendment, which was passed in 1868, prohibits the states from violating the rights of individuals; however, the Supreme Court had not applied the provisions of the Bill of Rights to the states until 1962.

Engel v. Vitale (1962) was a landmark Supreme Court case that held that state-mandated prayer violated the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment. This case established the doctrine of selective incorporation, which applies the Bill of Rights to the states via the Fourteenth Amendment.  

The decision in Engel v. Vitale (1962) had a huge impact on the rights of individuals in the United States. By incorporating the Bill of Rights into state law, the Supreme Court was able to protect individuals from having their rights violated by state governments. This is an important protection for citizens of the United States, as state governments.

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In what ways might a person become a victim and need police assistance?

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robbery, kidnapping, assault, hate crime

What qualities make prisons a perfect recipe for violence? List at least four and discuss how each one helps to foster violence. (8) What are some management steps that can be taken? (2) What would you do to limit violence in a given institution?

Answers

The type of violence that happens most commonly in the prison system is physical violence. Another common form of violence that occurs here is se-xual assault.

What basic rules govern how inmates are handled?

Every prisoner must be treated with the decency and respect that come with their inherent value as persons. No national nor social origin, race, color, s-ex, language, religion, political opinions, other ideologies, property, birth, nor any other status may be used as grounds for discrimination.

What function do prisons serve in reducing crime?

By deterring both current and future criminals, incapacitating offenders and preventing them from committing the same crime again, or by rehabilitating prisoners into law-abiding citizens, imprisonment can be used as a tool to reduce the frequency of criminal activity.

Why is ending violence so important?

Exposure to violence can increase the risk of mental illness, sui-cidality, chronic illnesses like heart disease, diabetes, and cancer, infectious diseases like HIV, and social problems like crime and further violence. It can also increase the chance of smoking, drinking, and using drugs.

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9: when preparing to make a left turn from a two-way street, you should drive: close to the right hand side of the road. close to the center line. on the left of the center line.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:à gauche de la ligne centrale.

which statement concerning discrimination on the basis of race or ethnic identity in the united states is true?

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The true statement concerning discrimination on the basis of race or ethnic identity in the United States is that it still exists in various aspects of society, including education, employment, and criminal justice. The correct option is a)

In the education system, racial disparities persist in areas such as access to quality education, standardized test scores, and dropout rates. For example, minority students are more likely to attend underfunded schools, leading to limited access to essential resources and opportunities.

In the employment sector, racial discrimination can be observed through wage gaps, biased hiring practices, and limited opportunities for career advancement. Research has shown that minority applicants often face challenges in securing job interviews due to unconscious biases among employers.

The criminal justice system is also significantly affected by racial and ethnic discrimination. Statistics reveal that minorities, particularly African Americans and Hispanics, are disproportionately represented in the prison population, and they are more likely to receive harsher sentences for similar crimes compared to their white counterparts.

To address these issues, various policies and measures have been implemented, such as affirmative action programs, anti-discrimination laws, and diversity training.

However, there is still much work to be done to ensure equal opportunities and fair treatment for all individuals, regardless of their race or ethnic background.

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Complete Question

which statement concerning discrimination on the basis of race or ethnic identity in the united states is true?

a)  it still exists in various aspects of society, including education, employment, and criminal justice.

b) different groups have had different degrees of succeed in fighting the effects of discrimination.

c) Americans under 18 years are denied many basic rights granted to those who are older.

d) older people are better organized to protect their rights that younger people.

What has been one long-term result of the constitutional protection of free speech? A) fewwe cases involving minors, B) fewer laws limiting minority rights. ,C) a more accurate election, D) a more informed society​

Answers

Answer:

D) a more informed society is considered one long-term result of the constitutional protection of free speech. The First Amendment of the US Constitution guarantees the right to free speech, which has helped promote the exchange of ideas and opinions, and has allowed individuals to express their views and challenge the status quo without fear of retribution. This has led to a more diverse and informed society, where a wide range of viewpoints and opinions are expressed and debated, contributing to a more robust democracy.

When talking about an armed robbery case, a discussion about how explosives are made started. How can the discussion about explosives BEST be described in relation to the armed robbery case?

