Atoms transfer from non living portions of our environment to the living part of our environment through Food chain .
Physical and chemical processes move atoms through ecosystems. Organisms acquire the atoms they need from the ecosystem in which they live.
Plants consume nitrogen through their roots. Animals obtain nitrogen compounds when they eat the plants. When plants and animals die or when animals excrete wastes, the nitrogen compounds in the organic matter reenter the soil where they are broken down by microorganisms, known as decomposers. The nitrogen cycle involves three major steps nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and denitrification. It is a cycle within the biosphere which involves the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere.
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Which brand of ketchup tastes the best?
A. Scientific.
B. Non-scientific.
Answer: I'd say Heinz
Explanation:
One of the most popular brands of the ketchup world is Heinz, which is also said to be the best-tasting store-bought ketchup brand.
Many people have stated that Heinz has the best overall appearance, texture, and flavor that most people want in tomato ketchup.
Heinz ketchup features a thick and glossy texture, making Heinz ketchup perfect for dips and dolloping over food.
Moreover, Heinz ketchup has an ideal balance of tomato, sweet, and tangy flavors, which has made Heinz ketchup the top-selling ketchup brand.
Additionally, Heinz has created several ketchup products in its time, such as organic ketchup, no sugar added ketchup, and more.
Sometimes, Heinz got into making unique-looking ketchup such as purple ketchup, Chicago dog sauce, etc., but these variations did not stay in the market for long.
Answer: non-scientific but it would be more of an opinion than anything
Explanation:
Match the correct answer to the correct blank!
Energy stored in the ______________(1)_____________of_____________(2)_
(3)______________ and converted into
(SUGARS) are
process of
>
cellular respiration
chemical bonds
ATP
broken
(5)
glucose
ہے
(4)
molecules
during the
Q1.
Table 1 shows information about some food components in cow’s milk.
Table 1
Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) for a typical adult Energy in kJ 1046 8700
Fat in g 8.4 70.0
Salt in g 0.5 6.0
Calcium in mg 605 1000
Vitamin B-12 in μg 4.5 2.4
(a) How much more milk would a typical adult have to drink to get their RDA for calcium compared with the amount of milk needed to get their RDA for vitamin B-12?
Please show workings
A typical adult would have to drink 566.6 cm³ more milk to get their RDA for calcium compared with the amount of milk needed to get their RDA for vitamin B-12
What volume of milk is needed to meet the Recommended Daily Allowance for Calcium and Vitamin B-12?The volume of milk needed to meet the Recommended Daily Allowance for Calcium and Vitamin B-12 is calculated as follows:
RDA for calcium = 1000 mg
500 cm³ of milk contains 600 mg
Volume of milk required for RDA calcium = 1000 * 500 / 600
Volume of milk required for RDA calcium = 833.3 cm³
RDA for Vitamin B-12 = 2.4 µg
500 cm³ of milk contains 4.5 µg
Volume of milk required for RDA Vitamin B-12 = 2.4 * 500 / 4.5
Volume of milk required for RDA Vitamin B-12 = 266.7 cm³
Difference between the Volume of milk required for RDA calcium and RDA Vitamin B-12 = 833.3 cm³ - 266.7 cm³ = 566.6 cm³
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the percentage of homozygous recessive individuals (for one particular trait) in a population is found to be 49%. assuming the population is at hardy-weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the recessive allele? (allele frequencies are displayed as a number between 0-1. do not give a percentage).
The frequency of the recessive allele is 0.7.
As per the question, the percentage of homozygous recessive individuals = 49% or a frequency of 0.49. So, frequency of recessive allele is the square root of 0.49 = 0.7
The Hardy Weinberg rule states that in the absence of circumstances that promote evolution, the genotype and allele frequencies in a population remain constant. It claims that the binomial expansion of the square of the sum of p and q can be used to describe the total genotype frequencies. The binomial expression is as follows:
[tex](p+q)^{2}[/tex] = [tex]p^{2}[/tex] + [tex]q^{2}[/tex] + [tex]2pq^{}[/tex]
Here, p and q are the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles respectively.