A.
relevant

B.
irrelevant

C.
interesting

D.
sophisticated

Answers

Answer:

Answer choice (B)

Explanation:

The discussion about explosives in relation to an armed robbery case can be considered as irrelevant unless there is evidence or suspicion that the perpetrator(s) used explosives in the commission of the crime. Otherwise, the discussion about explosives would not have any direct connection or relevance to the armed robbery case.

Your answer will be B

the best statement of the test applied in determining if a defendant was the proximate cause of the plaintiff's injuries is:

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The best statement of the test applied in determining if a defendant was the proximate cause of the plaintiff's injuries is:

"Proximate cause is established when the defendant's conduct was a substantial factor in causing the plaintiff's harm, and when the harm was a foreseeable consequence of the defendant's conduct."

This statement encapsulates the two main elements of proximate cause: causation and foreseeability. Causation requires that the defendant's actions were a substantial factor in causing the harm suffered by the plaintiff, while foreseeability requires that the harm suffered by the plaintiff was a foreseeable consequence of the defendant's conduct.

Together, these elements help to establish whether the defendant's conduct was the proximate cause of the plaintiff's injuries.

The best statement of the test applied in determining if a defendant was the proximate cause of the plaintiff's injuries is the "but-for" test. This test determines whether, "but for" the defendant's actions, the plaintiff's injuries would not have occurred.

The "but-for" test is a legal standard used to determine whether a defendant's actions caused the plaintiff's injuries. To satisfy the test, it must be established that, "but for" the defendant's actions, the plaintiff's injuries would not have occurred. In other words, the defendant's actions must be the direct, proximate cause of the plaintiff's injuries. This is often established by proving that the plaintiff's injuries were reasonably foreseeable to the defendant at the time of their actions. This standard must be met in order for a plaintiff to successfully recover damages from a defendant. Overall, the "but-for" test is an essential standard used to determine if a defendant is responsible for a plaintiff's injuries.

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several statutory excuses that an accused might use to gain an acquittal at trial appear in the texas penal code. some of these excuses, such as insanity and duress, place the burden on the defendant to not only raise the issue at trial but to establish the excuse by the preponderance of the evidence. these excuses are known as:

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The excuses found in the Texas Penal Code that require the defendant to prove their excuse by the preponderance of the evidence are known as affirmative defenses.

This means that the accused must prove their defense is true in order to gain an acquittal at trial. To meet this burden of proof, the accused must present evidence that supports their claim that they acted in accordance with the statutory excuse.

This evidence could include expert testimony, documentary evidence, or witness testimony. By presenting this evidence, the accused is attempting to show that it is more likely than not that the statutory excuse is true.

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Improper relationship between educator and student is ______

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Improper relationship between educator and student is unacceptable.

Improper relationship between educator and student is unacceptable. It is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for the educator. It can lead to disciplinary action by the school, suspension, and even termination of employment. It can also have legal implications and can lead to criminal charges being laid.

In addition, it can damage the reputation of the educator, the school, and the student. It is important for educators to maintain a professional relationship with their students and to be aware of the ethical implications of any relationship outside of the classroom.

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which term refers to the authority of a court to hear a case? a. precedent b. jurisdiction c. due process d. equal protection

Answers

Answer:

Jurisdiction

Explanation:

The term that refers to the authority of a court to hear a case is "jurisdiction."

Most criminal cases end in a plea bargain, not in a criminal trial. Express your views on plea bargaining. Discuss whether you believe that this system is
a good alternate to a trial where a jury would decide the fate of the defendant or whether you believe plea bargaining undermines the criminal justice
system.

Answers

Plea bargaining is a process in which a defendant agrees to plead guilty to a lesser charge or to a reduced sentence in exchange for a plea deal offered by the prosecution. This system is prevalent in the criminal justice systems of many countries, including the United States.

What is the fact about Plea bargaining ?

Proponents of plea bargaining argue that it can reduce the burden on courts and save taxpayers' money. It can also help to expedite the resolution of cases, reduce the risk of wrongful convictions, and provide closure to victims and their families.