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fibers from the olfactory bulb go directly to the amygdala, which sends smell information to the hypothalamus, thalamus, and frontal cortex. the neural connections from the amydala to the may explain why smells can instantly evoke an emotional memory. multiple choice question
Fibers from the olfactory bulb go directly to the amygdala, which sends smell information to the hypothalamus, thalamus, and frontal cortex. the neural connections from the amygdala to the hippocampus may explain why smells can instantly evoke emotional memory.
The olfactory bulb provides olfactory information to the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC), the hippocampus, and the amygdala for further processing, where it is involved in emotion, memory, and learning. The olfactory bulb, or smell center of the brain, receives scents directly without passing via the thalamus. The amygdala and hippocampus are closely related to the olfactory bulb, which may help to explain how quickly a specific memory or even a strong emotion may be evoked by smelling something.
Located in the central part of the temporal lobe, the hippocampus and amygdala are two brain regions that occasionally communicate with one another. Just anterior to (in front of) the hippocampus in the medial temporal lobe is where the amygdala is situated. The amygdala is a paired structure that is found in each hemisphere of the brain, much like the hippocampus.
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how does bpg decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? i. bpg binding to hemoglobin stabilizes the deoxy conformation. ii. bpg binding to hemoglobin stabilizes the oxy conformation. iii. none of the other options. iv. bpg blocks the oxygen binding sites directly. v. bpg reacts with oxygen to produce bicarbonate.
BPG binding to hemoglobin stabilizes the deoxy conformation bpg decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
The correct option is (i).
What is the main cause of low hemoglobin?Low hemoglobin is most frequently caused by a diet that is inadequate in iron. Low hemoglobin levels can cause headaches, exhaustion, and pale complexion. Surgery, iron therapy, and iron supplementation are all options for treating low hemoglobin. It's also crucial to include more foods high in iron in your diet.
What level of hemoglobin is concerning?The cutoff point for a high hemoglobin count varies widely between medical specialties. Hemoglobin overload is often characterized as having more than 15.4 g/dL for women and more than 16.6 g/dL for men.
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A________ is a notable feature or quality (like eye color) that has different forms in a population.
O fertilization
O trait
O gamete
O pedigree
Answer:c gamete
Explanation:
How does reproductive isolation and extinction connected?
Answer:
Reproductive isolation is defined as processes that prevent individuals of different populations from mating, survival or producing fertile offspring. Reproductive isolation is critical for driving speciation and maintaining species identity,
Explanation:
isolation is known to contribute to divergent evolution, resulting in unique phenotypes. Oftentimes morphologically distinct populations are found to be interfertile while reproductive isolation is found to exist within nominal morphological species revealing the existence of cryptic species. These disparities can be difficult to predict or explain especially when they do not reflect an inferred history of common ancestry which suggests that environmental factors affect the nature of ecological divergence. A series of laboratory experiments and observational studies were used to address what role biogeographic factors may play in the ecological divergence of Hyalella amphipods. It was found that geographic isolation plays a key role in the evolution of reproductive isolation and divergent morphology and that divergence cannot be explained by molecular genetic variation.
In a cardiac autorhythmic cell, which ion is responsible for the increase in membrane potential from threshold during an action potential?.
In a cardiac autorhythmic cell, calcium ([tex]Ca^{2+}[/tex]) ion is responsible for the increase in membrane potential from threshold during an action potential.
A pacemaker potential is produced when an autorhythmic cell depolarizes spontaneously, which is a special skill. Once the threshold is achieved, an action potential is set off, starting with more depolarization and ending with the membrane potential being reversed.
A transient voltage change (membrane potential) across the cell membrane of heart cells is known as the cardiac action potential. Ion channels, which are proteins, are responsible for the passage of charged atoms (known as ions) between the interior and outside of the cell.
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Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?.
The venous end of the capillary is where reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place.
Osmotic pressure is the net force that propels reabsorption—the flow of fluid from the interstitial fluid back into the capillaries—into the body (sometimes referred to as oncotic pressure).
The blood's hydrostatic pressure is the reason behind this (which favors filtration out of the capillary is lowest in the venous end of the capillary.) Cationic Exchange Because capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP) exceeds blood colloidal osmotic pressure, net filtration occurs close to the arterial end of the capillary (BCOP).
Due to the fact that CHP = BCOP, there is no net fluid movement around the middle. Near the venous end, net reabsorption takes place because BCOP is higher than CHP.
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Nítrates are converged into
Answer:
Denitrification is the process that converts nitrate to nitrogen gas, thus removing bioavailable nitrogen and returning it to the atmosphere.
Discuss the important of abiotic factors for animals that live in the soil
Answer:
Abiotic factors include water, sunlight, oxygen, soil and temperature. Water (H2O) is a very important abiotic factor – it is often said that “water is life.”
Explanation:
how would the following changes influence the sensitivity of pcr primers for the target dna sequence in a pcr reaction? many mismatches between the target dna and primer sequences few mismatches between the target dna and primer sequences increase the annealing temperature decrease the extension temperature
The following changes influence the sensitivity of PCR primers for the target DNA sequence in a PCR reaction Increase.
The most effective way to improve specificity is to design primers that are nucleotides in length with a high annealing temperature of Tm. This is especially important when using genomic DNA or cDNA libraries as PCR templates. A pair of primers hybridizes with the sample DNA and defines the region to be amplified. The result is millions of copies in a very short time.
Primers are also used for DNA sequencing and other experimental procedures. A PCR primer refers to a short piece of single-stranded DNA used in a PCR reaction, and a sequencing primer refers to a short sequence of nucleotides used to initiate DNA synthesis in a sequencing reaction. Use the lowest possible concentration if necessary.
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a mutation during dna replication causes a g to be inserted after the first base of the codon for tryptophan. how will this affect the growing polypeptide chain?
From this point on, the reading frame will be moved to the left, and the incorrect amino acids will be inserted.
Three bases make up a codon, which determines which amino acid will be put into the polypeptide chain. A codon is a section of the genetic code that forms the basis for the insertion of amino acids. Three RNA or DNA nucleotides make up this compound.
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Answer:
Explanation:
During DNA replication, a mutation results in the insertion of a g after the first base of the tryptophan codon and from this point on, the reading frame will be moved to the left, and the incorrect amino acids will be inserted.
How does the mutation change the order of amino acids?
Although a mutation at specific places, such as conserved residues, might affect both the protein’s structure and function, it is not always the case that a mutation in the amino acid sequence would modify a protein’s structure.
What impact do mutations have on the outcomes of DNA replication?
A DNA sequence mutation is an alteration.
Before DNA replication, mutations can be transmitted to daughter DNA molecules and subsequent cells.
Only one daughter copy will have the mutation and the other won't if the mutation only affects one strand of the parent molecule.
Which sort of mutation is brought on by the removal or addition of one or two DNA bases?
The insertion or deletion of nucleotide bases in amounts that are not multiples of three is referred to as a frameshift mutation in a gene.
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you would like to produce a strain of wheat that has alleles for high gluten content by artificially selecting for high gluten in an existing population. from which population should you sample to maximize the likelihood that your new strain has alleles for high gluten?
(C) "Population that has variable gluten levels (high and low) regardless of soil quality" is where you should sample to maximize the likelihood that your new strain has alleles for high gluten.
The degree to which genetic variations among persons may adequately explain the variations in their attributes is known as heritability. Characteristics like height, eye color, and IQ are examples of traits, as are illnesses like schizophrenia and autism spectrum disorder.
Heritability is to blame for it. Heritability is a measurement of the extent to which genetic variations contribute to the phenotypic variance of a characteristic in the progeny:
It is measured from 0 to 1
H2 = Vg/Vp
Vg = Genetic variation
Vp = Vg + Ve
Ve = Environmental variation
So if the environmental variation is low, Heritability will be high.
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Question correction:
You would like to produce a strain of wheat that has alleles for high gluten content by artificially selecting for high gluten in an existing population. From which population should you sample to maximize the likelihood that your new strain has alleles for high gluten?