Opponents of plea bargaining argue that it can incentivize prosecutors to seek convictions at any cost, even if it means coercing defendants into pleading guilty. It can also perpetuate systemic inequalities, as defendants who cannot afford to go to trial may feel compelled to accept a plea deal, even if they are innocent. Additionally, it can lead to disparities in sentencing, as plea deals may be offered more frequently to some defendants than others.

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households (c)
government (g)
formation(I)
residual item


name the method used ​

Answers

Answer:

Expenditure approach to calculate GDP.

Explanation:

The terms represent the components of the expenditure approach used in calculating a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

The expenditure approach sums up the total amount spent on goods and services produced within the country during a given period, typically a year.

The components of GDP using the expenditure approach are:

Consumption (C): the total spending by households on goods and services during the period.

Government spending (G): the total spending by the government on goods and services during the period.

Investment (I): the total spending on new capital equipment, buildings, and inventory by firms during the period.

Net Exports (NX): the difference between the value of exports and imports during the period.

The residual item in the expenditure approach is the difference between the total output (GDP) and the sum of the three components (C + G + I), which represents the net exports (NX).

So, the method used is the Expenditure approach to calculate GDP.

what is the california statute of limitations on bringing a court foreclosure to enforce a mechanic's lien? to bring action for removal of encroachments?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

In California, the statute of limitations for bringing a court foreclosure action to enforce a mechanic's lien is typically 90 days from the date the mechanic's lien was recorded. This time period is established by California Civil Code section 8460.

However, it's worth noting that there are several factors that can affect the statute of limitations for enforcing a mechanic's lien in California, including the type of construction project, the date the work was completed, and the date the mechanic's lien was recorded. Therefore, it's important to consult with an attorney to determine the specific statute of limitations that applies in a particular case.

Regarding the statute of limitations for bringing an action for removal of encroachments in California, the time period varies depending on the specific circumstances of the case. The general statute of limitations for bringing an action for trespass or nuisance is three years from the date the cause of action accrues, as established by California Code of Civil Procedure section 338. However, there may be other factors that affect the statute of limitations in a particular case, such as the nature of the encroachment, the duration of the encroachment, and the type of relief sought. Therefore, it's important to consult with an attorney to determine the specific statute of limitations that applies in a particular case.

The statute of limitations in California for filing a foreclosure to enforce a mechanic's lien is 90 days from the time a mechanic's lien notice is filed. If the notice is not filed, the time limit for filing a foreclosure action is 60 days from the time the work was done.

On the other hand, in California, the statute of limitations for bringing an action for removal of encroachments is 5 years. This means that if a person is being dispossessed of their property through an encroachment, they have a 5-year time limit to bring a legal action to recover their property.

It is important to keep in mind that statute of limitations periods may vary depending on the case and the specific situation. It is advisable to consult with an attorney specializing in the relevant area to determine the time limits applicable in each particular case.

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how long minimum amount of time you can have your probationary license?

Answers

Answer: 6 months

Explanation:

assume there is a u.s. supreme court case: galactic bargains v. state farm ins., 251 u.s. 1442 (2018). what does the citation indicate about the plaintiff's claim?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A citation to a court case typically includes several pieces of information, including the names of the parties involved in the case, the volume number of the reporter where the case is published, the name of the reporter, and the page number(s) where the case can be found within that reporter. The citation may also include the name of the court that issued the decision.

In the example citation you provided, "Galactic Bargains v. State Farm Ins., 251 U.S. 1442 (2018)," "Galactic Bargains v. State Farm Ins." refers to the names of the parties involved in the case. "251" refers to the volume number of the reporter where the case is published, and "U.S." refers to the name of the reporter (in this case, the United States Reports, which is the official reporter of U.S. Supreme Court decisions). "1442" refers to the page number(s) where the case can be found within the United States Reports. "2018" is the year in which the case was decided.

Without more information about the case, it's impossible to say what the citation indicates about the plaintiff's claim.

in most circumstances, a supreme court is best described as a(n) court. group of answer choices

Answers

A Supreme Court is best described as an appellate court. In most circumstances, it is the highest judicial authority in a jurisdiction, responsible for hearing appeals from lower courts and ensuring the consistent application of laws. The primary function of a Supreme Court is to review and decide on cases that involve significant legal issues or constitutional matters, providing clarity and guidance for future legal decisions.