A. Population with high gluten when grown with fertilizer, but low gluten when grown in normal soil.
B. Population that always has average gluten levels regardless of soil quality
C. Population that has variable gluten levels (high and low) regardless of soil quality
D. Population with low gluten levels regardless of soil quality.
0.researchers have identified a specific gene, called , that is thought to be responsible for sharply increasing children's risk for obesity. a.obe b.fto c.oto d.fta
FTO is the gene responsible for causing obesity in child .
obesity can be caused by many lifestyle issues like little activity and eating high mount of calories food and drinks . But this disease is also related to genetic and hormonal factors that might play an important role . many Studies have concluded that the fat mass and obesity associated (FTO) genotype is associated with individual instability in weight loss with response to diet lifestyle interventions, but results are inconsistent.
Fto is mostly downregulated during fasting and upregulated during feeding, and that variation in Fto resulting in decreased expression or activity might provide a signal that promotes feeding and obesity.
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The diploid number of chromosomes for human skin cells is 46. If the cells undergo mitosis, what will be the diploid number of chromosomes in the new skin cells?.
Answer:
23 perhaps
Explanation:
not too sure..
Answer:
46
Explanation:
they stay the same
cilia and flagella move...
In opposite directions of the cell membrane
When the bending of microtubules is powered by ATP
In the same direction of the cell membrane
When the contractions of the basal body triplets are powered by ATP
When the central pair of microtubules produce ATP
Cilia and flagella move when the bending of microtubules is powered by ATP. Option B.
What are cilia and flagella?Cilia and Flagella are mobile organs. They might vary in shape, length, and number, but their main function is the same. Cells use them to move in a liquid environment.
Notice that they can also have other functions, like being sensory structures and catching food.
Motion in Cilia and flagella produced by the sliding of some pairs of microtubules over others. The slides occur because of the provision of ATP from mitochondria.
Cilia and flagella move when the bending of microtubules is powered by ATP. Option B.
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consider a mutation that causes a decreased activity in a particular protein. a second mutation alters the function of another protein that participates in the same cellular pathway, thereby overcoming the defect in the first protein. this is an example of a(n) .
Consider a mutation that causes a decreased activity in a particular protein. A second mutation alters the function of another protein that participates in the same cellular pathway, thereby overcoming the defect in the first protein. This is an example of a(n) (C) intergenic suppressor.
In a procedure known as synthetic rescue, a suppressor mutation is a second mutation that lessens or reverses the phenotypic consequences of an already existing mutant. Therefore, genetic suppression brings back the phenotype that existed before the initial background mutation.
By causing a mutation elsewhere in the genome, intergenic suppression mitigates the impact of a mutation in one gene. The second mutation does not occur on the identical gene as the first one. For finding and researching interactions between molecules, such as proteins, intergenic suppression is helpful.
For instance, a second mutation elsewhere in the genome that restores or creates a suitable alternative connection between those molecules can make up for a mutation that breaks the complimentary interaction between protein molecules.
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Question correction:
Consider a mutation that causes a decreased activity in a particular protein. A second mutation alters the function of another protein that participates in the same cellular pathway, thereby overcoming the defect in the first protein. This is an example of a(n):
A. Inversion mutation
B. Intragenic suppressor
C. Intergenic suppressor
D. Transversion mutation
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How is food moved through the esophagus and small intestine?
(ANSWER IF 100 PERCENT SURE THIS IS FOR A TEST)
A. The process of peristalsis which is small muscle contractions squeeze food down the tube.
B. Peristalsis is when long muscles the size of the organ open the tube up for food to slide through.
C. The food gets pushed through, as you eat more it pushes the other food along.
D. Food is moved by the pull of gravity through the tubes in the body.
I'm pretty sure its either A or B but I don't know which one.
Answer: A. The process of peristalsis which is small muscle contractions squeeze food down the tube.
Explanation:
The smooth muscle that runs down the esophagus functions in a wave like pattern to push food down.
Suppose there is a mutation in a laminin-binding integrin gene that causes a loss of function in the cytoplasmic domains of the integrin. Which one of the outcomes would you expect to observe as a result of this mutation?.
The integrin could no longer connect with intermediate filaments in hemidesmosomes, and the strength of tissues would decrease.
How do hemidesmosomes work?Hemidesmosomes are cell connections that can be found in various epithelia and are constantly subject to mechanical and abrasive stresses. Mechanical stress in these areas may lead to a separation of the epithelial cells from the underlying connective. The name "hemidesmosome" refers to this structure's apparent resemblance to half desmosomes.
How do hemidesmosomes affect cell adhesion?The functions of each component in cell adhesion are distinct. Hemidesmosomes' primary job is to help cells adhere to the basal lamina. The latter is a thin layer of the extracellular matrix that serves as a barrier between cells and epithelial tissue.
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a phagehunter plates 400 phage particles onto a pyca plate with gordonia terrae. the burst size of the phage is 50 phage particles per round of replication. after three rounds of replication, how many phage particles are present on this plate?
The number of phage particles present on this plate is 60000.
A phage particle consists of a single form of nucleic acid (both DNA or RNA) and a protein capsid that protects the genetic cloth. The vast majority of phages also possess a tail (fabricated from proteins) that enables the specific recognition of a receptor on the surface of the host bacterium.
No. Of phage particles in phage hunter = 400
No. Of phage particles replicate from one particle in 1 round= 50
No. of phage particles replicate from 400 particles in round = 50*400
= 20000 particles.
No. Of phage particles replicate from 400 particles in 3 rounds= 20000*3
= 60000
So after three rounds of replication, 60000 phage particles are present on this plate.
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Grasslands are a very different ecosystem than a wetland. What ecosystem services do you think a grassland might provide for people?
Grasslands provide ecosystem services like creation of habitat for wildlife animals, formation of soil, cycling of nutrients, carbon sequestration as well as air quality and water regulation.
Grasslands include an ecosystem which mainly comprises grasses due to the fact that it receives low precipitation and is mostly occupied by grazing animals. Grasslands occupy about 40% of the Earth's surface.
There are two types of grasslands, i.e. tropical as well as temperate. Tropical grasslands are present in Africa (Savannahs) as well as Australia. Temperate grasslands that are present in Eurasia are known as Steppes, while they are known as Prairies in North America and as Pampas in Argentina.
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. why do some microbiologists prefer to open and close quickly the culture tube instead of flaming its mouth prior and after transferring bacteria to or from it? multiple choice 3 because it reduces the amount of heat entering the tube because it is more likely to prevent contamination because it prevents spills more effectively because it eliminates the necessity of an open flame
Some microbiologists prefer to open and close quickly the culture tube instead of flaming its mouth prior and after transferring bacteria to or from it because it prevents spills more effectively because it eliminates the necessity of an open flame
What are the risks associated with utilising direct burning to control bacteria?Contamination danger is increased. Not all contagious components will be promptly deactivated and destroyed when an item is exposed to open flames.
Flaming the Test Tube's Mouth: A convection current is produced when the mouth of a tube is passed past the flame of a Bunsen burner, forcing air out of the tube. By doing this, pollutants from the air are kept out of the tube.
Flaming is used to warm the bottle's opening and produce air convection currents that move away from the opening rather than sterilising it (i.e., updraft). The heated, rising air helps keep contaminants and other impurities out of the bottle.
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The diagram below shows many of the processes involved in the carbon cycle. Which of the processes shown releases carbon into the atmosphere?
The process which release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere are animal respiration, combustion of fossil fuels, volcanic activity, plant respiration. natural combustion.
What is volcanic activity?Gas emissions, non-explosive lava emissions, and extremely intense explosive bursts that may persist for several hours are all examples of volcanic activity. Volcano shapes and sizes are influenced by the types of eruptions in terms of relative quantities, types, and lava flow patterns.
An eruption of lava may include
an eruptive pulse, which is essentially an explosion with an eruption plume as well as lave surges without an explosion. From a few seconds to minutes, a pulse can occur.
a prolonged eruptive phase made composed of multiple eruptive pulses that may alternate between explosions and lava surges and continue anywhere from a few hours to days;
a single eruption or eruptive occurrence that lasts several days, months, or years and is made up of different phases (Fisher and Schmincke, 1984). For nine years, Paricutin, Mexico, was erupting. Over 2000 years have passed since the last eruption of Stromboli, Italy.