This helps to maintain a stable and consistent legal system. These justices serve for life and can only be removed by impeachment. The Supreme Court hears cases from all over the country and decides on issues that affect the entire nation.

Some of the most important cases in US history have been decided by the Supreme Court, such as Brown v. Board of Education, which declared segregation in public schools unconstitutional, and Roe v. Wade, which established a woman's right to choose to have an abortion.

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in the case study of moon v st thomas hospital, which actions by the nurse contributed to the nursing malpractice award?

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In the case study of Moon v St Thomas Hospital, the following actions by the nurse contributed to the nursing malpractice award:

Failure to use aseptic technique. The nurse failed to use aseptic technique while carrying out the procedures, which led to the patient's infection.

Failure to manage a high-risk patient. The patient was at high risk for developing bedsores, but the nurse failed to take adequate measures to prevent the development of bedsores.

Failure to document appropriately. The nurse failed to document the patient's condition and the procedures carried out, which is a violation of the standard of care.

Failure to monitor the patient's condition. The nurse failed to monitor the patient's condition, which led to a delay in recognizing the patient's deteriorating condition and providing timely intervention.

All of these actions contributed to the nursing malpractice award in the case study of Moon v St Thomas Hospital.

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which of the following remedies provided by a court to a nonbreaching party requires each party to a contract to return the consideration given to the other? question 35 options: injunction novation rescission extradition restitution

Answers

The remedy that requires each party to a contract to return the consideration given to the other is rescission.

Rescission is the cancellation of a contract and the return of the parties to the same position they held prior to the contract.

This remedy is often used when one party has breached the contract, as it allows the non-breaching party to be put in the same position they were in before the contract was created.

It is important to note that in order for rescission to take place, both parties must give back the consideration they received from each other under the terms of the contract.

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because of constitutional restrictions, the federal kidnapping statute requires, as an element of the offense that must be proven, that the victim be:

Answers

The federal kidnapping statute requires that the victim be transported across state lines as an element of the offense that must be proven.

This is due to constitutional restrictions which protect individuals from being unlawfully detained within a single state.

In order for the federal kidnapping statute to be applicable, the victim must be transported across state lines. This is the primary element of the offense and must be proven in order to successfully prosecute the kidnapper.

This requirement is a result of constitutional restrictions that protect individuals from being unlawfully detained within a single state. As such, the prosecution must demonstrate that the victim was transported across state lines in order for the federal kidnapping statute to be applicable.

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Rights specifically granted to Congress by the federal Constitution is what

Answers

Answer: Express powers

Explanation:

Express powers powers are specifically granted to the federal government in Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution.

What is an example of limited government?


a. the president doesn’t have to follow the law

b. the supreme court justices are elected to 4 year terms

c. the constitution cannot be amended

d. the constitution breaks the power of the government up into 3 branches

Answers

Answer:

d. the constitution breaks the power of the government up into 3 branches is an example of limited government, as it establishes checks and balances between the legislative, executive, and judicial branches to prevent any one branch from becoming too powerful.

many, if not most, federal law enforcement agencies require the successful candidate for a sworn position to have a minimum of a bachelor's degree. responses false false true true

Answers

Many, if not most, federal law enforcement agencies require the successful candidate for a sworn position to have a minimum of a bachelor's degree. The statement is true. Many, if not most, federal law enforcement agencies require the successful candidate for a sworn position to have a minimum of a bachelor's degree. The degree may be in any field of study or related to law enforcement, such as criminal justice or criminology.

The United States Secret Service, for example, requires a bachelor's degree from an accredited institution or extensive law enforcement experience to apply for its Special Agent position. Similarly, the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) requires a four-year college or university degree from an accredited institution to be considered for its Special Agent position. Thus, the statement, "Many, if not most, federal law enforcement agencies require the successful candidate for a sworn position to have a minimum of a bachelor's degree" is true.

The agencies that come under the Federal Law Enforcement category are as follows: Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)U.S. Marshals Service Internal Revenue Service (IRS)U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS)National Park Service (NPS)U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE)United States Secret Service Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF)

Conclusion: Many, if not most, federal law enforcement agencies require the successful candidate for a sworn position to have a minimum of a bachelor's degree. The statement is true.

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During a speech 1942 what is one example of a phrase head are used to play on his listeners anti-Semitism 

Answers

Answer:

I'm sorry, but the question seems to be incomplete or unclear. Could you please provide more context or information so that I can better understand what you are looking for?

One phrase that Hitler used during his 1942 anti-Semitism speech is this: "they will stop laughing altogether, and I will fulfill my prophecy in this field too. ”

What is anti-semitism?

Anti-semitism was a movement that was aimed at eliminating the Jews. This movement was spearheaded by Hitler and he made a speech in September 1942 to the Reichstag listeners where he boasted that he would stop the Jews from laughing.

According to him, he made a prophecy that the Jews laughed about and now he was determined to fulfill his prophecy. This movement is a horrible event in history that terminated the lives of many Jews.

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in which of the following cases did the u.s. supreme court decide that the enforcement act of 1870 was unconstitutional thus turning a blind eye to paramilitary white supremist violence in the wake of reconstruction?

Answers

The U.S. Supreme Court decided that the Enforcement Act of 1870 was unconstitutional, thus turning a blind eye to paramilitary white supremacist violence in the wake of Reconstruction in the case of United States v. Cruikshank.

The Enforcement Act of 1870 is a federal law aimed at combating violence against Black voters and their supporters in the South. It was also known as the Civil Rights Act of 1870. It was passed in response to increasing white supremacist violence against black people and their allies in the South, particularly during the Reconstruction era.In the United States v. Cruikshank case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Enforcement Act of 1870 was unconstitutional, effectively gutting its effectiveness. The Court also ruled that the federal government could not prosecute individuals for depriving others of their civil rights unless the individuals themselves were acting as state officials. This decision severely limited the federal government's power to protect Black people from white supremacist violence in the South.

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some observers of less-developed countries use the term _____ to describe the unequal economic relationship between those countries and the former imperial power which used to control their territory.

Answers

Some observers of less-developed countries use the term neocolonialism to describe unequal economic relationship between those countries and the former imperial power which used to control their territory.

Neocolonialism is a concept that refers to the continued economic dependence of former colonies on their former colonial masters or their allies, despite the fact that they may have achieved independence from their respective colonizers. It is also referred to as "economic imperialism."

Neocolonialism involves a relationship between a relatively small, wealthy, and powerful group of countries, known as the “first world,” and a larger, less powerful, and less prosperous group of countries, known as the “third world.” This relationship allows the first world to dominate and exploit the third world economically, maintaining the latter's dependence on the former.

Imperialism refers to a system in which a strong nation-state attempts to extend its influence or authority over weaker nations or territories. Imperialism is characterized by a variety of practices, including the use of military force, economic exploitation, and cultural assimilation. European nations, particularly those with naval power, were responsible for the most extensive imperialistic activities during the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.

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list three possible explanations as to why democracies have seen a substantial growth in government in the 20th century.

Answers

There are three possible explanations for the substantial growth of democracy in the 20th century is 1) Expansion of social services, 2) Rise of globalization, 3) Response to crises.

1. Expansion of social services: As democracies matured, citizens increasingly demanded improved social services such as healthcare, education, and welfare. Governments expanded their roles in these areas to address inequalities and ensure a higher standard of living for their citizens. This growth in social services led to a larger government presence and higher public spending.

2. Rise of globalization: The 20th century saw a significant increase in globalization, with countries becoming more interconnected economically, politically, and culturally. As a result, governments had to adapt to new challenges such as international trade, diplomacy, and coordination with other nations. This required expanding the role of the government to effectively deal with these new responsibilities.

3. Response to crises: Throughout the 20th century, democracies faced numerous crises, including the Great Depression, World War II, and the Cold War. To tackle these crises, governments expanded their roles, implementing new policies and programs to mitigate the impact of these events on their citizens. The crisis-driven growth of government became a lasting feature in many democracies, even after the crises subsided.

In conclusion, the substantial growth in democratic governments in the 20th century can be attributed to citizens' demands for expanded social services, the rise of globalization, and the need to respond to various crises. Each of these factors contributed to a larger government presence, with more responsibilities and greater public spending.

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