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what are some examples of mesophytes xerophytes
Answer:
Plants adapted to dry, hot and arid climates are considered xerophytes. Examples include the entire yucca family, acacia trees, and mesquite trees.
Since mesophytes prefer moist, well drained soils, most crops are mesophytes. Some examples are corn (maize), cucurbits, privet, lilac, goldenrod, clover, and oxeye daisy.
Explain the relationship of the sun, earth, and moon and the concept of
gravitational pull.
Answer:
Earth, Sun and Moon The mass of the sun is 1.99 x 10^30 kilograms, while the Earth weighs in at 6.0 x 10^24 kilograms. The gravitational constant is 6.67 x 10^-11 meter^3 / (kilogram – second^2). So the Earth and sun pull on each other with a force equal to 3.52 x 10^22 newtons.
Explanation:
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Many of the drugs of abuse share the tendency to increase levels of which neurotransmitter in the brain?
Select one:
a.
Melatonin
b.
GABA
c.
Serotonin
d.
Dopamine
Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:
Drugs of abuse such as methamphetamine and morphine increase the levels of dopamine in the central nervous system. Dopamine has a variety of functions but functions mainly in motivation and reward mechanism. People doing drugs of abuse create a pleasurable sensation in which there is a dopamine surge every time they use drugs. In the absence of drugs, the body "looks" for the pleasure thereby causing the person to be drug-dependent and addicted.
Drugs of abuse that are commonly abused by people are alcohol, cocaine, MA, heroin, marijuana, nicotine.
Most of these drugs increase the level of dopamine in the brain.
Dopamine is an amine neurotransmitter which generates feelings of pleasure and thus creates a sense of euphoria.
Further, this neurotransmitter is also responsible for reward behavior and thus generates a feeling of satisfaction in the abuser.
Please give a thanks or 5 stars if this helped!
Answer: D. Dopamine
Explanation:
Dopamine is the neurotransmitter that has been classically associated with the reinforcing effects of drugs of abuse and may have a key role in triggering the neurobiological changes associated with addiction.
processes of photosynthesis and respiration.
Discuss the dynamics of each. In your discussion be sure to include ….
which kingdom undergoes each process(2pts),
reactants and products of each (2pts),
cell organelle involved in each process (2pts),
organ involved in respiration (2pts).
Photosynthesis occurs in plants while respiration occurs in the animals.
What is photosynthesis?The term photosynthesis has to do with the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to give sugars and oxygen. This occurs in the chloroplast of the organisms that can be found in the plant kingdom. The leave is the organ of the plant where the photosynthesis takes place. Thus, the process is used by the plants to be able to manufacture there own food in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
Respiration occurs in the organisms that are found in the animal kingdom. The process of respiration occurs in the mitochondrion of the animal cell. We know that the process of respiration involves the combination of sugars and oxygen to give carbon dioxide and water. The lungs is the organ that is responsible for respiration in animals. This process is used by the animals to break down the complex sugar molecules so as to obtain the energy that is required for the animal to able to carry out the activities that is required for the animals to be able to carry out.
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Systems function in cycles and consist of _____ that increase a process or component, and _____ that diminish a process or component.
O positive feedbacks, negative feedbacks
O open systems, closed systems
O throughputs, thresholds
O positive feedbacks, open systems
O balances, imbalances
Systems function in cycles and consist of positive feedbacks that increase a process or component, and negative feedbacks that diminish a process or component.
What makes a positive feedback?Positive feedback is a process in which an action's results prompt more of the same action to take place in a feedback loop. This makes the initial action stronger. Negative feedback, on the other hand, occurs when the outcomes of an action prevent that action from happening again.
What are some examples of positive feedbacks?Your contribution at the meeting today changed the course of this project.I am quite impressed by how you were able to accomplish each target you were given.Your greatest strength is your consistency.With today's presentation, you did a fantastic job.To know more about Positive feedback visit:
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